Table of Contents 1. An Overview of Nutrition. Highlight 1: Nutrition Information and Misinformation. 2. Planning a Healthy Diet. Highlight 2: Vegetarian Diets. 3. Digestion, Absorption and Transport. Highlight 3: Common Digestive Problems. 4. The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches and Fibers. Highlight 4: Carbs, kCalories and Controversies. 5. The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids and Sterols. Highlight 5: High-Fat Foods — Friend or Foe? 6. Protein: Amino Acids. Highlight 6: Nutritional Genomics. 7. Energy Metabolism. Highlight 7: Alcohol in the Body. 8. Energy Balance and Body Composition. Highlight 8: Eating Disorders. 9. Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity and Underweight. Highlight 9: The Latest and Greatest Weight-Loss Diet — Again. 10. The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C. Highlight 10: Vitamin and Mineral Supplements. 11. The Fat-Soluble Vitamins, A, D, E and K. Highlight 11: Antioxidant Nutrients in Disease Prevention. 12. Water and the Major Minerals. Highlight 12: Osteoporosis and Calcium. 13. The Trace Minerals. Highlight 13: Phytochemicals and Functional Foods. 14. Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients and Body Adaptations. Highlight 14: Supplements as Ergogenic Aids. 15. Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation. Highlight 15: Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. 16. Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood and Adolescence. Highlight 16: Childhood Obesity and the Early Development of Chronic Diseases. 17. Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years. Highlight 17: Nutrient-Drug Interactions. 18. Diet and Health. Highlight 18: Complementary and Alternative Medicine. 19. Consumer Concerns About Foods and Water. Highlight 19: Food Biotechnology. 20. Hunger and the Global Environment. Highlight 20: Environmentally Friendly Food Choices.
Chapter 1 – An Overview of Nutrition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which characteristic is most typical of a chronic disease? a. It has a rapid onset. b. It rarely has noticeable symptoms. c. It produces sharp pains d. It progresses gradually. e. It disrupts daily life, but is unlikely to be life-threatening. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: Introduction OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 2. What is the chief reason most people choose the foods they eat? a. cost b. taste c. convenience d. nutritional value e. habit ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 3. A child develops a strong dislike of noodle soup after she consumes a bowl while sick with the flu. Her reaction is an example of a food-related . a. habit b. social interaction c. emotional turmoil d. negative association e. comfort eating ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 4. A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day is most likely making a food choice based on . a. habit b. availability c. body image d. environmental concerns e. cultural values ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 5. Which individual is making a food choice based on negative association? a. A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity b. A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty c. A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a close friend d. An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he considers it a child's food e. An adult who refuses to eat foods that are not locally-sourced and organic
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 6. The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely related to his . a. values b. body image c. ethnic heritage d. functional association e. comfort ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 7. Farah is viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness. Her food choice will most likely be based on . a. regional cuisines b. preferences c. emotional comfort d. positive association e. functional value ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 8. What term describes foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food's nutrients? a. fortified foods b. enriched foods c. functional foods d. health-enhancing foods e. bioavailable foods ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 9. Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that may demonstrate biological activity in the body are commonly known as a. bioenhancements b. inorganic fibers c. phytochemicals d. phytoactive chemicals e. nonnutritive additives ANS: C DIF: Bloom’s Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 10. By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods? a. fats b. water c. proteins d. carbohydrates e. vitamins and minerals ANS: B
DIF:
Bloom's: Remember
REF: 1.2 The Nutrients
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 11. What type of nutrient is needed by the body and must be supplied by foods? a. nutraceutical. b. metabolic nutrient c. organic nutrient d. essential nutrient e. phytonutrient. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 12. Which nutrient is an example of a macronutrient? a. proteins b. minerals c. water-soluble vitamins d. fat-soluble vitamins e. water ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 13. Which nutrient is classified as a micronutrient? a. minerals b. proteins c. alcohols d. carbohydrates e. fats ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 14. Which nutrient is an organic compound? a. salt b. water c. calcium d. vitamin C e. iron ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 15. An essential nutrient is one that . a. must be made in large quantities by the body b. can only by synthesized by the body c. cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body d. is used to synthesize other compounds in the body e. must be both consumed and synthesized to be complete ANS: C
DIF:
Bloom's: Understand
REF: 1.2 The Nutrients
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 16. The term organic, as related to compounds, would be best defined as a. products sold at health food stores b. products grown without use of pesticides c. foods having superior nutrient qualities d. substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds e. substances that contain water
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 17. How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1°C? a. 10 calories b. 100 calories c. 1 kilocalorie d. 10 kilocalories e. 100 kilocalories ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 18. Gram for gram, which class of nutrient provides the most energy? a. fats b. alcohols c. proteins d. carbohydrates e. vitamins and minerals ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 19. Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in a. kilojoules b. kilograms c. kilometers d. kilonewtons e. kiloliters
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 20. Units of energy used by most scientists and nutritionists, aside from those in the United States, are expressed in . a. newtons b. liters c. kilojoules d. kilocalories e. grams
ANS: C DIF: Bloom’s: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 21. Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk? a. 50 b. 85 c. 120 d. 170 e. 200 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 22. A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams? a. 5 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150 e. 200 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 23. A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat? a. 8.5% b. 15.0% c. 19.0% d. 25.5% e. 32.0% ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 24. Which nutrient source will yields more than 4 kcalories per gram? a. plant fats b. plant proteins c. animal proteins d. plant carbohydrates e. animal carbohydrates ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 25. What results from the metabolism of energy nutrients? a. Energy is released. b. Body fat increases. c. Energy is destroyed. d. Body water decreases. e. Body mass increases.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 26. Which statement best describes the composition of most foods? a. Most contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them. b. They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients. c. They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate. d. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and those two are contained in equal amounts. e. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and one is present in far greater amounts than the other. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 27. How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 13 e. 17 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 28. Which statement is true of minerals in their role as nutrients? a. They are organic. b. They yield 4 kcalories per gram. c. Some become dissolved in body fluids. d. Some may be destroyed during cooking. e. They are more fragile than vitamins. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Analyze REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 29. How many minerals are known to be essential for human nutrition? a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 20 e. 24 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 30. Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and tells you that she feels a lot better. Her statement to you is best described as a(n) . a. anecdote
b. c. d. e.
theory. interpretation conclusion. hypothesis
ANS: A DIF: Apply REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 31. What is the study of how a person's genes interact with nutrients? a. genetic counseling b. nutritional genomics c. genetic metabolomics d. nutritional genetics e. biogenetic nutrition ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 32. How does a double-blind experiment work? a. Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment. b. Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group c. Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know. d. Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know. e. Neither the subjects nor the persons having contact with the subjects know the true purpose of the experiment. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 33. In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called a a. theory b. prediction c. hypothesis d. correlation e. deduction
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 34. What is one major weakness of a laboratory-based study? a. The costs are typically prohibitive. b. Findings are difficult to replicate. c. Results from animal testing cannot be applied to human beings. d. Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled. e. Causality cannot be inferred. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Analyze REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of
research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 35. What is one benefit of using controls in an experiment? a. The size of the groups can be very large. b. The subjects do not know anything about the experiment. c. The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos. d. The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested. e. The costs associated with the study are usually much lower. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 36. What is one benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment? a. Chance variation is less likely to affect the results. b. The possibility of a placebo effect is eliminated. c. The experiment will be double-blind. d. The control group will be similar to the experimental group. e. Experimenter bias is less likely to have an effect. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 37. You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have taken to conduct your experiment correctly? a. Giving all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and telling them what they were getting b. Distributing the bottles randomly, randomizing the subjects, and telling them what they were getting c. Telling the subjects which group they were in, but preventing yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles d. Preventing yourself from knowing what is in the pill bottles, and distributing the bottles randomly to the subjects e. Allowing the subjects to decide whether they take Vitamin C or the placebo, and then giving them the opposite of what they requested ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 38. An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a a. variable effect b. positive correlation c. negative correlation d. randomization effect e. placebo effect
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.
39. Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as . a. peer review b. cohort review c. research intervention d. double-blind examination e. peer replication ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 40. What is the smallest amount of a nutrient that, when consumed over a prolonged period, maintains a specific function? a. nutrient allowance b. nutrient requirement c. nutrient tolerable limit d. nutrient adequate intake e. nutrient recommendation ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 41. A group of people consumes an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their population group. What percentage of people will receive insufficient amounts? a. 10 b. 25 c. 33 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 42. A health magazine contacts you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. How should you reply? a. The Dietary Reference Intakes, because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada b. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels, because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people c. The Estimated Average Requirements, because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population d. The Recommended Dietary Allowances, because they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people. e. The Estimated Energy Requirement, because it represents what will maintain energy balance and good health in a person of a given age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.
43. Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to . a. measure nutrient balance of population groups b. assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals c. treat persons with diet-related illnesses d. calculate exact food requirements for most individuals e. recommend amounts of nutrients when there is insufficient evidence to determine the EAR ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 44. Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the a. Lower Tolerable Limit b. Upper Tolerable Limit c. Subclinical Deficiency Value d. Estimated Average Requirement e. Adequate Intake
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 45. The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is known as the a. Adequate Intake. b. Daily Recommended Value. c. Tolerable Upper Intake Level. d. Recommended Dietary Allowance. e. Necessary and Sufficient Intake ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 46. The RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally a. more than twice as high as anyone needs b. the minimum amounts that average people need c. designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people d. designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population e. reflective of current dietary preferences
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 47. What is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake? a. Setting nutrient goals for individuals b. Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients c. Restoring health of malnourished individuals d. Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren e. Improving population-level health ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.
48. Which statement is true of nutrient intakes? a. Higher intakes are always safer than lower intakes. b. Intakes below the EAR decrease risk of deficiency. c. A typical intake falling between the RDA and the EAR is almost always adequate. d. Intakes above the RDA are required to be safe. e. Intakes above the UL put an individual at risk of toxicity. ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 49. What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent? a. The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food b. A number calculated by taking twice the RDA or three times the AI c. The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form d. The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most healthy people e. The amount that can be absorbed from a typical diet. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 50. What set of values is used to recommend the average kcalorie intake that maintains population groups in energy balance? a. Estimated Energy Requirement b. Adequate Average Requirement c. Recommended Dietary Allowance d. Acceptable Energy Distribution Range e. Tolerable Upper Energy Limit ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 51. The percentages of kcalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to reduce the risk of chronic diseases are known as the . a. Estimated Energy Requirements b. Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes c. Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations d. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges e. Healthy People Recommendations ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 52. What is the AMDR for carbohydrate? a. 5-10% b. 15-25% c. 30-40% d. 45-65% e. 70-80% ANS: D Intakes
DIF:
Bloom's: Remember
REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 53. What is the AMDR for protein? a. 10-35% b. 40-45% c. 50-60% d. 65-75% e. 80-80% ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 54. What is the AMDR for fat? a. 10-30% b. 20-35% c. 40-50% d. 55-65% e. 70-80% ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 55. The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to . a. treat people with diet-related disorders b. assess adequacy of all required nutrients c. plan and evaluate diets for healthy people d. assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals e. diagnose diet-related disorders ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 56. Which method is used to detect nutrient deficiencies? a. Nutrition assessment b. Nutrient stages identification c. Overt symptoms identification d. Outward manifestations assessment e. Nutritional diagnostic programs ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 57. As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition assessment procedures for all new patients. Which parameters would be most useful for the nutrition assessment of individuals? a. Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, and favorite family recipes b. Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, and family tree c. Diet records that include what the patient usually eats will provide sufficient information d. Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, and laboratory tests e. Diet records that take the “average” of what the patient reports and what an objective observer reports
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 58. Which measure is anthropometric? a. body weight b. blood pressure c. blood iron level d. food intake information e. serum electrolytes ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 59. Which sequence of stages is most typical in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from inadequate intake? a. Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs b. Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs c. Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores d. Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body e. Overt signs, abnormal functions, and declining nutrient stores ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 60. What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient? a. primary b. clinical c. secondary d. subclinical e. chronic ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 61. A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that a. shows overt signs b. is in the early stages c. shows resistance to treatment d. is similar to a secondary deficiency e. is of acute onset
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 62. The overall objective of the Healthy People program is to a. establish the DRI b. identify national trends in food consumption c. identify leading causes of death in the United States d. set goals for the nation's health over the next 10 years
.
e. decrease health care costs ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 63. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition? a. one b. four c. six d. eight e. nine ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 64. Which statement explains the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease? a. All people with the risk factor will develop the disease. b. The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease. c. The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease. d. The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative diseases. e. Risk factors tend to be short-lived, so their presence does not predict long-term risk of disease. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 65. What single behavior contributes to the most deaths in the United States? a. poor diet b. tobacco use c. alcohol intake d. risky sexual activity e. unsafe driving ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 66. Who would be the most appropriate person to consult for nutrition information? a. chiropractor b. medical doctor c. registered dietitian d. health food store manager e. nutrition consultant ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 67. Which statement best describes the legal limitations, if any, for a person who disseminates dietary advice to the public?
a. b. c. d.
The title "dietitian" can be used by anyone in all states. The title "nutritionist" can be used by anyone in all states. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is required by some states. A license to practice as a nutritionist is mandatory in all states but very few license dieticians. e. Nutrition consultants are subject to more stringent licensure than are dietitians. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 68. Which individuals is likely to possess the least amount of nutrition training and to have gotten his or her agree from an “alternative” educational program? a. dietetic technician b. registered dietician c. certified nutritionist d. dietetic technician, registered e. public health nutritionist ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 69. For which of the following titles, by definition, require the individual to be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics? a. medical doctor b. registered dietician c. certified nutritionist d. certified nutrition therapist e. registered nutritional consultant ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 70. A person who assists registered dietitians has the formal title of a. dietetic assistant b. nutrition assistant c. dietetic technician d. nutrition technician e. dietetic aide
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. COMPLETION 1. Risk factors for chronic disease tend to
and tend to
.
ANS: persist; cluster cluster; persist DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 2. Foods associated with a particular culture are called
foods.
ANS: ethnic DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 3. Foods that provide health benefits beyond their nutrient contributions are called foods. ANS: functional DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 4. Nonnutrient compounds found in plants, some of which have biological activity in the body, are called . ANS: phytochemicals DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 5. The normal range for women.
is 18 to 21% for young men and 23 to 26% for young
ANS: body fat composition DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 6. The three energy-yielding nutrients are .
,
, and
ANS: carbohydrate; fat; protein carbohydrate; protein; fat fat; protein; carbohydrate fat; carbohydrate; protein protein; carbohydrate; fat protein; fat; carbohydrate DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and
which yield energy. 7. Although sustain life.
provides energy, it is not considered a nutrient because it does not
ANS: alcohol DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. MATCHING Match the correct answer with the appropriate term. a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
7 16 20 40 100 Fat Water Energy Protein Organic
k. Placebo l. Inorganic m. Validity n. Hypothesis o. Healthy People p. National nutrition surveys q. Anthropometrics r. Overt deficiency s. Physical examination t. Subclinical deficiency
Nutrient with the highest body concentration Substance containing no carbon or not pertaining to living things Number of indispensable nutrients for human beings Most substances containing carbon-hydrogen bonds Substance containing nitrogen Energy (kcal) required to increase temperature of 1 kg of water from 0° C to 100° C Nutrient with the highest energy density Energy (kcal) yield of five grams of sugar Energy (kcal) yield of one gram of alcohol Number of indispensable minerals for human beings An unproven statement An inert medication Possessing the quality of being evidence based The recommended intake is set at the population mean Gather information about dietary, nutritional, and health status Program that sets goals to increase the quality and years of healthy life Measurement of physical characteristics Inspection of skin, tongue, eyes, hair, and fingernails A nutrient deficiency showing outward signs A nutrient deficiency in the early stages
1. ANS: G DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 2. ANS: L DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and
which yield energy. 3. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 4. ANS: J DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 5. ANS: I DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 6. ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 7. ANS: F DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 8. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 9. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 10. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 11. ANS: N DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 12. ANS: K DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 13. ANS: M DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 14. ANS: H DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 15. ANS: P DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 16. ANS: O DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 17. ANS: Q DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 18. ANS: S DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 19. ANS: R DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.
20. ANS: T DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. ESSAY 1. Describe six behavioral or social motives governing people's food choices. ANS: Preferences: As you might expect, the number one reason most people choose certain foods is taste— they like the flavor. Two widely shared preferences are for the sweetness of sugar and the savoriness of salt. High-fat foods also appear to be a universally common preference. Habit: People sometimes select foods out of habit. They eat cereal every morning, for example, simply because they have always eaten cereal for breakfast. Eating a familiar food and not having to make any decisions can be comforting. Ethnic Heritage and Regional Cuisines: Among the strongest influences on food choices are ethnic heritage and regional cuisines. People tend to prefer the foods they grew up eating. Every country, and in fact every region of a country, has its own typical foods and ways of combining them into meals. These cuisines reflect a unique combination of local ingredients and cooking styles. Social Interactions: Most people enjoy companionship while eating. It’s fun to go out with friends for a meal or share a snack when watching a movie together. Meals are often social events, and sharing food is part of hospitality. Social customs invite people to accept food or drink offered by a host or shared by a group—regardless of hunger signals. Availability, Convenience, and Economy: People often eat foods that are accessible, quick and easy to prepare, and within their financial means. Consumers who value convenience frequently eat out, bring home ready-to-eat meals, or have food delivered. Positive and Negative Associations: People tend to like particular foods associated with happy occasions—such as hot dogs at ball games or cake and ice cream at birthday parties. By the same token, people can develop aversions and dislike foods that they ate when they felt sick or that they were forced to eat in negative situations. Similarly, children learn to like and dislike certain foods when their parents use foods as rewards or punishments. Emotions: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety. Values: Food choices may reflect people’s religious beliefs, political views, or environmental concerns. Body Weight and Image: Sometimes people select certain foods and supplements that they believe will improve their physical appearance and avoid those they believe might be detrimental. Such decisions can be beneficial when based on sound nutrition and fitness knowledge, but decisions based on fads or carried to extremes undermine good health. Nutrition and Health Benefits: Many consumers make food choices they believe will improve their health. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.
2. Explain how food choices are influenced by habits, emotions, physical appearance, and ethnic background. ANS: Habit: People sometimes select foods out of habit. They eat cereal every morning, for example, simply because they have always eaten cereal for breakfast. Eating a familiar food and not having to make any decisions can be comforting. Ethnic Heritage and Regional Cuisines: Among the strongest influences on food choices are ethnic heritage and regional cuisines. People tend to prefer the foods they grew up eating. Every country, and in fact every region of a country, has its own typical foods and ways of combining them into meals. These cuisines reflect a unique combination of local ingredients and cooking styles. Emotions: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety. Body Weight and Image: Sometimes people select certain foods and supplements that they believe will improve their physical appearance and avoid those they believe might be detrimental. Such decisions can be beneficial when based on sound nutrition and fitness knowledge, but decisions based on fads or carried to extremes undermine good health. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 3. Discuss some of the consequences of eating in response to emotions. ANS: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety. A depressed person may choose to eat rather than to call a friend. A person who has returned home from an exciting evening out may unwind with a late-night snack. These people may find emotional comfort, in part, because foods can influence the brain’s chemistry and the mind’s response. Carbohydrates and alcohol, for example, tend to calm, whereas proteins and caffeine are more likely to stimulate. Eating in response to emotions and stress can easily lead to overeating and obesity, but it may be helpful at times. For example, sharing food at times of bereavement serves both the giver’s need to provide comfort and the receiver’s need to be cared for and to interact with others as well as to take nourishment. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 4. Define the term organic. How do the properties of vitamins relate to their organic nature? Contrast these points with the properties of inorganic compounds such as minerals. ANS: In chemistry, organic refers to substances or molecules containing carbon-carbon bonds or carbonhydrogen bonds that are characteristic of living organisms. The four classes of nutrients that are organic are carbohydrates, lipids (fats), proteins, and vitamins. Inorganic compounds or substances are those not containing carbon or pertaining to living organisms. The two classes of nutrients that are inorganic are minerals and water.
DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 5. List the strengths and weaknesses of epidemiological studies and experimental studies. ANS: Epidemiological studies research the incidence, distribution, and control of disease in a population. Epidemiological studies include cross-sectional, case-control, and cohort studies. Strengths: Can narrow down the list of possible causes Can raise questions to pursue through other research Weaknesses: Cannot control variables that may influence the development or the prevention of a disease Cannot prove cause and effect •
•
•
•
Experimental studies test cause-and-effect relationships between variables. Experimental studies include laboratory-based studies—on animals or in test tubes (in vitro)—and human intervention (or clinical) trials. Strengths: Can control conditions (for the most part) Can determine effects of a variable Can apply some findings on human beings to some groups of human beings Weaknesses: Cannot apply results from test tubes or animals to human beings Cannot generalize findings on human beings to all human beings Cannot use certain treatments for clinical or ethical reasons •
•
•
•
•
•
DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 6. Explain the importance of the placebo and the double-blind technique in carrying out research studies. ANS: Placebos: If people who take vitamin C for colds believe it will cure them, their chances of recovery may improve. Taking pills believed to be beneficial may shorten the duration and lessen the severity of illness regardless of whether the pills contain active ingredients. This phenomenon, the result of expectations, is known as the placebo effect. In experiments designed to determine vitamin C’s effect on colds, this mind-body effect must be rigorously controlled. Severity of symptoms is often a subjective measure, and people who believe they are receiving treatment may report less severe symptoms. One way experimenters control for the placebo effect is to give pills to all participants. Those in the experimental group, for example, receive pills containing vitamin C, and those in the control group receive a placebo—pills of similar appearance and taste containing an inactive ingredient. This way, the expectations of both groups will be equal. It is not necessary to convince all subjects that they are receiving vitamin C, but the extent of belief or unbelief must be the same in both groups. A study conducted under these conditions is called a blind experiment—that is, the subjects do not know (are blind to) whether they are members of the experimental group (receiving treatment) or the control group (receiving the placebo).
Double Blind: When both the subjects and the researchers do not know which subjects are in which group, the study is called a double-blind experiment. Being fallible human beings and having an emotional and sometimes financial investment in a successful outcome, researchers might record and interpret results with a bias in the expected direction. To prevent such bias, the pills are coded by a third party, who does not reveal to the experimenters which subjects are in which group until all results have been recorded. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 7. Describe the steps involved in establishing nutrient values that make up the Dietary Reference Intakes. ANS: The DRI Committee consists of highly qualified scientists who base their estimates of nutrient needs on careful examination and interpretation of scientific evidence. These recommendations apply to healthy people and may not be appropriate for people with diseases that increase or decrease nutrient needs. Estimated Average Requirements (EAR): The committee reviews hundreds of research studies to determine the requirement for a nutrient—how much is needed in the diet. The committee selects a different criterion for each nutrient based on its roles in supporting various activities in the body and in reducing disease risks. An examination of all the available data reveals that each person’s body is unique and has its own set of requirements. Men differ from women, and needs change as people grow from infancy through old age. For this reason, the commit- tee clusters its recommendations for people into groups based on gender and age. Even so, the exact requirements for people of the same gender and age are likely to be different. Using this information, the committee determines an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for each nutrient—the average amount that appears sufficient for half of the population. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA): Once a nutrient requirement is established, the committee must decide what intake to recommend for everybody—the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). The EAR is probably closest to everyone’s need. If people consumed exactly the average requirement of a given nutrient each day, however, approximately half of the population would develop deficiencies of that nutrient. Recommendations are therefore set greater than the EAR to meet the needs of most healthy people. Adequate Intakes (AI): For some nutrients, such as vitamin K, there is insufficient scientific evidence to determine an EAR (which is needed to set an RDA). In these cases, the committee establishes an Adequate Intake (AI) instead of an RDA. An AI reflects the average amount of a nutrient that a group of healthy people consumes. Like the RDA, the AI may be used as nutrient goals for individuals. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL): The recommended intakes for nutrients are generous, yet they may not be sufficient for every individual for every nutrient. Nevertheless, it is probably best not to exceed these recommendations by very much or very often. Individual tolerances for high doses of nutrients vary, and somewhere beyond the recommended intake is a point beyond which a nutrient is likely to become toxic. This point is known as the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 8. Compare and contrast the meaning of Adequate Intakes, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Estimated Average Requirements, and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for nutrients.
ANS: Estimated Average Requirements (EAR): The committee reviews hundreds of research studies to determine the requirement for a nutrient—how much is needed in the diet. The committee selects a different criterion for each nutrient based on its roles in supporting various activities in the body and in reducing disease risks. An examination of all the available data reveals that each person’s body is unique and has its own set of requirements. Men differ from women, and needs change as people grow from infancy through old age. For this reason, the commit- tee clusters its recommendations for people into groups based on gender and age. Even so, the exact requirements for people of the same gender and age are likely to be different. Using this information, the committee determines an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for each nutrient—the average amount that appears sufficient for half of the population. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA): Once a nutrient requirement is established, the committee must decide what intake to recommend for everybody—the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). The EAR is probably closest to everyone’s need. If people consumed exactly the average requirement of a given nutrient each day, however, approximately half of the population would develop deficiencies of that nutrient. Recommendations are therefore set greater than the EAR to meet the needs of most healthy people. Adequate Intakes (AI): For some nutrients, such as vitamin K, there is insufficient scientific evidence to determine an EAR (which is needed to set an RDA). In these cases, the committee establishes an Adequate Intake (AI) instead of an RDA. An AI reflects the average amount of a nutrient that a group of healthy people consumes. Like the RDA, the AI may be used as nutrient goals for individuals. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL): The recommended intakes for nutrients are generous, yet they may not be sufficient for every individual for every nutrient. Nevertheless, it is probably best not to exceed these recommendations by very much or very often. Individual tolerances for high doses of nutrients vary, and somewhere beyond the recommended intake is a point beyond which a nutrient is likely to become toxic. This point is known as the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 9. What approach is taken in setting recommendations for energy intakes and why? How does this approach differ from that taken for other nutrients? ANS: In contrast to the RDA and AI values for nutrients, the recommendation for energy is not generous. Excess energy cannot be readily excreted and is eventually stored as body fat. These reserves may be beneficial when food is scarce, but they can also lead to obesity and its associated health consequences. Estimated Energy Requirement (EER): The energy recommendation—called the Estimated Energy Requirement (EER)—represents the average dietary energy intake (kcalories per day) that will maintain energy balance in a person who has a healthy body weight and level of physical activity. Balance is key to the energy recommendation. Enough food energy is needed to sustain a healthy and active life, but too much can lead to weight gain and obesity. Because any amount in excess of energy needs will result in weight gain, no upper level for energy has been determined. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR)
People don’t eat energy directly; they derive energy from foods containing carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Each of these three energy-yielding nutrients contributes to the total energy intake, and those contributions vary in relation to one another. The DRI committee has determined that the composition of a diet that provides adequate energy and nutrients and reduces the risk of chronic diseases is: 45 to 65 percent kcalories from carbohydrate 20 to 35 percent kcalories from fat 10 to 35 percent kcalories from protein. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 10. List and discuss four methods commonly used to assess nutritional status of individuals. ANS: To prepare a nutrition assessment, a registered dietitian (or registered dietitian nutritionist), dietetic technician registered, or other trained health-care professional uses: Historical information Anthropometric measurements Physical examinations Laboratory tests One step in evaluating nutrition status is to obtain information about a person’s history with respect to health status, socioeconomic status, drug use, and diet. The health history reflects a person’s medical record and may reveal a disease that interferes with the person’s ability to eat or the body’s use of nutrients. The person’s family history of major diseases is also noteworthy, especially for conditions such as heart disease that have a genetic tendency to run in families. Economic circumstances may show a financial inability to buy foods or inadequate kitchen facilities in which to prepare them. Social factors such as marital status, ethnic background, and educational level also influence food choices and nutrition status. A drug history, including all prescribed and over-the-counter medications, may highlight possible interactions that lead to nutrient deficiencies. A second technique that may help to reveal nutrition problems is taking anthropometric measures such as height and weight. The assessor compares a person’s measurements with standards specific for gender and age or with previous measures on the same individual. A third nutrition assessment technique is a physical examination looking for clues to poor nutrition status. Visual inspection of the hair, eyes, skin, posture, tongue, and fingernails can provide such clues. In addition, information gathered from an interview can help identify symptoms. The examination requires skill because many physical signs and symptoms reflect more than one nutrient deficiency or toxicity—or even nonnutrition conditions. Like the other assessment techniques, a physical examination alone does not yield firm conclusions. Instead, physical examinations reveal possible imbalances that must be confirmed by other assessment techniques, or they confirm results from other assessment measures. A fourth way to detect a developing deficiency, imbalance, or toxicity is to take samples of blood or urine, analyze them in the laboratory, and compare the results with normal values for a similar population. Laboratory tests are most useful in uncovering early signs of malnutrition before symptoms appear. In addition, they can confirm suspicions raised by other assessment methods. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.
11. Discuss how the results from national nutrition surveys are used by private and government agencies and groups. ANS: National nutrition surveys gather information about the population’s dietary, nutritional, and related health status. One survey collects data on the kinds and amounts of foods people eat. Another survey examines the people themselves, using anthropometric measurements, physical examinations, and laboratory tests. The data provide valuable information on several nutrition-related conditions, such as growth retardation, heart disease, and nutrient deficiencies. National nutrition surveys often oversample high-risk groups (low-income families, pregnant women, adolescents, the elderly, African Americans, and Mexican Americans) to glean an accurate estimate of their health and nutrition status. The resulting wealth of information from the national nutrition surveys is used for a variety of purposes. For example, Congress uses this information to establish public policy on nutrition education, food assistance programs, and the regulation of the food supply. Scientists use the information to establish research priorities. The food industry uses these data to guide decisions in public relations and product development. The Dietary Reference Intakes and other major reports that examine the relationships between diet and health depend on information collected from these nutrition surveys. These data also provide the basis for developing and monitoring national health goals. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 12. Describe the national trends of food consumption over the past 40 years. ANS: We eat more meals away from home, particularly at fast-food restaurants. We eat larger portions. We drink more sweetened beverages and eat more energy-dense, nutrient-poor foods such as candy and chips. We snack frequently. As a result of these dietary habits, our energy intake has risen and, consequently, so has the incidence of overweight and obesity. Overweight and obesity, in turn, profoundly influence our health. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 13. List 10 goals of the Healthy People program. How successful is the program thus far? ANS: Increase the proportion of adults who are at a healthy weight Reduce the proportion of adults who are obese Reduce iron deficiency among young children and females of childbearing age Reduce iron deficiency among pregnant females Reduce the proportion of children and adolescents who are overweight or obese Increase the contribution of fruits to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older Increase the variety and contribution of vegetables to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older Increase the contribution of whole grains to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older Reduce consumption of saturated fat in the population aged 2 years and older Reduce consumption of sodium in the population aged 2 years and older Increase consumption of calcium in the population aged 2 years and older Increase the proportion of worksites that offer nutrition or weight management classes or counseling Increase the proportion of physician office visits that include counseling or education related to nutrition or weight
Eliminate very low food security among children in US households Prevent inappropriate weight gain in youth and adults Increase the proportion of primary care physicians who regularly measure the body mass index of their patients Reduce consumption of kcalories from solid fats and added sugars in the population aged 2 years and older Increase the number of states that have state-level policies that incentivize food retail outlets to provide foods that are encouraged by the Dietary Guidelines Increase the number of states with nutrition standards for foods and beverages provided to preschoolaged children in childcare Increase the percentage of schools that offer nutritious foods and beverages outside of school meals Progress in meeting the 2010 goals was mixed. A few objectives were met, about half made some progress, and several showed no progress—or even moved in the wrong direction. The objective to reduce average blood cholesterol levels was achieved, but objectives to eat more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains and to increase physical activity showed little or no improvement. Trends in over-weight and obesity actually worsened. Clearly, “what we eat in America” must change if we hope to meet the Healthy People goals. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 14. Discuss the meaning and significance of the relationships between risk factors and chronic diseases. ANS: Factors that increase or reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases can be identified by analyzing statistical data. A strong association between a risk factor and a disease means that when the factor is present, the likelihood of developing the disease increases. It does not mean that all people with the risk factor will develop the disease. Similarly, a lack of risk factors does not guarantee freedom from a given disease. On the average, though, the more risk factors in a person’s life, the greater that person’s chances of developing the disease. Conversely, the fewer risk factors in a person’s life, the better the chances for good health. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 15. Discuss two important characteristics of chronic disease risk factors. ANS: Risk factors tend to persist over time. Without intervention, a young adult with high blood pressure will most likely continue to have high blood pressure as an older adult, for example. Thus, to minimize the damage, early intervention is most effective. Risk factors tend to cluster. For example, a person who is obese may be physically inactive, have high blood pressure, and have high blood cholesterol—all risk factors associated with heart disease. Multiple risk factors act synergistically to increase the risk of disease dramatically. Intervention that focuses on one risk factor often benefits the others as well. For example, physical activity can help reduce weight. Physical activity and weight loss will, in turn, help to lower blood pressure and blood cholesterol. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic
diseases. 16. What cautions should you keep in mind when considering popular news reports about nutrition? ANS: Consumers get much of their nutrition information from Internet websites, television news, and magazine articles, which have heightened awareness of how diet influences the development of diseases. Consumers benefit from news coverage of nutrition when they learn to make lifestyle changes that will improve their health. Sometimes, however, popular reports mislead consumers and create confusion. They often tell a lopsided story quickly instead of presenting the integrated results of research studies or a balance of expert opinions. Tight deadlines and limited understanding sometimes make it difficult to provide a thorough report. Hungry for the latest news, the media often report scientific findings quickly and prematurely— without benefit of careful interpretation, replication, or peer review. Usually, the reports present findings from a single, recently released study, making the news current and controversial. Consequently, the public receives diet and health news fast, but not always in perspective. Reporters may twist inconclusive findings into “meaningful discoveries” when pressured to write catchy headlines and sensational stories. As a result “surprising new findings” sometimes seem to contradict one another, and consumers may feel frustrated and betrayed. Occasionally, the reports are downright false, but more often the apparent contradictions are simply the normal result of science at work. A single study contributes to the big picture, but when viewed alone, it can easily distort the image. To be meaningful the conclusions of any study must be presented cautiously within the context of other research findings. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 17. List techniques that help identify nutrition quackery. ANS: In contrast to registered dietitians, thousands of people obtain fake nutrition degrees and claim to be nutrition consultants or doctors of “nutrimedicine.” These and other such titles may sound meaningful, but most of these people lack the established credentials and training of an RD. If you look closely, you can see signs of their fake expertise. Consider educational background, for example. The minimum standards of education for a dietitian specify a bachelor of science (BS) degree in food science and human nutrition or related fields from an accredited college or university. Such a degree generally requires 4 to 5 years of study. Similarly, minimum standards of education for a dietetic technician specify an associate degree that typically requires 2 years of study. In contrast, a fake nutritionist may display a degree from a 6-month course. Such a degree simply falls short. In some cases, businesses posing as schools offer even less—they sell certificates to anyone who pays the fees. To obtain these “degrees,” a candidate need not attend any classes, read any books, or pass any examinations.
Sales of unproven and dangerous products have always been a concern, but the Internet now provides merchants with an easy and inexpensive way to reach millions of customers around the world. Because of the difficulty in regulating the Internet, fraudulent and illegal sales of medical products have hit a bonanza. As is the case with the air, no one owns the Internet, and similarly, no one has control over the pollution. Countries have different laws regarding sales of drugs, dietary supplements, and other health products, but applying these laws to the Internet marketplace is almost impossible. Even if illegal activities could be defined and identified, finding the person responsible for a particular website is not always possible. Websites can appear and disappear in a blink of a cursor. Now, more than ever, consumers must heed the caution “Buyer beware.” In summary, when you hear nutrition news, consider its source. Ask yourself these two questions: Is the person providing the information qualified to speak on nutrition? Is the information based on valid scientific research? If not, find a better source. After all, your health depends on it. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 18. (A.) Explain the education and training requirements associated with obtaining registration as a dietitian. (B.) List several career areas in which registered dietitians are often employed. ANS: A registered dietitian (RD) has the educational background necessary to deliver reliable nutrition advice and care. To become an RD, a person must earn an undergraduate degree requiring about 60 credit hours in nutrition, food science, and other related subjects; complete a year’s clinical internship or the equivalent; pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics; and maintain up-to-date knowledge and registration by participating in required continuing education activities, such as attending seminars, taking courses, or conducting research. To help consumers recognize that an RD is a credentialed nutritionist, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics recently approved the optional use of the term registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN). The meanings of RD and RDN are identical. Dietitians perform a multitude of duties in many settings in most communities. They work in the food industry, pharmaceutical companies, home health agencies, long-term care institutions, private practice, public health departments, research centers, education settings, fitness centers, and hospitals. Depending on their work settings, dietitians can assume a number of different job responsibilities and positions. In hospitals, administrative dietitians manage the foodservice system; clinical dietitians provide client care; and nutrition support team dietitians coordinate nutrition care with other healthcare professionals. In the food industry, dietitians conduct research, develop products, and market services. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.
Chapter 2 – Planning a Healthy Diet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A person's customary intake of foods and beverages over time defines her or his a. body weight b. eating pattern c. genetic predisposition d. risk for inherited diseases e. preference pattern
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 2. The diet-planning principle that provides all the nutrients, fiber, and energy in amounts sufficient to maintain health is called . a. variety b. adequacy c. moderation d. kcalorie control e. nutrient density ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3. What are the principles of diet planning? a. abundance, B vitamins, kcalories, diet control, minerals, and variety b. abundance, balance, conservative, diversity, moderation, and vitamins c. adequacy, bone development, correction, vitamin density, master, and variety d. adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, nutrient density, moderation, and variety e. abundance, adequacy, nutrient density, aerobics, and kcalorie control ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 4. Which food is the most calcium-dense? a. whole milk b. fat-free milk c. low-fat milk d. cheddar cheese e. cottage cheese ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.
5. Nutrient dense refers to foods that . a. carry the USDA nutrition labeling b. are higher in weight relative to volume c. provide more nutrients relative to kcalories d. contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein e. give the most protein for the consumer’s food dollar ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 6. The concept of nutrient density is most helpful in achieving what principle of diet planning? a. Variety b. Balance c. Moderation d. kcalorie control e. cost control ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 7. A food that provides 100 mg of magnesium and 25 kcal in a serving has a magnesium density (mg per kcal) of . a. 0.25 b. 0.4 c. 2.5 d. 4 e. 25 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 8. Ranking foods according to their overall nutrient composition is known as a. biological value b. nutrient profiling c. the risk reduction score d. the healthy eating index e. compositional profiling
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 9. Providing enough, but not an excess, of a food is a diet-planning principle known as a. safety b. variety
.
c. moderation d. undernutrition e. conservatism ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 10. Applying the principle of variety in food planning helps ensure the benefits of a. moderation b. vegetarianism c. nutrient density d. dilution of harmful substances e. abundance
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 11. Which recommendation is part of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? a. Balance kcalories. b. Limit protein foods intake. c. Practice good foot hygiene. d. Reduce seafood consumption. e. Become vegetarians. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 12. What is an important feature of the food group subgroupings? a. Consuming a vegetable will provide only one major nutrient b. Consuming legumes supplies protein but not fiber or vitamins c. Consuming every subgroup every day is not necessary d. Consuming broccoli every day for a week to meet the vegetables group intake is acceptable e. Consuming dairy products is no longer recommended ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 13. Jamie, a vegetarian, is trying to plan a healthy diet according to the USDA Food Patterns. Which protein foods would be the best nutrient choices for one day? a. 2 pieces bacon, 1/2 can tuna, 2 pieces bread b. 1/2 cup rice, 2 tbsp low sugar jam or jelly, 2 pieces bread c. 1/2 cup black beans, 2 tbsp peanut butter, 1 c spinach d. 1 skinless chicken breast, 2 egg whites, meal replacement bar e. 1 egg, one cup leaf lettuce, 2 ounces fatty fish
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 14. What two major nutrients are supplied by the fruit group? a. vitamins D and E b. vitamins A and C c. protein and calcium d. B vitamins and iron e. vitamin K and magnesium ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 15. How much fruit juice (100%) is equivalent to 1 cup of fresh fruit? a. 1/4 cup b. 1/2 cup c. 1 cup d. 1 1/2 cups e. 2 cups ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 16. According to the USDA Food Patterns, which protein food should be most limited? a. shrimp b. baked beans c. peanut butter d. skinless chicken e. eggs ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 17. Which food item is a healthy choice for protein in the USDA Food Patterns? a. nuts b. bacon c. luncheon meats d. sweet potatoes e. marbled meats ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 18. In which food group are legumes found? a. dairy b. fruits c. grains d. protein
e. oils ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 19. How many subgroups comprise the vegetable food group? a. two b. three c. five d. six e. seven ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 20. Kcalories from which food would be considered part of one's discretionary kcalorie allowance? a. jam b. watermelon c. raw carrots d. brussels sprouts e. green beans ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 21. Which food supplies only discretionary kcalories? a. bagel b. raisins c. grape jelly d. peanut butter e. 100% fruit juice ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
22. What assessment tool is designed to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines? a. Healthy Eating Index b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program c. Dietitian's Comparative Effectiveness Plan d. U.S. Public Health Nutrient Assessment Barometer e. U.S. Preventive Services Task Forge Guide ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 23. In the MyPlate icon, which nutrient is shown as a separate food group?
a. b. c. d. e.
fat dairy carbohydrate micronutrients discretionary-calorie foods
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 24. What is a major criticism of the use of the MyPlate educational tool? a. It allows for oversized portions. b. The dairy group excludes ice cream. c. The five groups are not clearly identified. d. It treats all foods within a single group the same. e. It cannot be adapted to vegetarian or vegan diets. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 25. Which food group is typically consumed in amounts greater than recommended by the USDA? a. dairy b. fruits c. vegetables d. protein foods e. whole grains ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 26. Food exchange systems were originally developed for people with a. diabetes b. cancer c. cardiovascular disease d. life-threatening obesity e. neurological impairments
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 27. Which feature characterizes the exchange list system? a. Foods are grouped according to their source. b. Adequate intakes of minerals and vitamins are virtually guaranteed. c. A fat portion provides about twice the energy as a carbohydrate portion. d. All foods are grouped according to their content of carbohydrate, protein, and fats. e. Foods are sorted by their vitamin and mineral content. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
28. In food exchange lists, to what group are olives assigned? a. fat b. meat c. carbohydrate d. meat substitute e. fruit ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 29. Whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the a. bran b. husk c. germ d. endosperm e. heart
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 30. Refined grain products contain only the a. bran b. husk c. germ d. endosperm e. chaff
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 31. The addition of calcium to some orange juice products by food manufacturers is known as nutrient . a. enrichment b. restoration c. fortification d. mineralization e. adulteration ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 32. The part of the grain that remains after being refined is the a. bran b. germ c. husk d. endosperm e. chaff
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified
energy allowance. 33. Which bread has the highest fiber content? a. white b. refined c. enriched d. whole grain e. super-fine ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 34. Which characteristic best describes enriched grain products? a. They have all of the added nutrients listed on the label. b. They have the fiber restored from the refining procedure. c. They have virtually all the nutrients restored from refining procedure. d. They have only 4 vitamins and 4 minerals added by the food manufacturer. e. They are typically low in calories. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 35. What mineral is added to refined flours in the enrichment process? a. iron b. iodine c. calcium d. magnesium e. copper ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 36. Which product label always denotes a whole-grain product? a multi-grain b. 100% wheat c. whole-wheat d. stone-ground e. high fiber ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 37. The enrichment of grain products in the United States was initiated in the a. 1880s b. 1900s c. 1920s d. 1940s e. 1960s ANS: D
DIF:
Bloom's: Remember
.
REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 38. Which nutrient is used to enrich grains? a. zinc b. folate c. protein d. calcium e. sodium ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 39. The most highly fortified foods on the market are a. frozen dinners b. imitation foods c. enriched breads d. breakfast cereals e. canned fruits and vegetables
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 40. Which nutrient would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread? a. zinc b. folate c. riboflavin d. thiamin e. sodium ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 41. Cooking an 8-ounce raw steak will reduce the weight (ounces) to approximately a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 7
ounces.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 42. Textured vegetable protein is usually made from a. soybeans b. corn stalks c. a mixture of legumes d. cruciferous vegetables
.
e. dark green, red, and orange vegetables ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 43. Which term is used to describe a cut of meat having a low fat content? a. Grade AA b. Select c. Prime d. Choice e. Grade A ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 44. A meat described as "prime cut" means that it a. has an extended shelf life b. usually carries a high price c. is served only in restaurants d. is higher in fat than other cuts of meat e. comes from animals raised organically
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 45. What term describes a food that resembles and substitutes for another food but is nutritionally inferior to it? a. faux food b. pseudo food c. imitation food d. food substitute e. fraudulent food ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 46. A food scientist is developing a new and improved cereal bar. She consults with you to about the ordering of the ingredients on a food label. The ingredients are: Sugar: 30 g, Puffed wheat: 28 g, Dry milk powder: 5 g, Red food coloring: 35 mg, Salt: 2 g. What is the appropriate order in which to list these ingredients on the food label? a. sugar, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring b. red food coloring, salt, dry milk powder, puffed wheat, sugar c. dry milk powder, puffed wheat, red food coloring, salt, sugar d. puffed wheat, sugar, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring e. sugar, salt, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, red food coloring ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.
47. According to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value? a. calcium and iron b. zinc and phosphorus c. fluoride and chloride d. chromium and magnesium e. copper and potassium ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 48. A food label ingredient list reads in the following order: wheat flour, vegetable shortening, sugar, salt, and cornstarch. What item would be found in the SMALLEST amount in this food? a. salt b. sugar c. cornstarch d. wheat flour e. vegetable shortening ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 49. By law, a serving size on beverage food labels is a. 4-6 fluid ounces b. 8 fluid ounces c. 10-12 fluid ounces d. 16 fluid ounces e. 24 fluid ounces
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 50. Which statement describes a characteristic of food serving sizes? a. Serving sizes for most foods have not yet been established by the FDA b. The serving size for ice cream is 2 cups and the serving size for all beverages is 12 fluid ounces c. Serving sizes on food labels are not always the same as those of the USDA Food Patterns d. Serving sizes must be listed in common household measures, such as cups, or metric measures, such as milliliters, but not both e. Manufacturers are free to set their own serving sizes as long as they specify what the serving size is. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 51. According to nutrition labeling laws, the amounts of what two vitamins must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value? a. vitamins D and E
b. c. d. e.
vitamins A and C thiamin and riboflavin vitamin B6 and niacin vitamins E and K
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 52. Food labels express the nutrient content in relation to a set of standard values known as the a. Daily Values b. FDA Standards c. Dietary Reference Intakes d. Recommended Dietary Intakes e. USDA Intake Standards
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.
53. Population groups such as sedentary older men, sedentary younger women, and active older women have a daily energy need of approximately kcalories. a. 1200 b. 1500 c. 1800 d. 2000 e. 2400 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 54. On a food label, the "% Daily Value" table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcalories daily? a. 1200 b. 1500 c. 1800 d. 2000 e. 2400 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 55. What is a feature of the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label? a. Trans fat content is optional. b. Saturated fat must be listed. c. Naturally present sugars are excluded. d. Soluble and insoluble fiber must be listed separately. e. Unsaturated fats must be listed. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections
that meet specific dietary and health goals. 56. What is a feature of the Daily Values found on food labels? a. They are updated every two years as mandated by the USDA. b. They are expressed on a "per 1000-kcalorie intake" basis. c. They assist people in determining whether a food contains a little or a lot of a nutrient. d. They define a food as an excellent source of a nutrient if it contributes at least 50% of the dietary recommended intake. e. They assign grades of A, B, C, D, or F to foods. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 57. A food label that advertises the product as a "rich source of fiber" is an example of a a. nutrient claim b. health claim c. weight reduction claim d. structure-function claim e. research-based claim
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 58. According to the FDA, a food label that reads "improves memory" is an example of a a. health claim b. Daily Value claim c. qualified health claim d. structure-function claim e. unsupported claim
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 59. Greg is trying to decide which brand of cereal to buy, but he is a somewhat confused by the health claims. Which statement represents the highest level of significant scientific agreement? a. "This cereal promotes a healthy heart." b. "This cereal supports heart health." c. "This product contains whole grains, which have been proven to reduce the risk of heart disease and certain cancers." d. "Very limited and preliminary scientific research suggests this product can reduce risk for cancers; FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting this claim." e. “Anecdotal evidence demonstrates a clear relationship between consumption of this product and elimination of health risk factors.” ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 60. What is a characteristic of structure-function claims on food labels? a. They are allowed only for unprocessed food.
b. c. d. e.
They can be made without any FDA approval. They must conform to guidelines of the "A" list of health claims. They must state the name of the disease or symptom for which a benefit is claimed. They can only be made based on peer-reviewed research.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 61. Which food items are consumed in the diet of a lactovegetarian? a. plant foods only b. eggs and plant foods only c. meat, eggs, and plant foods only d. milk products and plant foods only e. fish, eggs, and dairy only ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 62. Tempeh is made from . a. soybeans b. any legume c. fermented leafy vegetables d. fermented yellow vegetables e. wheat proteins ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 63. Which ingredient on a food label would be a source of protein? a. BHT b. tofu c. corn starch d. diglycerides e. high fructose corn syrup ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 64. Which feature is present in people who regularly eating meals based on tofu? a. They show less heart disease but more colon cancer than omnivores. b. They show evidence of marginal protein intake compared with omnivores. c. They have lower blood pressure levels than those eating meat. d. They have lower sodium intakes but blood pressure is similar to those eating red meat. e. They are virtually indistinguishable from meat eaters in terms of disease occurrence. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 65. In vegetarians, the RDA is higher for a. iron b. folate c. calcium d. vitamin A
.
e. protein ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 66. Which statement describes a feature of iron nutrition in vegetarians? a. Vegetarians adapt to absorbing iron more efficiently. b. Iron utilization is inhibited by the high zinc content in grains c. The absorption of iron is low due to the high vitamin C intake. d. More iron deficiency is found in vegetarians than in people eating a mixed diet. e. There are no differences in iron intake or utilization in vegetarians. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 67. Meat replacements consumed by vegans are often made of a. soy b. fish c. eggs d. dairy e. poultry
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 68. What is typically a characteristic of a vegetarian diet? a. Fat intake is higher. b. Fiber intake is lower. c. Vitamin B12 intake is lower. d. Intakes of vitamins A and C are lower. e. Iron intake is higher. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 69. Which statement characterizes vitamin B12 nutrition in vegetarians and vegans? a. Vitamin B12 in fortified cereals has low bioavailability. b. Vegan mothers need only infrequent intake of vitamin B12-fortified cereals. c. The vitamin B12 in fermented soy products may be present in an inactive form .d. Infants born to vegan mothers are resistant to the development of vitamin B12 deficiency. e. Vitamin B12 is problematic in vegetarians but not vegans. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 70. What best characterizes a macrobiotic diet? a. It excludes all hot and salty foods. b. It permits inclusion of many non-organic foods. c. It represents a way of life rather than just a way of eating. d. It emphasizes abundant amounts of fish, fruits, nuts, and seeds. e. It is based on seasonally-available fruits, vegetables, grains, and game meats and fish. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.
COMPLETION 1.
reflects a diet that provides sufficient energy and enough of all the nutrients to meet the needs of healthy people. ANS: Adequacy DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.
2. To calculate the nutrient density of a food item, divide the .
by the
ANS: milligrams; kcalories DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3.
refers to a measure of the nutrients a food provides relative to the energy it provides. ANS: Nutrient density DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.
4. Diet-planning tools that sort foods into groups based on nutrient content and then specify that people should eat certain amounts of foods from each group are called plans. ANS: food group DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 5.
contribute the same key nutrients—notably, protein, iron, and zinc—as meats, poultry, and seafood. ANS: Legumes DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
6. The kcalories remaining in a person’s energy allowance after consuming enough nutrient- dense foods to meet all nutrient needs for a day are called kcalories.
ANS: discretionary DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 7. An assessment tool called the the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.
can be used to measure how well a diet meets
ANS: Healthy Eating Index DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 8. Diet-planning tools that organize foods by their proportions of carbohydrate, fat, and protein are called . ANS: exchange lists DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 9. The Nutrition Facts panel must provide the both for important nutrients.
, the
, or
ANS: nutrient amount; percent Daily Value percent Daily Value; nutrient amount; DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 10. The is the seed that grows into a wheat plant, so it is especially rich in vitamins and minerals to support new life. ANS: germ DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. MATCHING a. 5 b. 40 c. 65
k. Green peas l. Balance m. Vitamin B12
d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
1
/2 cup 1 cup FDA Bran Iron USDA Soybeans
n. Vitamin A o. Endosperm p. Nutrient density q. Sodium and hypertension r. Tomatoes and prostate cancer s. Margarine containing plant sterols t. Orange juice containing added calcium
The principle of consuming a number of foods in proportion to each other The principle of recognizing that a food has more iron than another food when expressed per kcalorie Origin of the MyPlate graphic Number of major food groups Legume belonging to the starch category of exchange lists Part of grain richest in fiber Part of grain containing most of the starch Nutrient added in grain enrichment process Example of a fortified food Commonly used to make textured vegetable protein Example of a functional food Nutrient commonly added in cow's milk fortification process Maximum number of grams of fat recommended on a 2000-kcalorie diet based on the Daily Value Serving size (equivalent to 1 oz) of rice in the USDA Food Patterns Serving size of rice on a food label Agency that regulates food labeling Grams of fat supplied by a 1200-kcalorie diet that is 30% fat Associated in a reliable health claim allowed on food labels Associated in a health claim NOT allowed on food labels without a disclaimer Nutrient commonly added in soy milk fortification process
1. ANS: L DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 2. ANS: P DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3. ANS: I DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 4. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 5. ANS: K DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 6. ANS: G DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
7. ANS: O DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 8. ANS: H DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 9. ANS: T DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 10. ANS: J DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 11. ANS: S DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 12. ANS: N DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 13. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 14. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 15. ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 16. ANS: F DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 17. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 18. ANS: Q DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 19. ANS: R DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 20. ANS: M DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. ESSAY 1. List and discuss the significance of six diet-planning principles. ANS:
Adequacy reflects a diet that provides sufficient energy and enough of all the nutrients to meet the needs of healthy people. Take the essential nutrient iron, for example. Because the body loses some iron each day, people have to replace it by eating foods that contain iron. A person whose diet fails to provide enough iron-rich foods may develop the symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia: the person may feel weak, tired, and listless; have frequent headaches; and find that even the smallest amount of muscular work brings disabling fatigue. To prevent these deficiency symptoms, a person must include foods that supply adequate iron. Balance in the diet helps to ensure adequacy. The art of balancing the diet involves consuming enough —but not too much—of different types of foods in proportion to one another. In a balanced diet, foods rich in some nutrients do not crowd out foods that are rich in other nutrients. kcalorie (energy) Control: Designing an adequate diet within a reasonable kcalorie allowance requires careful planning. Once again, balance plays a key role. The amount of energy coming into the body from foods should balance with the amount of energy being used by the body to sustain its metabolic and physical activities. Upsetting this balance leads to gains or losses in body weight. Nutrient density promotes adequacy and kcalorie control. To eat well without overeating, select nutrient-dense foods—that is, foods that deliver the most nutrients for the least food energy. Moderation contributes to adequacy, balance, and kcalorie control. Foods rich in fat and sugar often provide enjoyment and energy but relatively few nutrients; in addition, they promote weight gain when eaten in excess. A person practicing moderation eats such foods only on occasion and regularly selects foods low in solid fats and added sugars, a practice that automatically improves nutrient density. Variety improves nutrient adequacy. A diet may have all of the virtues just described and still lack variety, if a person eats the same foods day after day. People should select foods from each of the food groups daily and vary their choices within each food group from day to day for several reasons. First, different foods within the same group contain different arrays of nutrients. Second, no food is guaranteed entirely free of substances that, in excess, could be harmful. Third, as the adage goes, variety is the spice of life. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 2. Why is it important to vary intake of foods within the same food group from day to day? ANS: Variety improves nutrient adequacy. A diet may have all of the virtues just described and still lack variety, if a person eats the same foods day after day. People should select foods from each of the food groups daily and vary their choices within each food group from day to day for several reasons. First, different foods within the same group contain different arrays of nutrients. Among the fruits, for example, strawberries are especially rich in vitamin C while apricots are rich in vitamin A. Second, no food is guaranteed entirely free of substances that, in excess, could be harmful. The strawberries might contain trace amounts of one contaminant, the apricots another. By alternating fruit choices, a person will ingest very little of either contaminant. Third, as the adage goes, variety is the spice of life. A person who eats beans frequently can enjoy pinto beans in Mexican burritos today, garbanzo beans in a Greek salad tomorrow, and baked beans with barbecued chicken on the week-end. Eating nutritious meals need never be boring.
DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3. What is meant by the term "nutrient-dense food"? Give three examples each of foods with high nutrient density and low nutrient density. ANS: Nutrient density promotes adequacy and kcalorie control. To eat well without overeating, select nutrient-dense foods—that is, foods that deliver the most nutrients for the least food energy. Consider foods containing calcium, for example. You can get about 300 milligrams of calcium from either 1½ ounces of cheddar cheese or 1 cup of fat-free milk, but the cheese delivers about twice as much food energy (kcalories) as the milk. The fat-free milk, then, is twice as calcium dense as the cheddar cheese; it offers the same amount of calcium for half the kcalories. Both foods are excellent choices for adequacy’s sake alone, but to achieve adequacy while controlling kcalories, the fat-free milk is the better choice. (Alternatively, a person could select a low-fat cheddar cheese with its kcalories comparable to fat-free milk.) Just as a financially responsible person pays for rent, food, clothes, and tuition on a limited budget, healthy people obtain iron, calcium, and all the other essential nutrients on a limited energy (kcalorie) allowance. Success depends on getting many nutrients for each kcalorie “dollar.” A person who makes nutrient-dense choices can meet daily nutrient needs on a lower energy budget. Such choices support good health. Foods that are notably low in nutrient density—such as potato chips, candy, and colas—are called empty-kcalorie foods. The kcalories these foods provide are called “empty” because they deliver a lot of energy (from added sugars, solid fats, or both) but little, or no, protein, vitamins, or minerals. The concept of nutrient density is relatively simple when examining the contributions of one nutrient to a food or diet. With respect to calcium, milk ranks high and meats rank low. With respect to iron, meats rank high and milk ranks low. But it is a more complex task to answer the question, which food is more nutritious? To answer that question, we need to consider several nutrients— including both nutrients that may harm health as well as those that may be beneficial. Ranking foods based on their overall nutrient composition is known as nutrient profiling. Researchers have yet to agree on an ideal way to rate foods based on the nutrient profile, but when they do, nutrient profiling will be quite useful in helping consumers identify nutritious foods and plan healthy diets. Foods listed as examples will vary. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 4. List and describe the contributions of the five food groups in the USDA Food Patterns. ANS: Fruits contribute folate, vitamin A, vitamin C, potassium, and fiber.
Vegetables contribute folate, vitamin A, vitamin C, vitamin K, vitamin E, magnesium, potassium, and fiber. Grains contribute folate, niacin, riboflavin, thiamin, iron, magnesium, selenium, and fiber. Protein foods contribute protein, essential fatty acids, niacin, thiamin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, iron, magnesium, potassium, and zinc. Milk and milk products contribute protein, riboflavin, vitamin B12, calcium, potassium, and, when fortified, vitamin A and vitamin D. Oils are not a food group, but are featured here because they contribute vitamin E and essential fatty acids. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 5. Provide examples and discuss the importance of the five subgroups of the vegetables food group. ANS: All vegetables provide an array of nutrients, but some vegetables are especially good sources of certain vitamins, minerals, and beneficial phytochemicals. For this reason, the vegetable group is sorted into five subgroups. The dark-green vegetables deliver the B vitamin folate; the red and orange vegetables provide vitamin A; legumes supply iron and protein; the starchy vegetables contribute carbohydrate energy; and the other vegetables fill in the gaps and add more of these same nutrients. Dark-green vegetables: Broccoli and leafy greens such as arugula, beet greens, bok choy, collard greens, kale, mustard greens, romaine lettuce, spinach, turnip greens, watercress Red and orange vegetables: Carrots, carrot juice, pumpkin, red bell peppers, sweet potatoes, tomatoes, tomato juice, vegetable juice, winter squash (acorn, butternut) Legumes: Black beans, black-eyed peas, garbanzo beans (chickpeas), kidney beans, lentils, navy beans, pinto beans, soybeans and soy products such as tofu, split peas, white beans Starchy vegetables: Cassava, corn, green peas, hominy, lima beans, potatoes Other vegetables: Artichokes, asparagus, bamboo shoots, bean sprouts, beets, brussels sprouts, cabbages, cactus, cauliflower, celery, cucumbers, eggplant, green beans, green bell peppers, iceberg lettuce, mushrooms, okra, onions, seaweed, snow peas, zucchini DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 6. Define the term "discretionary kcalories" and give three examples of foods that provide them. Under what circumstances is the intake of discretionary kcalories permitted? ANS:
People who consistently choose nutrient-dense foods may be able to meet most of their nutrient needs without consuming their full allowance of kcalories. The difference between the kcalories needed to supply nutrients and those needed to maintain weight might be considered discretionary kcalories. DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 7. Discuss the meaning, significance, and utility of MyPlate as an educational tool.
ANS: The USDA created an educational tool called MyPlate to illustrate the five food groups. The MyPlate icon divides a plate into four sections, each representing a food group—fruits, vegetables, grains, and protein foods. The sections vary in size, indicating relative proportion each food group contributes to a healthy diet. A circle next to the plate represents the milk group (dairy). The MyPlate icon does not stand alone as an educational tool. A wealth of information can be found at the website (www.choosemyplate.gov). Consumers can choose the kinds and amounts of foods they need to eat each day based on their height, weight, age, gender, and activity level. Information is also available for children, pregnant and lactating women, and for vegetarians. In addition to creating a personal plan, consumers can find daily tips to help them improve their diet and increase physical activity. A key message of the website is to enjoy food, but eat less by avoiding oversized portions. DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 8. What is the Healthy Eating Index and how does it work? ANS: An assessment tool, called the Healthy Eating Index, can be used to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines. Various components of the diet are given scores that reflect the quantities consumed. For most components, higher intakes result in higher scores. For example, selecting at least 3 ounces of whole grains (per 2000 kcalories) gives a score of 10 points, whereas selecting no whole grains gives a score of 0 points. For a few components, lower intakes provide higher scores. For example, less than 2.2 grams of sodium (per 2000 kcalories) receives 10 points, but more than 4 grams gets 0 points. An assessment of recent nutrition surveys using the Healthy Eating Index reports that the American diet scores 54 out of a possible 100 points. To improve this score, the American diet needs to decrease kcalories from solid fats and added sugars by about 60 percent; increase fruits by 100 percent and vegetables and milk products by 70 percent; maintain the quantity of grains but shift the quality to four times as many whole grains; and reduce salt by more than half. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified
energy allowance. 9. What is the origin of food exchange lists? How are they best utilized? ANS: Food group plans are particularly well suited to help a person achieve dietary adequacy, balance, and variety. Exchange lists provide additional help in achieving kcalorie control and moderation. Originally developed as a meal planning guide for people with diabetes, exchange lists have proved useful for general diet planning as well. Unlike the USDA Food Patterns, which sort foods primarily by their vitamin and mineral contents, the exchange system sorts foods according to their energy-nutrient contents. Consequently, foods do not always appear on the exchange list where you might first expect to find them. For example, cheeses are grouped with meats because, like meats, cheeses contribute energy from protein and fat but provide negligible carbohydrate. (In the USDA Food Patterns presented earlier, cheeses are grouped with milk because they are milk products with similar calcium contents.) For similar reasons, starchy vegetables such as corn, green peas, and potatoes are listed with grains on the starch list in the exchange system, rather than with the vegetables. Likewise, olives are not classed as a “fruit” as a botanist would claim; they are classified as a “fat” because their fat content makes them more similar to oil than to berries. Cream cheese, bacon, and nuts are also on the fat list to remind users of their high fat content. These groupings highlight the characteristics of foods that are significant to energy intake. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 10. Discuss the meaning and significance of foods that are processed, refined, enriched, fortified, or whole-grain. ANS: Processed foods: foods that have been treated to change their physical, chemical, microbiological, or sensory properties. Fortified: the addition to a food of nutrients that were either not originally present or present in insignificant amounts. Fortification can be used to correct or prevent a widespread nutrient deficiency or to balance the total nutrient profile of a food. Refined: the process by which the coarse parts of a food are removed. When wheat is refined into flour, the bran, germ, and husk are removed, leaving only the endosperm. Enriched: the addition to a food of specific nutrients to replace losses that occur during processing so that the food will meet a specified standard. Whole grain: a grain that maintains the same relative proportions of starchy endosperm, germ, and bran as the original (all but the husk); not refined. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 11. List the information that must be displayed on food labels.
ANS: Serving Sizes: Because labels present nutrient information based on one serving, they must identify the size of the serving. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has established specific serving sizes for various foods and requires that all labels for a given product use the same serving size. Nutrient Quantities: In addition to the serving size and the servings per container, the FDA requires that the Nutrition Facts panel on food labels present nutrient information in two ways—in quantities (such as grams) and as percentages of standards called the Daily Values. The Nutrition Facts panel must provide the nutrient amount, percent Daily Value, or both for the following: Total food energy (kcalories) Food energy from fat (kcalories) Total fat (grams and percent Daily Value) Saturated fat (grams and percent Daily Value) Trans fat (grams) Cholesterol (milligrams and percent Daily Value) Sodium (milligrams and percent Daily Value) Total carbohydrate, which includes starch, sugar, and fiber (grams and percent Daily Value) Dietary fiber (grams and percent Daily Value) Sugars, which includes both those naturally present in and those added to the food (grams) Protein (grams) The labels must also present nutrient content information as a percent Daily Value for the following vitamins and minerals: Vitamin A Vitamin C Iron Calcium The Daily Values: Food labels list the amount of some nutrients in a product as a percentage of its Daily Value, which makes the numbers more meaningful to consumers. The Daily Values reflect dietary recommendations for nutrients and dietary components that have important relationships with health. The “% Daily Value” column on a label provides a ballpark estimate of how individual foods contribute to the total diet. Front-of-Package Labels: Some consumers find the many numbers on Nutrition Facts panels overwhelming. They want an easier and quicker way to interpret information and select products. Food manufacturers responded by creating front-of-package labels that incorporate text, color, and icons to present key nutrient facts. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 12. Discuss the regulations for nutrient claims and health claims on food labels. ANS:
Nutrient Claims: Have you noticed phrases such as “good source of fiber” on a box of cereal or “rich in calcium” on a package of cheese? These and other nutrient claims may be used on labels so long as they meet FDA definitions, which include the conditions under which each term can be used. For example, in addition to having less than 2 milligrams of cholesterol, a “cholesterol-free” product may not contain more than 2 grams of saturated fat and trans fat combined per serving. The accompanying glossary defines nutrient terms on food labels, including criteria for foods described as “low,” “reduced,” and “free.” When nutrients have been added to enriched or fortified products, they must appear in the ingredients list. Some descriptions imply that a food contains, or does not contain, a nutrient. Implied claims are prohibited unless they meet specified criteria. For example, a claim that a product “contains no oil” implies that the food contains no fat. If the product is truly fat-free, then it may make the no-oil claim, but if it contains another source of fat, such as butter, it may not. Health Claims: Health claims describe a relationship between a food (or food component) and a disease or health-related condition. In some cases, the FDA authorizes health claims based on an extensive review of the scientific literature. For example, the health claim that “Diets low in sodium may reduce the risk of high blood pressure” is based on enough scientific evidence to establish a clear link between diet and health. In cases where there is emerging—but not established—evidence for a relationship between a food or food component and disease, the FDA allows the use of qualified health claims that must use specific language indicating that the evidence supporting the claim is limited. A qualified health claim might claim that “Very limited and preliminary research suggests that eating one-half to one cup of tomatoes and/or tomato sauce a week may reduce the risk of prostate cancer. The FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting the claim.” Structure-Function Claims: Unlike health claims, which require food manufacturers to collect scientific evidence and petition the FDA, structure-function claims can be made without any FDA approval. Product labels can claim to “slow aging,” “improve memory,” and “build strong bones” without any proof. The only criterion for a structure-function claim is that it must not mention a disease or symptom. Unfortunately, structure-function claims can be deceptively similar to health claims, and most consumers do not distinguish between different types of claims. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 13. Discuss the reasons for why people become vegetarians. ANS: The health benefits of a primarily vegetarian diet seem to have encouraged many people to eat more plant-based meals. The popular press sometimes refers to individuals who eat small amounts of meat, seafood, or poultry from time to time as “flexitarians.” People who choose to exclude meat and other animal-derived foods from their diets today do so for many of the same reasons the Greek philosopher Pythagoras cited in the sixth century B.C.: physical health, ecological responsibility, and philosophical concerns. They might also cite world hunger issues, economic reasons, ethical concerns, or religious beliefs as motivating factors. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 14. List and discuss the health advantages of a vegetarian diet.
ANS: Vegetarians tend to maintain a lower and healthier body weight than nonvegetarians. In general, those who eat meat have higher energy intakes and body weights. Vegetarians’ lower body weights correlate with their high intakes of fiber and low intakes of fat. Obesity and weight gains are strong risk factors for diabetes, which partially explains why nonvegetarian diets are more often associated with diabetes than vegetarian diets. Even when body weight and life-style factors are taken into account, vegetarian eating patterns seem to protect against diabetes. Vegetarians tend to have lower blood pressure and lower rates of hypertension than nonvegetarians. Appropriate body weight helps to maintain a healthy blood pressure, as does a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fiber, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat milk products, and protein from plant sources. Meat is associated with an increased risk of heart disease and stroke. The incidence of heart disease and related deaths and the concentrations of blood cholesterol are lower for vegetarians than for nonvegetarians, which can partly be explained by their avoidance of meat.The dietary factor most directly related to heart disease is saturated animal fat, and in general, vegetarian diets are lower in total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol than typical meat-based diets. The fats common in plant-based diets—the monounsaturated fats of olives, seeds, and nuts and the polyunsaturated fats of vegetable oils—are associated with a decreased risk of heart disease. Furthermore, vegetarian diets are generally higher in dietary fiber, antioxidant vitamins, and phytochemicals—all factors that help control blood lipids and protect against heart disease. Many vegetarians include soy products such as tofu in their diets. Soy products—with their polyunsaturated fats, fibers, vitamins, and minerals, and little saturated fat—may help to protect against heart disease. Vegetarians have a lower overall cancer incidence than the general population. Their low cancer rates may be due to their high intakes of fruits and vegetables. Some scientific findings indicate that vegetarian diets are associated not only with lower cancer mortality in general, but also with lower incidence of cancer at specific sites as well, most notably, colon cancer. People with colon cancer seem to eat more meat. Some cancer experts recommend limiting consumption of red meat to no more than 11 ounces a week, with very little (if any) processed meat. In addition to obesity, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, and some cancers, vegetarian diets may help prevent osteoporosis, diverticular disease, gallstones, cataracts, and rheumatoid arthritis. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 15. Discuss how vegetarians and vegans can ensure that they have adequate protein intake. ANS:
The protein RDA for vegetarians is the same as for others, although some have suggested that it should be higher because plant proteins are not digested as completely. Lacto-ovo-vegetarian diets that include animal-derived foods such as milk and eggs, deliver high-quality proteins and are likely to meet protein needs. Even vegetarians who adopt only plant-based diets are likely to meet protein needs provided that their energy intakes are adequate and the protein sources varied. The proteins of whole grains, vegetables, legumes, and nuts and seeds can provide adequate amounts of all the amino acids. An advantage of many vegetarian sources of protein is that they are generally lower in saturated fat than meats and are often higher in fiber and richer in some vitamins and minerals. Vegetarians sometimes use meat replacements made of textured vegetable protein (soy protein). These foods are formulated to look and taste like meat, seafood, or poultry. Many of these products are fortified to provide the vitamins and minerals found in animal sources of protein. Some may be high in salt, sugars, and saturated fats. A wise vegetarian learns to read labels and use a variety of whole, unrefined foods often and commercially prepared foods less frequently. Vegetarians may also use soy products such as tofu to bolster protein intake. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.
Chapter 3 – Digestion, Absorption, and Transport MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The process by which food is broken down into absorbable components is called which of the following? a. digestion b. absorption c. secretion d. mastication ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 65-66, Section 3.1-Digestion
2. What is mastication? a. the act of chewing b. the act of swallowing c. the wave-like contraction of the intestines d. the wave-like contraction of the esophagus ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
3. Which of the following parts is the lumen of the GI tract? a. the epiglottis b. the capillaries c. the inner space d. the mucosal surface ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
4. In what organ does the digestion process begin? a. mouth b. stomach c. duodenum d. jejunum-ileum ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
5. What is umami? a. the flavour of monosodium glutamate b. the opening between the duodenum and jejunum c. the intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes fish proteins d. an intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes dietary nucleic acids ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
6. About how many more times sensitive is the sense of smell compared with the sense of taste? a. 2 times b. 10 times c. 100s of times
d. 1000s of times ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
7. Which of the following is a basic taste sensation? a. hot b. cold c. sugary d. bitter ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
8. The food flavour enhancer monosodium glutamate is believed by some scientists to promote a unique taste sensation known by which of the following terms. a. salinos b. umami c. chymos d. glutami ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
9. Which of the following best describes the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract? a. a vat-like vessel b. a rigid, solid tunnel c. a flexible muscular tube d. a firm, duct-like channel ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
10. Which of the following is a specific sphincter muscle? a. longitudinal b. cardiac c. duodenal d. diaphragmatic ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
11. Where is the epiglottis located? a. throat b. bile duct c. pancreatic duct d. lower esophagus ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
12. What structure separates the colon from the small intestine? a. pylorus b. ileocecal valve c. gastric retainer d. rectal sphincter
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
13. What structure controls the release of material from the stomach to the small intestine? a. ileocecal valve b. pyloric sphincter c. diaphragmatic valve d. esophageal sphincter ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
14. What part of the GI tract prevents a person from choking while swallowing? a. mouth b. epiglottis c. pyloric sphincter d. upper esophageal sphincter ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 66, 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
15. What structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea? a. tongue b. epiglottis c. cardiac sphincter d. trachea sphincter ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
16. Which of the following is a function of the appendix? a. It ferments fibre. b. It stores lymph cells. c. It slows down peristalsis. d. It stores preformed stools. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
17. What is a bolus? a. enzyme that hydrolyzes starch b. portion of food swallowed at one time c. device used to analyze the contents of the stomach d. sphincter muscle separating the stomach from the small intestine ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
18. A bolus is conducted past the diaphragm through which of the following parts. a. epiglottis b. stomach c. esophagus d. large intestine ANS: C
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 19. Which of these is one function of the pyloric sphincter? a. secrete acid into the stomach b. secrete hormones into the stomach c. prevent the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach d. prevent the contents of the small intestine from emptying too quickly into the colon ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
20. Which of the following structures controls the passage of material from the small intestine to the large intestine? a. pyloric valve b. ileocecal valve c. colonic sphincter d. jejunal sphincter ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
21. What is the primary function of the rectum? a. control functioning of the colon b. absorb minerals from waste materials c. store waste materials prior to evacuation d. absorb excess water from waste materials ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
22. Into what region of the intestinal tract does the stomach empty? a. ileum b. cecum c. jejunum d. duodenum ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
23. After swallowing, in what order does food pass through the regions of the GI tract? a. jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum, rectum b. jejunum, ileum, duodenum, rectum, colon c. stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon d. stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
24. Which of the following is a description of chyme? a. the semisolid mass of undigested food which passes through the ileocecal valve b. a semiliquid mass of partially digested food released by the stomach into the small intestine c. the mixture of pancreatic juices containing enzymes for digestion of the macronutrients d. a thick, viscous material synthesized by mucosal cells for protection against digestive juices
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
25. What is the name given to partially digested food in the stomach? a. chyme b. liquid food c. gastric mucus d. semiliquid mass ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
26. What is meant by the term “motility” in reference to the GI tract? a. the efficiency of lymph transport b. the ability of the GI tract muscles to move c. the speed of gastric digestive juice release d. the speed of pancreatic digestive juice release ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
27. Which of the following best defines peristalsis? a. It is the static or quiet period between meals when the GI tract is empty. b. It is the constant rate of contraction along the GI tract when food is present. c. It is contraction of parallel and circular muscles found in the walls of the intestines but not the stomach. d. It is wavelike muscular contractions resulting from alternate tightening and relaxing of circular and longitudinal muscles of the GI tract. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68-69, Section 3.1-Digestion
28. Which of the following best describes the muscular actions of digestion? a. Peristalsis begins in the stomach upon the initiation of the swallowing reflex. b. Contraction and relaxation along the jejunum is enhanced by a third layer of diagonal muscles. c. Segmentation along the intestines allows momentary reversal of the movement of intestinal contents. d. Relaxation of the rectal sphincter muscles prevents the continuous elimination of stool. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68-70, Section 3.1-Digestion
29. During the process of digestion, at what point does the stomach begin to release chyme? a. when the fluid to solid ratio in chyme is 3 to 1 b. when the chyme is liquefied c. within 15 minutes of gastrin release d. within 5–10 minutes of starting a meal ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 69, Section 3.1-Digestion
30. Which of the following GI tract organs has the strongest muscles? a. stomach b. small intestine
c. large intestine d. cardiac sphincter ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 69, Section 3.1-Digestion
31. Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles? a. control peristalsis b. grind large food particles c. secrete digestive juices into the GI tract d. control the passage of food through the GI tract ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
32. The lower esophageal sphincter is also known as which of the following? a. reflux restrainer b. cardiac sphincter c. perihepatic control valve d. reverse peristalsis inhibitor ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
33. What is reflux? a. hard, dry, stools b. backward flow of chyme c. soft, poorly formed stools d. the mixture of bile and pancreatic juice ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
34. What types of enzymes are responsible for hydrolyzing the proteins in foods? a. lipases b. salivases c. proteases d. carbohydrases ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
35. Which of the following organs are directly involved in the digestion of protein? a. Stomach, salivary glands and pancreas b. Stomach, pancreas and colon c. Stomach, pancreas and jejunum. d. Stomach, gallbladder and ileum. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 70-72, Section 3.1-Digestion
36. What is the function of mucus in the stomach? a. emulsify fats b. neutralize stomach acid c. activate pepsinogen to pepsin d. protect stomach cells from gastric juices
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
37. What is a function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach? a. It absorbs water. b. It inhibits peristalsis. c. It neutralizes the alkaline food mass. d. It creates an optimum pH. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
38. Which of the following best describes the normal pH of the stomach? a. very acidic b. slightly acidic c. neutral d. slightly alkaline ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
39. Why is there little or no digestion of starch in the stomach? a. Mucus inhibits starch breakdown. b. Stomach enzymes are dysfunctional. c. Starch has already been adequately digested by salivary enzymes. d. Salivary enzymes do not work in an acid environment. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
40. What is the fate of any enzymes that are present in the foods we eat? a. hydrolyzed in the GI tract b. absorbed intact by the stomach c. absorbed intact by the small intestine d. passed through the GI tract and excreted in the stool ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
41. What substance protects the stomach lining from damage due to digestive juices? a. water b. mucus c. pepsinogen d. dietary fats ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
42. Which is an example of a role of hydrochloric acid in the gastrointestinal tract? a. It kills bacteria. b. It activates pancreatic enzymes. c. It raises the pH of chyme. d. It promotes hydrolysis of dietary carbohydrate. ANS: B
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 43. Which of these parts of the GI tract contains highly acidic digestive juices? a. colon b. ileum c. stomach d. duodenum ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
44. The usual pH of gastric juice is approximately which of the following values? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
45. Which of these is an important function of mucus? a. help solubilize bile b. stabilize pancreatic enzymes c. enhance absorption of vitamin B12 d. protect the stomach walls from digestion ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
46. After a portion of food is chewed and swallowed, what happens to the salivary amylase in the stomach? a. It is inactivated by gastric juice. b. It continues to hydrolyze starches. c. It binds to pepsin and catalyzes proteolytic activity. d. It passes into the duodenum where the alkaline pH stimulates carbohydrase activity. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
47. Which of the following body organs secretes digestive enzymes? a. esophagus b. gastric glands c. liver d. endocrine glands ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
48. The process by which bile acts on fat so enzymes can attack the fat is known as which of the following? a. condensation b. emulsification c. enzymification d. phosphorylation ANS: B
REF: p. 71, 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 49. Which of the following is is digested by pancreatic juice? a. fats b. fibre c. zymogens d. insulin ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71-72, Section 3.1-Digestion
50. Which of the following is a component of pancreatic juice? a. bile b. HCl c. lipase d. emulsifier ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71-72, Section 3.1-Digestion
51. Your cousin Miguel is extolling the virtues of his new dietary supplement. He says that it contains enzymes that will make him healthier, and he asks for your opinion. You tell him that the enzymes a. will increase the digestibility of the foods he eats b. could likely interfere with the enzymes secreted by his pancreas c. could likely overload his gastrointestinal tract and lead to diarrhea d. are proteins and proteins are destroyed in the gastrointestinal tract ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
52. A solution with a pH of 7 is how many times more alkaline than a solution with a pH of 6? a. 1 time b. 5 times c. 10 times d. 100 times ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
53. How does bicarbonate contribute to the digestive process? a. It raises the pH of chyme b. It prevents reflux of of chyme (heartburn). c. It emulsifies lipids in the duodenum. d. It breaks down starch to simple sugars. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
54. After the pancreatic juices have mixed with chyme in the small intestine, which of the following describes the pH of the resulting mixture? a. very acidic b. moderately acidic c. strongly alkaline d. approximately neutral ANS: D
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Application 55. Which of the following is produced by bacterial fermentation of certain fibres in the colon? a. cholesterol b. minerals c. secretin d. small fat fragments ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
56. What is one function of the gallbladder? a. store bile b. produce bile c. reabsorb water and salts d. perform enzymatic digestion ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
57. An example of an important function of the colon would be its absorption of which of the following substances? a. bile b. fats c. salts d. hormones ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
58. Which of the following would be the largest component of stools? a. fats b. fibre c. pesticide and heavy metal residues d. peptides ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
59. Which of the following classes of nutrients requires the least amount of digestion? a. lipids b. proteins c. vitamins d. carbohydrates ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
60. Which of the following nutrients requires the least amount of digestion? a. starch b. calcium c. animal fats d. animal proteins ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
61. Which of the following is generally NOT digested but does stimulate intestinal muscle contractions? a. bile b. fibre c. starch d. amylase ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
62. Which of the following is the most important function of fibre in digestive health? a. It provides energy (Calories) through bacterial fermentation in the colon. b. It increases fecal bulk and stimulates intestinal muscle contractions. c. It supports the elimination of cholesterol in stools. d. It helps rid the body of contaminants. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
63. What is the function of bile? a. emulsify fats b. initiate digestion of protein c. enhance absorption of complex carbohydrates d. protect the stomach and small intestine from the action of hydrochloric acid ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
64. Nancy has stones that are blocking bile release from her gallbladder. What is likely to be the main response to her problem? a. impaired fat digestion b. impaired carbohydrate digestion c. impaired protein digestion d. impaired CCK release ANS: A MSC: Remember
REF: p.72, 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
65. Which of the following mechanisms is an important function of the intestinal villi crypts? a. synthesis of chylomicrons b. secretion of juices into the small intestine c. synthesis of fragments of fat for use by the colon d. transport of fat-soluble nutrients into the circulation ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
66. What is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine? a. villi b. cilia c. mesenteric vessels d. vascular projectiles ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
67. Which of the following is a function of the intestinal microvilli? a. secretion of bile salts b. secretion of digestive acid c. transport of nutrient molecules d. transport of pancreatic enzymes ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
68. Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients? a. crypt b. villus c. microvillus d. macrovillus ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
69. Which of the following are found on the microvilli and function to break apart small nutrients into the final products of digestion? a. mucus b. micelles c. enzymes d. hormones ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
70. Which mechanism directly accounts for the absorption of some nutrients by intestinal cells? a. dilution b. transmigration c. active transport d. facilitated diversion ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
71. How does the concept of surface area most relate to the absorption of nutrients? a. The presence of fibre in a meal expands the intestinal lumen and thereby the surface area for nutrient absorption. b. The surface area of nutrient molecules if the main determinant of the process of absorption. c. Large numbers of villi and microvilli in the small intestine increase the surface area for nutrient absorption. d. The surface area of pancreatic enzymes is a key factor in their digestive capacity. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74-76, Section 3.2-Absorption
72. Which of the following is a significant property of dietary fibre? a. inhibition of protease activity b. promotion of water retention of stools c. inhibition of large intestinal contractions d. promotion of vitamin excretion in stools ANS: B
REF: p. 76, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 73. To assist the process of digestion and absorption, it is usually best to do which of the following? a. Eat several snacks per day so the system is not overwhelmed. b. Combine different food types to enhance the absorption process. c. Avoid eating meat and fruit at the same meal to prevent competition. d. Take enzyme pills or powder periodically so the system can rest and rejuvenate. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 76, Section 3.2-Absorption
74. When nutrients are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the vascular system, what organ is first to receive them? a. liver b. heart c. lungs d. kidneys ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 76, Section 3.2-Absorption
75. Which of the following products of digestion is released directly into the bloodstream? a. chylomicrons b. minerals c. polypeptides d. soluble fibre ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 76, Section 3.2-Absorption
76. Exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials takes place across the walls of which of the following small vessels? a. ducts b. venules c. arterioles d. capillaries ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 76, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
77. What vessel carries blood from the liver to the heart? a. aorta b. hepatic vein c. thoracic duct d. hepatic portal vein ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 77, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
78. The hepatic portal vein empties into which organ? a. liver b. heart c. pancreas d. lung ANS: A
REF: p. 77, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
MSC: Knowledge 79. When alcohol and barbiturates are ingested, they are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and transported first to which of the following organs? a. liver b. heart c. spleen d. kidneys ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 78, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
80. Which of the following conducts lymph into the vascular system? a. villi b. mesentery c. subclavian vein d. common bile duct ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
81. What are lacteals? a. gastric secretory cells b. products of milk digestion c. intestinal lymphatic vessels d. products of colonic fermentation ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
82. Which distinguishes the lymphatic system from the vascular system? a. The lymphatic system carries fats from the intestines to the liver before they can enter the vasculature. b. The lymphatic system circulates via a one-way pump at the junction to the subclavian vein. c. The lymphatic system takes fats from the intestines to the bloodstream, initially bypassing the liver. d. The lymphatic system transports fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins to the vascular system via the thoracic duct. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78-79, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
83. Which of these is the first major organ to receive nutrients that are absorbed into the lymph? a. liver b. heart c. spleen d. pancreas ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78-79, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
84. Immediately after absorption, what circulatory system carries the fat-soluble vitamins and large fats? a. vascular system b. mesenteric system
c. lymphatic system d. enterohepatic system ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78-79, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
85. The living bacteria found in yogurt are known as what microorganisms? a. probiotics b. prebiotics c. postbiotics d. zymobiotics ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
86. Microorganisms in food that are viable when consumed and that are beneficial to health are known by which of the following terms? a. probiotics b. prebiotics c. postbiotics d. zymobiotics ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
87. When consumed on a regular basis, which of the following foods promotes healthful changes of the microflora of the GI tract? a. fish b. yogurt c. poultry d. iron-rich foods ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
88. The intestinal flora are comprised primarily of which of the following? a. parasites b. bacteria c. fibre d. probiotics ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
89. What is the primary role of the normal, thriving, intestinal, bacterial population? a. help degrade meat and dairy proteins b. help prevent infectious bacteria from attacking the system c. synthesize vitamin D, which can be absorbed into the body d. synthesize several amino acids which can be absorbed into the body ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
90. Which of the following is known to be produced by small intestinal bacteria? a. mucus b. chyme
c. glucose d. vitamins ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
91. The maintenance of the body’s constant internal conditions is guided by which principle? a. homeostasis b. regularity c. bioregulation d. metabolic balance ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79-80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
92. Which 2 systems coordinate all digestive/absorptive processes? a. enzyme and thoracic systems b. portal and lymphatic systems c. nervous and endocrine systems d. transport and circulatory systems ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
93. What is the normal pH of stomach juice? a. 0.25–0.50 b. 1.5–1.7 c. 7.0–7.5 d. 9.5–9.75 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
94. Which of the following hormones regulates the pH of the stomach? a. gastrin b. insulin c. secretin d. cholecystokinin ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
95. Which of the following substances functions to control the release of hydrochloric acid to prevent excessive acidity? a. fibre b. gastrin c. secretin d. bicarbonate ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
96. Which of the following substances stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice? a. gastrin b. secretin c. glucagon
d. gastric-inhibitory peptide ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
97. Which of the following plays the largest role in regulating the release of pancreatic digestive enzymes? a. the hormone gastrin. b. the pancreatic sphincter. c. the amount of fat, protein or carbohydrate in chyme d. the release of digestive enzymes by the pancreas remains constant and is not affected by external or internal factors. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80-81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
98. Which of the following are all enterogastrone hormones? a. gastric inhibitory peptide, secretin and bicarbonate b. gastric inhibitory peptide, secretin and cholecystokinin c. gastric inhibitory peptide, bicarbonate and gastrin d. gastric inhibitory peptide, cholecystokinin and zymogen ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80-81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
99. What is the first vessel to receive absorbed water-soluble vitamins? a. hepatic vein b. mesenteric vein c. mesenteric artery d. hepatic portal vein ANS: D MSC: Application 100.
What is/are the primary target organ(s) for the action of cholecystokinin? a. pancreas only b. pancreas and stomach c. pancreas and duodenum d. pancreas and gallbladder ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
101.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Which of the following is a chief function of cholecystokinin (CCK)? a. CCK triggers the release of bile. b. CCK increases the rate of GI tract motility. c. CCK triggers release of gastrin. d. CCK triggers release of HCl from the stomach. ANS: C REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract MSC: Knowledge recall
102.
Which of these is the usual consequence of removing a diseased gallbladder? a. inability to digest fats b. some damage to the pancreas c. inability to digest carbohydrates d. delivery of bile directly to the duodenum
ANS: D MSC: Application 103.
Jenny has just has undergone a cholecystectomy. After recovery, what ability will Jenny have lost? a. to manufacture bile b. to store bile c. to digest carbohydrates d. to insulin neutralize acidic gastric juices ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
104.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
What is a zymogen? a. an intestinal hormone b. an inactive enzyme precursor c. a defective pancreatic enzyme d. an inflamed small intestinal out-pocketing ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
108.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
What substance controls the release of bile into the small intestines? a. gastrin b. secretin c. prozymogen d. cholecystokinin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
107.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Nancy is having difficulty releasing bile from her gallbladder. What hormone might be functioning improperly? a. CCK b. gastrin c. secretin d. gastrin ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
106.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Which of the following hormones is released by the intestinal wall in response to the presence of fat? a. insulin b. gastrin c. secretin d. cholecystokinin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
105.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Which of the following results is associated with the presence of fat in the GI tract? a. inhibition of mucosal enzyme activities b. slowing of the process of digestion and absorption c. inhibition of thiamine, riboflavin, and niacin absorption d. stimulation and hastening of digestion and absorption
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge 109.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
The chief purpose of the gallbladder is to store a substance that is required for the assimilation of which of the following ingested nutrients? a. fats only b. carbohydrates only c. fats and carbohydrates d. proteins, fats, and carbohydrates ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
110. Which of the following nutrients requires the greatest time for digestion? a. fats b. water c. minerals d. carbohydrates ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 82, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
111. A decrease in the flow of blood to the intestines is known by which of the following terms? a. gut stasis b. gut dysmotility c. intestinal stroke d. intestinal ischemia ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 82, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
112. Choking occurs when a piece of food becomes firmly lodged in which structure? a. larynx b. trachea c. epiglottis d. esophagus ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 84-85, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
113. The Heimlich manoeuvre may be helpful in conditions associated with which of these signs? a. choking b. vomiting c. heartburn d. constipation ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 84-85, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
114. Which of the following results from reverse peristalsis? a. gas b. choking c. vomiting d. diarrhea ANS: C
REF: p. 85, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems