United States Health Care System 3rd Edition Austin Test Bank The U.S. Health Care System, 3e (Austin) Chapter 1 Health and Care in America 1) The medical model includes all of the following, EXCEPT A) illness and disease require treatment B) focus is diagnosis C) focus is on disease prevention D) focus is on treatment Answer: C 2) In the two decades following 2010, millions of Americans will reach age 65. This concerns the health care industry because A) men are living longer and will outpace women; thus, there will be a need for increased services for men B) of the exodus of experienced health care professionals C) the generation after the baby boomers will overwhelm the health care system D) there will be an increased need for geriatric care Answer: D 3) According to the 2014 National Health Interview Survey, who is more likely to suffer from poor health? A) A person with a college degree B) A person who has graduated from high school C) An individual with a yearly income of $85,000 D) An individual with a yearly income of $20,000 Answer: C 4) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention do all the following, EXCEPT A) survey Americans about their health B) collect health statistics C) report the leading causes of death D) monitor hospital compliance with HIPAA Answer: D 5) Focus areas of Healthy People 2020 and patterns of disease in the population direct research efforts. Research can be directed at all of the following, EXCEPT A) cure B) control C) prevention D) elimination Answer: D
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6) What was the leading cause of death in 2012? A) Suicide B) Diabetes C) Heart disease D) Pneumonia/flu Answer: C 7) All of the following occupations are expected to increase by more than 40% by 2022, EXCEPT A) sonographers B) medical secretaries C) home care aides D) occupational therapy assistants Answer: B 8) Health care employment continues to grow for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT A) managing costs B) advances in medical technology C) aging population D) inability to automate many functions Answer: D 9) In 2013, the U.S. spent A) $2.5 billion B) $50 billion C) $2.9 trillion D) $50 trillion Answer: C
on health expenditures.
10) Which statement does NOT describe health care? A) It accounts for the largest percentage of the gross domestic product. B) It is one of the fastest growing industries in the United States. C) It is the process of providing care to individuals to maintain and improve their physical and mental well-being. D) It is an industry. Answer: A 11) The study of disease and death in a population is called A) microbiology B) epidemiology C) anthropology D) sociology Answer: B
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12) Two parameters that usually result in an indication of excellent health are A) genetics and education B) genetics and income C) education and income D) profession and income Answer: C 13) All of the following are types of health care facilities, EXCEPT A) a physician's office B) an HMO C) a long-term-care facility D) a hospital Answer: B 14) Which is TRUE regarding long-term care? A) Only those 65 and older are eligible. B) The majority of care is provided in nursing homes. C) In 2012, more than 4 trillion people received services. D) All age groups are eligible for services. Answer: D 15) The term LTC means providing health care services to an individual for more than A) 30 days B) 60 days C) 90 days D) 180 days Answer: C 16) All of the following are examples of locations where long-term care could take place, EXCEPT A) clinics B) hospitals C) rehabilitation centers D) adult day cares Answer: A 17) All of the following are examples of the role of public health, EXCEPT A) crosswalks on streets B) hard hat laws for construction workers C) prompt processing of insurance claims D) free immunization clinics Answer: C
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18) Mental illness A) is usually a chronic lifetime disease B) strikes one of every 10 adults C) is treated 90% of the time D) is readily available and inexpensive Answer: A 19) The three major places of employment for health care workers are A) hospitals, nursing and residential care facilities, and practitioners' offices B) practitioners' offices, dental offices, and public health facilities C) CDC, hospitals, and residential care facilities D) adult day care, hospitals, and practitioners' offices Answer: A 20) Health care policy addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT A) cultural B) access C) costs D) quality Answer: A 21) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act A) helps increase the number of people who are uninsured B) allows the market to drive costs up C) seeks to improve health care delivery performance D) is surveying Americans about their health care utilization patterns Answer: C 22) Managed care can be described by all of the following, EXCEPT A) manages the patient's utilization of services B) manages the price paid for services C) has the objective of only providing those services that are necessary to contain costs D) maintains a sustainable noncompetitive advantage Answer: D 23) Sustainable competitive advantage is described by all of the following, EXCEPT it A) varies from business to business B) depends on the objectives the firm is trying to achieve C) helps a business maintain its position in the marketplace D) allows the market to drive costs up Answer: D
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24) The ability to stay in business for a health care facility is based on the facility's A) sustainable competitive advantage B) reimbursement rates C) business plan D) business viability Answer: A 25) Health care expenditures account for greater than 15% of the GDP. Answer: TRUE 26) Women are more likely to live in poverty than men. Answer: TRUE 27) Competition is a component of a market economy. Answer: TRUE 28) The patient is at the center of the health care industry. Answer: TRUE 29) Less than half of health care workers provide direct patient care. Answer: FALSE 30) The United States has a national health care system. Answer: FALSE 31) Focus on the prevention of disease and the maintenance of well-being describes the model. Answer: wellness 32) The population has more than doubled since 1990 and is younger than the total population. Answer: Hispanic 33) Census data indicates that the United States has increased its Answer: ethnic
diversity.
34) Study of the nature, cause, control, and determinants of the frequency of disease, death, and disability in the human population is . Answer: epidemiology 35) Name two trends that emerge from the demographic data about age and the impact on health care. Answer: Responses will vary, but may include: Americans are living longer The record number of baby boomers reaching age 65
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36) Define health from the perspective of the wellness model. Answer: Responses will vary but may include: the optimal functioning of each human being in his or her mind, body, and spirit 37) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act will impact many areas of health care. Discuss the implications you anticipate for you, your family, and your fellow classmates, based on the information in this chapter. Answer: Responses will vary, but may include: insurance mandated for all family members and by all employers cost of care is controlled, which decreases personal cost and potential tax burden quality of care is improved 38) Describe health care. List two viewpoints. Answer: Health care is a set of delivery systems; health care is a set of related businesses.
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The U.S. Health Care System, 3e (Austin) Chapter 2 The Business Side of Health Care 1) A not-for-profit hospital is described by all of the following, EXCEPT it A) may focus on serving the poor B) is not focused on profits C) may lose money on many of its poor patients D) has a goal of making money Answer: D 2) Profit is A) money collected from patients and insurance companies for health care services rendered B) the price paid when an individual or business borrows money C) revenue minus costs D) lacking during times of prosperity Answer: C 3) A single physician in practice would be an example of a(n) A) sole proprietorship B) partnership C) corporation D) antitrust Answer: A 4) Shareholders may exist in which business ownership configuration? A) Corporation B) Partnership C) Sole proprietorship D) Collaboration Answer: A 5) Marketing A) includes the product, price, promotion, and distribution to the customer B) uses technology to manage information C) creates the product or service D) tracks the flow of money in and out of a business Answer: A 6) Accounting A) creates the product or service B) tracks the flow of money in and out of a business C) uses technology to manage information D) includes the product, price, promotion, and distribution to the customer Answer: B
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7) Production A) uses technology to manage information B) tracks the flow of money in and out of a business C) includes the product, price, promotion, and distribution to the customer D) creates the product or service Answer: D 8) Information technology A) creates the product or service B) tracks the flow of money in and out of a business C) includes the product, price, promotion, and distribution to the customer D) uses technology to manage information Answer: D 9) A market economy is described by all of the following, EXCEPT it A) is also called a private system B) is called a free enterprise system C) has competition as its central feature D) is not concerned with profit Answer: D 10) Which economic principle influences the cost as well as the availability of goods and services? A) Supply and demand B) Microeconomics C) Recession D) Macroeconomics Answer: A 11) All of the following are key economic indicators, EXCEPT A) tax rate B) unemployment rate C) inflation rate D) interest rate Answer: A 12) Prior to pursuing funding for a new imaging machine, the CFO assesses the economy, especially the prime rate. The CFO is concerned about the effect that the _ will have on the ultimate cost of the imaging machine. A) loan B) credit C) inflation D) interest Answer: D
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13) An increase of the price level at any given time is called A) recovery B) interest C) inflation D) recession Answer: C 14) Which part of the economic cycle occurs with increasing inflation and interest rates? A) Prosperity B) Recession C) Depression D) Recovery Answer: B 15) A decrease in unemployment and interest rates occurs during which portion of the economic cycle? A) Prosperity B) Recession C) Depression D) Recovery Answer: A 16) Hospitals would be inclined to purchase major equipment during the _ A) prosperity B) recession C) depression D) recovery Answer: A
phase.
17) John Q. Public has been looking for a job for 2 months, to no avail. The country is likely in which economic period? A) Recovery B) Unemployment C) Underemployment D) Recession Answer: D 18) Increasing GDP and decreasing interest, inflation, and unemployment rates are indicative of the scenario. A) depression B) recession C) recovery D) prosperity Answer: D
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19) Consumers saving discretionary income, organizations holding off on building new facilities, and a persistent slow economy are indicative of a scenario. A) recovery B) recession C) prosperity D) depression Answer: B 20) Individuals may have to do without health care during which business cycle scenario? A) Prosperity B) Recession C) Depression D) Recovery Answer: C 21) The government's role in health care can be described as all of the following, EXCEPT A) payer B) regulator C) organizer D) provider Answer: C 22) Monopoly creation, price fixing, and price discrimination are prohibited by A) Medicare B) antitrust laws C) Medicaid D) The Joint Commission Answer: B 23) The Hill Burton Act A) is part of the Social Security Act B) prohibits referrals to clinical lab services where the provider has a financial interest C) involved the federal government funding construction of private facilities pursuant to a Certificate of Need D) provides for health insurance portability and protects the privacy of health records Answer: C 24) The Stark I law A) contains special provisions to protect laid-off workers and to encourage electronic records technology B) prohibits referrals to clinical lab services where the provider has a financial interest C) involved the federal government funding construction of private facilities pursuant to a Certificate of Need D) provides for health insurance portability and protects the privacy of health records Answer: B
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25) All of the following are a part of a SWOT analysis, EXCEPT A) evaluating opportunities B) identifying threats C) devising an action plan D) identifying weaknesses Answer: C 26) Which external environments impact the operation and design of health care businesses? A) Economic and political-legal B) Technological and economic C) Organizational direction and political-legal D) Formal structure and economic Answer: A 27) Under code 62 of the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS), the government tracks the activities of the sector of the economy it calls health and social assistance. Answer: TRUE 28) TJC accreditation is required for all health care facilities. Answer: FALSE 29) TJC accreditation can substitute for Medicare and Medicaid federal certification. Answer: TRUE 30) The Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendment tests safety and effectiveness of drugs. Answer: TRUE 31) A new hospital system has moved into your three-hospital city. The other two hospitals in the city have been purchased by the new hospital system. The senior leadership of the remaining hospital completes a SWOT analysis during the annual strategic planning session. The new hospital system is an example of the opportunities portion of the SWOT analysis. Answer: FALSE 32) The part of the management process is the manager's feedback loop. Answer: control 33) A pharmaceutical company that holds a patent and sells the only drug for heartburn, is a . Answer: monopoly 34) The person in charge of a hospital is the Answer: CEO
.
35) An environment where there are few sellers is a(n) Answer: oligopoly
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.
36) One of the objectives of health care laws is to Answer: ensure fair competition; protect the public
.
37) The Act encourages drug companies to produce drugs for rare diseases. Answer: Orphan Drug 38) Explain a sole proprietorship Answer: Responses will vary but may include: In a sole proprietorship, one person owns the business. The owner makes all the decisions, takes all the risks, and reaps all the rewards. 39) Name the four categories of health and social assistance under code 62. Answer: The businesses in code 62 are divided into four categories: ambulatory health care services, hospitals, nursing and residential care facilities, and social assistance.
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The U.S. Health Care System, 3e (Austin) Chapter 3 The Payment Process: Insurance and Third-Party Payers 1) What is health insurance? A) A PPO B) Shifting the risk of loss C) An HMO D) All of the above Answer: D 2) A third-party payer may be A) an insurance company B) a government agency C) a managed care organization D) all of the above Answer: D 3) The calculates risk and helps set premiums. A) actuary B) government C) benefits manager D) employer Answer: A 4) John's recent physician's office visit was not paid by the insurance company. It was his first claim of the year. The claim totaled $200. The reason the claim was denied was likely related to John's A) copayment B) subscriber C) deductible D) premium Answer: C 5) A deductible is the A) portion of services paid by the patient B) amount paid by the patient before the third-party payer begins to pay C) fee paid by employers and employees to the insurance company D) negotiated payment for services between the payer and the provider Answer: B 6) The copayment is the A) fee paid by employers and employees to the insurance company B) negotiated payment for services between the payer and the provider C) portion of services paid by the patient D) amount paid by the patient before the third-party payer begins to pay Answer: C 1
7) Premiums are the A) portion of services paid by the patient B) amount paid by the patient before the third-party payer begins to pay C) negotiated payment for services between the payer and the provider D) fee paid by employers and employees to the insurance company Answer: D 8) A policy is A) a binding contract that describes all the terms of insurance B) the time in which employees can utilize benefits C) a time when employees can change providers D) a binding contract between the payer and the employee Answer: A 9) An enrollment period is the A) time when a policy lapses B) time when companies determine which policy pays C) time when employees can sign up for benefits D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C 10) Determining which third-party pays for services is known as A) explanation of benefits B) COBRA C) coordination of benefits D) ERISA Answer: C 11) A person who signs up for insurance coverage through an employer is a (an) A) actuary B) enrollee C) subscriber D) policy holder Answer: B 12) All of the following are true about the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS), EXCEPT A) it consists of two levels B) the current procedural terminology (CPT) is for procedures and services performed by providers C) it involves indemnification D) the national codes (HCPCS level II codes) are for procedures, services, and supplies not found in CPT Answer: C
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13) Which of the following describes Blue Cross/Blue Shield? A) A health insurance company B) A type of prepaid service C) Mostly are nonprofit organizations D) All of the above Answer: D 14) A method of reimbursing providers based on what other providers are paid for a particular service is known as the A) usual charge and reasonable cost plan. B) usual, customary, and reasonable price C) universal charge and reimbursement plan D) ordinary and customary cost program Answer: B 15) A key function in a managed care model is A) gatekeeping B) prepayment C) processing fees D) indemnifying losses Answer: A 16) A payment method under which each patient receives a set dollar amount of services is known as the A) premium B) capitation C) copayment D) deductible Answer: B 17) An HMO contracts with more than one group practice for service in which arrangement? A) Staff model HMO B) Network HMO C) IPA D) PPO Answer: B 18) Prepaid health plans A) are attractive to employers because they know in advance what the cost of providing health care will be B) all involve an IPO C) are attractive to the service provider because the number of patients is fixed and a certain revenue level is guaranteed D) relate to both A and C Answer: B
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19) A is a system where payment is made in advance of services being provided. A) prepaid health plan B) preauthorization C) coordination of benefits D) copayment Answer: A 20) This organization negotiates and manages provider's contracts. A) Staff model HMO B) PPO C) Network HMO D) IPA Answer: B 21) Which regulates portability, access, and mandated benefits at the federal level? A) COBRA B) HIPAA C) EPO D) ERICA Answer: B 22) With EPOs, all of the following are true, EXCEPT A) patients must select their care providers from those in the network B) patients may choose their physician or hospital C) if the patient chooses to go outside the network, the services are not covered D) they are regulated by state insurance law Answer: B 23) A PPO A) is a delivery network B) does not receive premiums or assume financial risk C) decreases cost of service if a preferred provider is used D) represents all of the above Answer: D 24) All are true regarding regulation of third-party payers, EXCEPT A) insurers who sell any type of insurance are regulated B) only health insurance companies must be licensed C) the insurance commission is charged with regulatory authority D) regulation attempts to ensure policy holders receive the coverage they purchase Answer: B
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25) HIPAA regulates all of the following, EXCEPT A) portability B) coverage on a family plan until 26 years old C) access D) mandated benefits Answer: B 26) Employers must provide health insurance. Answer: FALSE 27) Employers pay the entire insurance premium for their employees in most instances. Answer: FALSE 28) Approximately 14 million people are without health insurance. Answer: FALSE 29) Physicians are always independent contractors in third-party payer arrangements. Answer: FALSE 30) Like hospitals, insurance companies must be licensed. Answer: TRUE 31) According to the text, Answer: about 16
% of Americans under age 65 are uninsured.
32) insurance does not restrict a patient's choice of providers. Answer: Indemnity 33) In a , the employer acts as the insurance company and pays for its employees' health care costs out of its own pocket. Answer: self-insured plan 34) administer health care benefits and process claims for their clients. Answer: Third-party administrators 35) A(n) Answer: HMO
is a type of prepaid health care plan.
36) Define the term third-party payer and describe the role of the insurance company as the third party in the patient-provider relationship. Answer: Responses will vary, but should include that the patient contracts with the insurance company to pay the provider for services rendered to the patient.
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37) Explain the gatekeeping concept, and include an example of how it benefits the patient, payer, and provider. Answer: Responses will vary, but should include: The patient can only access certain services from the primary care provider and can only obtain specialist and rehabilitative services if referred by the primary provider. This provides cost savings because only patients who are judged to need them have access to more expensive care.
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The U.S. Health Care System, 3e (Austin) Chapter 4 The Payment Process: Government Payment Programs 1) Hospitalization for a 70-year-old woman is likely covered by A) Medicaid Part B B) Medicaid Part A C) Medicare Part A D) Medicare Part B Answer: C 2) Medicare covers all of the following EXCEPT A) long-term care B) hospital care C) physician care D) hospice Answer: A 3) Medicare adopted(ing) managed care strategies. A) is considering B) was one of the earliest to begin C) will not be D) was the first insurer that Answer: B 4) Medicaid is a A) state-funded, state-administered program B) federally-funded, federally-administered program C) state-funded, federally-administered program D) federally-funded, state-administered program Answer: D 5) Who may be eligible for Medicaid? A) Older adults with large medical bills B) Pregnant women C) Disabled individuals D) All of the above Answer: D 6) Which people are most likely medically needy? A) 35-year-old healthy mother of one B) 70-year-old nursing home resident C) 66-year-old retired corporate executive with controlled hypertension D) 2-year-old child with a genetic disorder who has two gainfully-employed parents Answer: B
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7) Which Medicaid benefit(s) must all states cover? A) Dental services B) Physician services C) Pharmaceutical D) All of the above Answer: B 8) Medicaid eligibility is A) decided on the federal level B) decided on the state level C) the same for all states D) determined based on education Answer: B 9) Medicare is administered by A) CMS B) the states C) OPM D) FEHBP Answer: A 10) A physician office visit for a 9-year-old, whose mother makes minimum wage and cannot afford to pay her portion of her employer's health insurance plan, may be covered by A) Medicare Part B B) CHIP C) Medicaid D) Medicare Part A Answer: B 11) Which is TRUE regarding Medicaid? A) It reimburses providers on a fee-for-service system. B) It forces physicians to accept Medicaid patients. C) Many providers feel Medicaid compensation is too high. D) Reimbursements to providers was increased by 50%. Answer: A 12) The category of Medicaid recipients who receive the largest amount of funding is A) the disabled B) the elderly C) adults D) children Answer: A
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13) Approximately how many children were enrolled in CHIP in 2012? A) 1 million B) 8 million C) 36 million D) 43 million Answer: B 14) When providers feel that financial incentives are inadequate they may opt out of A) CHAMPUS B) CHIP C) Medicaid D) FEHBP Answer: C 15) All of the following are eligible for CHIP EXCEPT A) a 2-year-old B) an 18-year-old C) a 19-year-old D) an unborn child Answer: C 16) Susie Coder is a hospital inpatient coder. She is coding a complex Medicare record. She has to choose between two codes for the bill. Code A pays $3,400. Code B pays $9,700. The coding rules indicate that Susie should use code A. Susie uses code B. What is Susie guilty of? A) Miscoding B) Hospital coding C) DRG coding D) Upcoding Answer: D 17) Which is (are) considered fraud? A) A practitioner codes for a different procedure than was performed so the patient will be covered. B) A physician makes a referral to an agency in which he has financial interest, and bills Medicaid. C) A provider submits an insurance claim for a service that was never performed. D) All of the above Answer: D 18) Penalties for fraud and abuse include A) substantial fines B) exclusion from Medicare C) imprisonment D) all of the above Answer: D
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19) All of the following describe the Affordable Care Act regarding fraud and abuse EXCEPT A) enhanced oversight of new providers B) required provider screening C) a sharing database across state and federal programs D) developed joint fraud strike forces Answer: D 20) The Office of Personnel Management administers which program for government workers? A) Medicare B) FEHBP C) Medicaid D) CHIP Answer: B 21) Insurance for military personnel is A) Medicare B) Medicaid C) TRICARE D) CHAMPUS Answer: C 22) All are true about compliance programs EXCEPT A) all claims submitted for payment must have appropriate documentation B) providers should receive regular training to stay current with Medicare and Medicaid regulations C) they are mandatory under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act D) providers receive kickbacks for training courses Answer: D 23) Which are covered under the FEHBP? A) Federal employees B) Military families C) The medically needy D) Those with end-stage renal disease Answer: A 24) Which person may be eligible for workers' compensation? A) Julie has an accident on her way to work. B) Jan hurt herself while vacationing at the resort where she cooks. C) Steve fell in the restaurant parking lot on his lunch break. D) Scott, an RN, injured his back while transferring a patient. Answer: D
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25) Workers' compensation is financed by A) employer and employee payments B) employer payments only C) employee and government payments D) employer and government payments Answer: B 26) An example of self-referral would be a patient who asks another provider for a referral to a specialist. Answer: FALSE 27) Hospitals are the largest recipients of workers' compensation dollars. Answer: FALSE 28) TRICARE is a provider of health care services. Answer: FALSE 29) TRICARE has a variety of managed care options, such as HMOs, preferred providers, and fee-for-service. Answer: TRUE 30) Worker's compensation programs provide the incentive of employers' premium rates dropping if they have low numbers of accidents. Answer: TRUE 31) The disease that makes a person eligible for Medicare without being over 65 years old is . Answer: end-stage renal disease 32) Medicare Part Answer: D
covers prescription drugs.
33) Medicare uses a to reimburse providers. Answer: prospective payment system (PPS) 34) Financial gain from patient/service referrals is known as Answer: kickbacks 35) Define CHIP. Answer: Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP) 36) List two groups eligible for the FEHBP. Answer: Federal employees Their families Retirees Survivors of federal employees 5
.
37) Describe workers' compensation. Include the rationale for its existence from an employer and employee perspective. Answer: Responses will vary, but should include an explanation of workers' compensation as an insurance program that pays for health care related to work-related injuries.
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The U.S. Health Care System, 3e (Austin) Chapter 5 Health Care Providers: Physicians and Nurses 1) Which type of medicine is used with physicians who specialize in fighting disease, using proven, traditional treatment methods? A) Alternative medicine B) Osteopathic medicine C) Chiropractic medicine D) Allopathic medicine Answer: D 2) Physicians who specialize in understanding the musculoskeletal system and providing holistic care, practice A) alternative medicine B) allopathic medicine C) osteopathic medicine D) homeopathic medicine Answer: C 3) The main area(s) of care for a primary care physician is A) internal medicine B) general and family practice C) pediatrics D) all of the above Answer: D 4) According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Physicians 2014—15, approximately A) 35% of physicians are women B) 12% of physicians are African American C) 5% of physicians are Asian D) 10% of physicians are Hispanic Answer: A 5) Emergency medicine physicians specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of A) diseases of the lungs B) changes in organs, tissues, and cells C) acute illness or injury D) diseases of the urinary system Answer: C 6) Psychiatrists specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of A) diseases and disorders of the stomach and intestines B) diseases and disorders of the mind C) changes in organs, tissues, and cells D) diseases of the brain and nervous system Answer: B 1
7) Pathologists specialize in A) diagnosing disease by studying changes in organs, tissues, and cells B) diseases and disorders of the heart and blood vessels C) diseases and disorders of the skin D) pregnancy, childbirth, and diseases of female reproductive organs Answer: A 8) Which type of specialist administers medication to provide loss of feeling before surgical procedures? A) Anesthesiologist B) Ophthalmologist C) Radiologist D) Orthopedist Answer: A 9) Which type of surgery does an ophthalmic surgeon specialize in? A) Eye B) Brain C) Heart D) Skeletal Answer: A 10) According to the 2012 Medical Group Management Association's Physician Compensation and Production Survey, the median net income for physicians per year in primary care is A) $159,478.00 B) $198,765.00 C) $220,942.00 D) $332,843.00 Answer: C 11) About A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 90 Answer: B
percent of medical school applicants are accepted.
12) To practice medicine in most states, a physician must complete all of the following EXCEPT A) unpaid on-the-job training B) receive an undergraduate degree C) pass a licensing exam D) graduate from medical school Answer: A
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