Test Bank for Maternal & Child Nursing Care, 3e Marcia London, Patricia Ladewig, Jane Ball, Ruth Bindler, Kay Cowen (All Chapter Answer at the end of each Chapter) MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1)A nurse is providing guidance to a group of parents of children in the infant-to-preschool age 1) _______ group. After reviewing statistics on the most common cause of death in this age group, the nurse would include information about prevention of: A) Accidental injury, including pool and traffic accidents. B) Cancer by reducing the use of pesticides in the home. C) Heart disease by incorporating heart-healthy foods into the child's diet. D) Pneumonia by providing a diet high in vitamin C from fruits and vegetables. 2) A 12-year-old pediatric client is in need of surgery. The health care member who is legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure is: A) The social worker. B) The physician. C) The unit secretary. D) The nurse.
2) _______
3) A nurse who tells family members the sex of a newborn baby without first consulting the parents would be considered having committed: A) Negligence. B) Malpractice. C) A breach of ethics. D) Breach of privacy.
3) _______
4) Which of the following practices characterize the basic competencies related to evidence-based practice? Select all that apply. A) Clinical practice supported by good evidence B) Clinical practice that promotes quality C) Clinical practice supported by intuitive evidence D) Clinical practice that provides a useful approach to problem solving
4) _______
E) Clinical practice supported by data 5) The role of the certified nurse—midwife (CNM) is to: (Select all that apply.) A) Be prepared to manage independently the care of women at low risk for complications during pregnancy and birth. B) Be educated in two disciplines of nursing. C) Obtain a physician consultation for any technical procedures at delivery. D) Give primary care for healthy newborns. E) Give primary care for high-risk clients who are in hospital settings.
5) _______
6) A nurse is working with pediatric clients in a research facility. The nurse recognizes that federal guidelines delineate that pediatric clients must give consent for participation in research trials. Based on the client's age, the nurse would seek assent from which child? Select all that apply. A) A 13-year-old client beginning participation in a research program for ADHD treatments B) A 7-year-old leukemia client electing to receive a newly developed trial medication C) A 10-year-old starting in an investigative study for clients with precocious puberty D) A precocious 4-year-old starting as a cystic fibrosis research study participant
6) _______
7) A nurse is examining different nursing roles. Which of the following best illustrates an advanced practice nursing role?
7) _______
A) A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother—baby unit B) A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit C) A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for her expertise in caring for high-risk infants D) A registered nurse who is the circulating nurse at surgical deliveries (cesarean sections) 8) According to the 1973 Supreme Court decision in Roe v. Wade, abortion is legal if induced: A) At a military hospital overseas. B) Before the period of viability. C) To provide tissue for therapeutic research. D) At a federally funded clinic.
8) _______
9) The major focus of the nurse practitioner is on: A) Leadership. B) Independent care of the high-risk, pregnant client. C) Physical and psychosocial clinical assessment. D) Tertiary prevention.
9) _______
10) The maternity nurse's best defense against an accusation of malpractice or negligence is that the nurse: A) Was acting on the advice of the nurse manager. B) Is a certified nurse—midwife or nurse practitioner. C) Followed the physician's written orders. D) Met the Association of Women's Health, Obstetric and Neonatal Nurses (AWHONN) standards of practice.
10) ______
11) During the hospital admission process, the child's parent receives information about the pediatric unit's goals, including the statement that the unit practices "family-centered care." The parent asks why that should be important. The nurse would respond that in the "family-centered care" paradigm, the: A) Family serves as the constant influence and continuing support in the child's life. B) Mother is the principal caregiver in each family. C) Child's physician is the key person in assuring the health of a child is maintained. D) Father is the leader in each home; thus, all communications should include him.
11) ______
12) Which of the following families might find cord blood banking to be especially useful? A) A family with a history of infertility B) A family with a history of leukemia C) A family that wishes to select the sex of a future child D) A family that wishes to avoid a future intrauterine fetal surgery
12) ______
13) Despite the availability of State Children's Health Insurance Programs (SCHIPs), many eligible children are not enrolled. The nursing intervention that can best help eligible children become enrolled is: A) Advocacy for the child by encouraging the family to investigate its SCHIP eligibility. B) Education of the family about the need for keeping regular well-child visit appointments. C) Assessment of the details of the family's income and expenditures. D) Case management to limit costly, unnecessary duplication of services.
13) ______
14) The telephone triage nurse at a pediatric clinic knows each call is important. However, recognizing that infant deaths are most frequent in the following categories, the nurse must be extra attentive during calls from parents of infants who are: (Select all that apply.)
14) ______
A) Between 6 and 8 months old. B) Less than 3 weeks old. C) Born to an unmarried mother. D) Of a non-Hispanic black family. E) Of an American Indian family.
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) A, B, D, E 5) A, B, D 6) A, B, C 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) B, C, D
Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A pregnant client is interested in the use of herbs during her pregnancy. There are basic 1) _______ principles the nurse should follow in advising the client. Which of the following would not be considered a basic principle? A) Avoid the use of any herbs throughout pregnancy. B) Avoid highly concentrated extracts of herbs. C) Consult with your health care provider before taking any herbs, even as teas. D) Avoid the use of any herbs during the first trimester. 2) The dramatic increase in complementary and alternative therapies that began in the final decade of the twentieth century probably was the result of which of the following factors? Select all that apply. A) Increased consumer awareness of the limitations of conventional medicine B) The use of traditional Western medicine for treatment C) The advent of the Internet D) Increased media attention E) Increased international travel
2) _______
3) Complementary and alternative therapies have many benefits for the childbearing family and others. However, many of these remedies have associated risks. Which of the following situations would be considered a risk? Select all that apply. A) Trying out a homeopathic medicine from a friend to reduce swelling in the legs B) Joining a group that practices tai chi weekly to help with physical fitness and movement C) Getting a massage from a licensed massage therapist for back pain, prescribed by the primary caregiver D) Getting a chiropractic treatment for lower back pain due to discomforts of pregnancy without telling the primary health care provider E) Taking an herbal preparation suggested by a health food store worker for treatment of leg pain
3) _______
4) The charge nurse is reviewing the care plans written by the unit's staff nurses. The charge nurse recognizes that the NANDA nursing diagnosis most likely to be construed as culturally biased and possibly offensive is: A) Spiritual Distress related to discrepancy between beliefs and prescribed treatment. B) Fear related to separation from support system during hospitalization. C) Noncompliance related to impaired verbal communication secondary to recent immigration from non—English-speaking area. D) Interrupted Family Processes related to a shift in family roles secondary to demands of illness.
4) _______
5) A nurse is working in a clinic where children from several cultures are seen. As a first step toward the goal of personal cultural competence, the nurse will: A) Gain cultural awareness. B) Enhance cultural skills. C) Seek cultural encounters. D) Acquire cultural knowledge.
5) _______
6) The nurse is working with a child whose religious beliefs differ from those of the general population. The best nursing intervention to use to meet the specific spiritual needs of this child and family is to: A) Show respect while allowing time and privacy for religious rituals.
6) _______
B) Ask "What do you think caused the child's illness?" C) Identify health care practices forbidden by religious or spiritual beliefs. D) Ask "How do the child's and family's religious/spiritual beliefs impact their practices for health and illness?" 7) A nurse is performing a family assessment. A father and mother who work are considered what type of family? A) A traditional nuclear family B) An extended family C) A dual-career/dual-earner family D) An extended kin family
7) _______
8) The nurse is working with a child newly enrolled into an English-as-a-second-language class. The nurse wants to teach the child about the importance of handwashing before meals and of not eating food dropped on the exam room floor. The best way to assimilate the nurse's cultural values about hygienic nutrition is to: A) Provide written materials in English about hygiene and diet for the client to take home. B) Have the child repeat his interpretation of the information that was taught. C) Have the nurse model proper handwashing before examining the child and throw out the dropped cookie. D) Schedule a medical interpreter to accompany the client to his next visit.
8) _______
9) During the assessment, the nurse notices that a black baby has a darker, slightly bluish-hued patch about 5 cm by 7 cm on the buttocks and lower back. What is the nurse's next action? A) Ask the mother about the cause of the bruise. B) Chart the presence of a Mongolian spot. C) Confer with the physician about the possibility of a bleeding tendency. D) Call the Department of Social Services (DSS) to report this sign of abuse.
9) _______
10) A nurse is comparing several different families' developmental stages. What serves as a marker for a family's developmental stage according to Duvall? A) The mother's age B) The oldest child's age C) The youngest child's age D) The father's age
10) ______
11) A home health nurse has set up a home visit with a Korean couple to follow up on their jaundiced 4-day-old baby, who was discharged home yesterday. Considering family power structure, what family members might the nurse expect to see in the home? A) The grandfather and parents B) The godparents C) Just the parents D) The grandmother
11) ______
12) A nurse is reviewing research related to use of complementary and alternative therapies medicine. The nurse discovers that the people most likely to use complementary and alternative therapies medicine are: A) Affluent middle-aged women. B) Women in their twenties who are middle-class. C) Elderly women who are middle-class. D) Affluent middle-aged men.
12) ______
13) A woman of Korean descent has just given birth to a son. Her partner wishes to give her sips of hot broth from a thermos they brought with them. They have refused your offer of ice chips or other cold drinks for the client. The nurse should: A) Encourage the client to have the broth, after the nurse takes it to the kitchen and boils it first. B) Explain to the client that she can have the broth if she will also drink cold water or juice.
13) ______
C) Encourage the partner to feed the client sips of their broth. Ask if the client would like you to bring her some warm water to drink as well. D) Explain to the couple that food can't be brought from home, but that the nurse will make hot broth for them. 14) The nurse is caring for a postpartal client who is of Hmong descent and immigrated to the United States five years ago. The client asks for the regular hospital menu because she likes American food. The nurse assesses this response to be related to which of the following cultural concepts? A) Enculturation B) Ethnocentrism C) Stereotyping D) Acculturation
14) ______
15) A 7-year-old client tells you that "Grandpa, Mommy, Daddy, and my brother live at my house." The nurse identifies this family type as: A) Binuclear. B) Gay or lesbian. C) Traditional. D) Extended.
15) ______
1) A 2) A, C, D, E 3) B, C 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) D
Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A pregnant adolescent asks the nurse, "Why does the physician call measuring my uterus 'a 1) _______ fundal height'?" The nurse's answer is based on the fact that the fundus of the uterus is located: A) In the elongated portion where the fallopian tubes enter. B) In the uppermost (dome-shaped top) portion. C) Between the internal cervical os and the endometrial cavity. D) In the lower third area. 2) When planning care for a client who has undergone an episiotomy, it would be important to include a goal that addresses the need for pain relief of the: A) Labia minora. B) Mons pubis. C) Hymen. D) Perineum.
2) _______
3) A woman is experiencing mittelschmerz and increased vaginal discharge. Her temperature has increased by 0.6°C (1.0°F) over the past 36 hours. This most likely indicates that: A) Ovulation has occurred. B) Menstruation is about to begin. C) She is pregnant, and will not D) Ovulation will occur soon. menstruate.
3) _______
4) The vascularity of the uterus increases and the endometrium becomes prepared for a fertilized ovum in which phase of the menstrual cycle? A) Proliferative B) Menstrual C) Secretory D) Ischemic
4) _______
5) A school nurse is teaching a health class to middle school children. The nurse explains that follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are secreted by the: A) Hypothalamus. B) Posterior pituitary. C) Ovaries and testes. D) Anterior pituitary.
5) _______
6) The client shows an understanding of the pelvic cavity divisions by stating: A) "The relationship between the false pelvis and the fetal head is of paramount importance." B) "The true pelvis is the portion above the pelvic brim." C) "The false pelvis consists of the inlet, the pelvic cavity, and the outlet." D) "The true pelvis is made up of the sacrum, coccyx, and the innominate bones."
6) _______
7) A nurse teaches newly pregnant clients that if an ovum is fertilized and implants in the endometrium, the hormone the fertilized egg begins to secrete is: A) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). B) Progesterone. C) Luteinizing. D) Estrogen.
7) _______
8) The normal position of the uterus within the body cavity is: A) Anteverted. B) Anteflexed. C) Retroverted.
8) _______ D) Retroflexed.
9) The uterine ligaments support and stabilize the various reproductive organs. Which of the following are true statements about the individual ligaments? Select all that apply. A) The infundibulopelvic ligaments suspend and support the uterus. B) The cardinal ligaments prevent uterine prolapse and support the upper vagina. C) The uterosacral ligaments contribute to the pain of dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation). D) The ovarian ligaments anchor the ovary to the uterus. E) The broad ligament keeps the uterus centrally placed.
9) _______
10) A school nurse, teaching a health class to adolescent boys, explains that spermatozoa become motile and fertile during the 2—10 days they are stored in the: A) Epididymis. B) Urethra. C) Prostate gland. D) Vas deferens.
10) ______
11) A man who has had a vasectomy becomes functionally sterile because the sperm: A) Cannot reach the outside of the body. B) Are no longer being produced. C) Cannot penetrate an ovum. D) Are no longer motile and fertile.
11) ______
12) Based on the anatomy of the male external genitalia, which of the following is the most logical cause of inability to achieve erection? A) Poor circulation to the penis B) Decreased functioning of the seminiferous tubules C) An undescended testicle D) Weakness or atrophy of the penile muscles
12) ______
13) A woman has been unable to complete a full-term pregnancy because the fertilized ovum failed to implant in the uterus. This is most likely due to a lack of which hormone? A) Progesterone B) FSH C) LH D) Estrogen
13) ______
14) The nurse explains to the client that the obstetric conjugate measurement is important because: A) The fetus passes under it during birth. B) The size of this diameter determines whether the fetus can move down into the birth canal so that engagement can occur. C) This determines the tilt of the pelvis. D) This measurement determines the shape of the inlet.
14) ______
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 15) Place the phases of the uterine (menstrual) cycle in order, beginning with the end of the 15) _____________ menstrual phase. 1. Ischemic phase 2. Proliferative 3. Secretory
1) B 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) B, C, D, E 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) 2, 3, 1
Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following facilitates movement of the ovum through the fallopian tube and toward 1) _______ the uterus? A) Progesterone-induced cervical mucus changes B) Movements of the corona radiata of the ovum C) Motions of the fallopian fimbriae D) Estrogen-induced tubal peristalsis 2) The nurse is presenting information on pregnancy and fetal development. To evaluate learning, the nurse asks the students: "When a female reaches adolescence, the ova continue to divide. How many chromosomes do the resulting cells then have?" A) 46 single chromosomes B) 23 single chromosomes C) 46 double-structured chromosomes D) 23 double-structured chromosomes
2) _______
3) Which of the following would be typical of a fetus at 20 weeks? Select all that apply. A) Nipples appear over the mammary glands. B) The kidneys begin to produce urine. C) Lanugo covers the entire body. D) The fetus actively sucks and swallows amniotic fluid. E) The fetus has a body weight of 435—465 g.
3) _______
4) The fetus is wrinkled, is covered with vernix, opens and closes eyelids, and has physiologically immature lungs that would sufficiently provide gas exchange. What gestational age is this fetus? A) 34 weeks B) 25 weeks C) 23 weeks D) 30 weeks
4) _______
5) For fertilization to occur, what portion of the sperm must enter the ovum? A) Either the head or the tail B) Only the head C) Only the tail D) The entire sperm
5) _______
6) A client tells you that her mother was a twin, two of her sisters have twins, and several cousins either are twins or gave birth to twins. The client, too, is expecting twins. Because there is a genetic predisposition to twins in her family, there is a good chance that the client will have: A) Identical twins. B) Dizygotic twins. C) Monozygotic twins. D) Nonzygotic twins.
6) _______
7) During a prenatal examination, a client asks, "How does my baby get air?" The nurse would give correct information by saying: A) "The blood from the placenta is carried through the umbilical artery, which penetrates the abdominal wall of the fetus." B) "The lungs of the fetus carry out respiratory gas exchange in utero." C) "The fetus is able to obtain sufficient oxygen because your hemoglobin concentration is 50% greater during pregnancy." D) "The placenta assumes the function of the fetal lungs by supplying oxygen and allowing the excretion of carbon dioxide into your bloodstream."
7) _______
8) Prenatal influences on the intrauterine environment include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Vitamins and folic acid B) Maternal nutrition
8) _______
C) The use of drugs D) The use of saunas or hot tubs E) The quality of the sperm or ovum 9) If only a small volume of sperm is discharged into the vagina, an insufficient amount of enzymes might be released when they encounter the ovum. In that case, pregnancy would probably not result, because: A) Sperm would be unable to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum. B) The block to polyspermy (cortical reaction) would not occur. C) Peristalsis of the fallopian tube would decrease, making it difficult for the ovum to enter the uterus. D) The fertilized ovum would be unable to implant in the uterus.
9) _______
10) The cell division process that results in two identical cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell, is called: A) Mitosis. B) Gametogenesis. C) Oogenesis. D) Meiosis.
10) ______
11) A woman is seven months pregnant, and has come to the obstetrical clinic for a routine prenatal examination. During the assessment, the nurse hears a soft blowing sound above the mother's symphysis pubis. The rate of sound is synchronous with the mother's heartbeat. The nurse identifies this as: A) An abnormal sound representing an aortic aneurysm. B) A normal sound called funic souffle. C) An abnormal sound representing a false knot in the cord. D) A normal sound called uterine souffle.
11) ______
12) In evaluating information taught about conception and fetal development, the client verbalizes understanding about transportation time of the zygote through the fallopian tube and into the cavity of the uterus with which statement? A) "It will take 18 hours for the fertilized egg to implant in the uterus." B) "It will take 8 days for the egg to reach the uterus." C) "It will take at least 3 days for the egg to reach the uterus." D) "It will only take 12 hours for the egg to go through the fallopian tube."
12) ______
13) The process of implantation is characterized by which of following processes? Select all that apply. A) Between 7 and 10 days, the zona pellucida disappears and the blastocyst implants itself in the uterine lining. B) The most frequent site of attachment is the lower part of the anterior uterine wall. C) The cells of the trophoblast grow down into the uterine lining, forming the chorionic villi. D) The lining of the uterus thins below the implanted blastocyst. E) The trophoblast attaches itself to the surface of the endometrium.
13) ______
14) The placenta produces hormones that are vital to the function of the fetus. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy past the eleventh week? A) Estrogen B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) C) Human placental lactogen (hPL) D) Progesterone
14) ______
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 15) At her first prenatal visit, a woman and the nurse are discussing fetal development. The "Th heartbeat of an client asks, "When will my baby actually have a heartbeat?" The nurse should reply, e embryo is
distingui 15) shable by week number ________ of develop ment."
___ ___ ___ ___ _
1) D 2) D 3) A, C, D, E 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) A, B, C, D 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) A, C, E 14) D 15) 4
Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A menopausal woman tells her nurse that she experiences discomfort from vaginal dryness 1) _______ during sexual intercourse, and asks, "What should I use as a lubricant?" The nurse should recommend: A) Petroleum jelly. B) A water-soluble lubricant. C) Less-frequent intercourse. D) Body cream or body lotion. 2) A client comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps. She has never been pregnant, has been diagnosed with ovarian cysts, and has had an intrauterine device (IUD) for 2 years. The most likely cause for the client's complaint is: A) Hypermenorrhea. B) Primary dysmenorrhea. C) Menorrhagia. D) Secondary dysmenorrhea.
2) _______
3) When a woman who has been raped is admitted to the Emergency Department, which nursing intervention has priority? A) Create a safe, secure atmosphere for her. B) Contact family members. C) Explain exactly what will need to be done to preserve legal evidence. D) Assure the woman that everything will be all right.
3) _______
4) When teaching a woman about the use of a diaphragm, it is important to instruct her that the diaphragm should be rechecked for correct size: A) Only after significant weight loss. B) Every five years routinely. C) After each birth. D) When weight gain or loss beyond five pounds has occurred.
4) _______
5) A client who is 36 years old, weighs 200 pounds, is monogamous, and does not smoke desires birth control. The nurse understands that which of the following is inappropriate for this client? A) Intrauterine device B) Combined oral contraceptives C) Vaginal sponge D) Transdermal hormonal contraception
5) _______
6) A client asks her nurse, "Is it okay for me to take a tub bath during the heavy part of my menstruation?" The correct response by the nurse is: A) "You should bathe and use a feminine deodorant spray during menstruation." B) "Tub baths are contraindicated during menstruation." C) "Either a bath or a shower is fine at that time." D) "You should shower and douche daily instead."
6) _______
7) When taking a sexual history from a client, the nurse should: A) Try not to make much direct eye contact. B) Have the client fill out a comprehensive questionnaire, and review it after the client leaves. C) Ask questions that the client can answer with a "yes" or "no". D) Ask mostly open-ended questions.
7) _______
8) In using the natural method of contraception, the nurse should instruct the client to begin counting the first day of her cycle as: A) The day her menstrual period ceases. B) The day of ovulation.
8) _______
C) The first day after her menstrual period ceases. D) The first day of her menstrual period. 9) A couple asks the nurse what the safest method of sterilization would be. The nurse should reply, "Generally, the safest method of permanent sterilization would be a: A) "Minilaparotomy." B) "Laparoscopy tubal ligation." C) "Laparotomy tubal ligation." D) "Vasectomy."
9) _______
10) The nurse at the family planning clinic has done some teaching on oral contraceptives in the waiting room. The nurse knows that the teaching has been effective when one of the clients responds: A) "I can take 'the pill,' even though I smoke heavily." B) "I can't take 'the pill' if I have gallbladder disease." C) "My periods will become slightly heavier when I take 'the pill'." D) "I can't take 'the pill' if I'm over 30."
10) ______
11) A teaching plan for a client with premenstrual syndrome (PMS) should include a recommendation to restrict her intake of: A) Chicken, eggs, and fish. B) Coffee, colas, and chocolate cake. C) High-starch foods such as potatoes and spaghetti. D) Breads, cereals, and beans.
11) ______
12) A client who wants to use the vaginal sponge as a method of contraception shows that she understands the appropriate usage with which of the following statements? A) "I need to use a lubricant prior to insertion." B) "I need to leave it in no longer than 6 hours." C) "I need to add spermicidal cream prior to intercourse." D) "I need to moisten it with water prior to use."
12) ______
13) How is the cervical mucus method of contraception different from the calendar (rhythm) method? The cervical mucus method: A) Requires no artificial substances or devices. B) Provides an increased awareness of the body. C) Is more effective for women with irregular cycles. D) Is free, safe, and acceptable to women of many religions.
13) ______
14) A nurse is providing a client with instructions regarding breast self-examination (BSE). Which of the following statements by the client would indicate that the teaching has been successful? Select all that apply. A) "I should inspect my breasts while standing with my arms down at my sides." B) "Knowing the texture of my breasts is important." C) "I should inspect my breasts while in a supine position with my arms at my sides." D) "I should perform BSE 1 week prior to the start of my period." E) "When I reach menopause, I will perform BSE every 2 months."
14) ______
15) Which client would not be a good candidate for Depo-Provera (DMPA)? A) One with a vaginal prolapse B) One who weighs 200 pounds C) One who wishes to get pregnant within 3 months D) A nursing mother
15) ______
1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) A, B 15) C
Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A client describes breast swelling and tenderness. What piece of data would be most important 1) _______ for the nurse to gather initially? A) Diet history B) Timing of the symptoms C) Birth control method D) Method of breast self-examination 2) A client comes in complaining of wart-like lesions on the vulva, painful wrist and finger joints, and a chronic and hoarse sore throat. The appropriate treatment would be: A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) p.o. B) Acyclovir (Zovirax) p.o. C) Penicillin G (Bicillin) IM. D) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM.
2) _______
3) A nonpregnant client reports a fishy-smelling, thin, white, watery vaginal discharge. She is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis (BV). The nurse would be expecting to administer: A) Penicillin G (Bicillin) 2 million units IM one time. B) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg p.o. b.i.d. for a week. C) Metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg p.o. b.i.d. for a week. D) Zithromax (Azithromycin) 1 mg p.o. b.i.d. for 2 weeks.
3) _______
4) Which of the following clients should be treated with ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM and doxycycline (Vibramycin) orally? A) A nonpregnant client with Chlamydia and trichomoniasis B) A pregnant client with syphilis C) A pregnant client with gonorrhea and yeast infection D) A nonpregnant client with gonorrhea and Chlamydia
4) _______
5) In teaching women about ways of preventing toxic shock syndrome (TSS), it is important for the nurse to know that women at increased risk include those who: A) Use an IUD. B) Use high-absorbency tampons. C) Use oral contraception. D) Have multiple sexual partners.
5) _______
6) The couple demonstrates understanding of the consequences of not treating Chlamydia when they state: A) "She could have severe vaginal itching." B) "She could become pregnant." C) "He could get an infection in the tube that carries the urine out." D) "It could cause us to develop a rash."
6) _______
7) The client gives correct information regarding ways to prevent a recurrence of her urinary tract infection when she states: A) "I should urinate when I feel the urge." B) "I should wipe from back to front after urination." C) "I should try to restrict my intake of fruits." D) "I should use a diaphragm."
7) _______
8) A nurse is taking care of a client after an abdominal hysterectomy. A priority nursing diagnosis in the early postoperative period would be: A) Constipation. B) Acute pain. C) Powerlessness. D) Hyperthermia.
8) _______
9) A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for right-sided flank pain. The nurse explains to the client
that this
type of 9) pain is a common symptom of pyelonep hritis in the pregnant client because of:
__ __ __ _
A) Nausea and vomiting. B) The position of the uterus in the abdomen. C) A colicky large intestine. D) Temporary suspension of urine output. 10) The nurse obtains a health history from the following clients. To which one should she give priority for teaching about cervical cancer prevention? A) Age 27, uses a diaphragm. B) Age 30, treated for PID C) Age 20, pregnant D) Age 25, monogamous
10) ______
11) The client being given discharge instructions with a diagnosis of vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC) demonstrates understanding when she states: A) "I need to douche daily." B) "I need to wear nylon panties." C) "I need to apply the miconazole (Monistat) for 10 days." D) "I need to add yogurt to my diet."
11) ______
12) The nurse interviews a 28-year-old client with a new medical diagnosis of endometriosis. Which of the following questions are most appropriate? Select all that apply. A) "Are you having pain during your period?" B) "Are you having hot flashes?" C) "Are you experiencing pain during intercourse?" D) "Have you noticed any skin rashes?" E) "Is a discharge present?" F) "Do you have any children?"
12) ______
13) The nurse walks in to find the client crying after the physician informed her of her diagnosis of human papillomavirus (HPV). Which of the following statements by the nurse conveys an attitude of acceptance toward the client with a sexually transmitted infection? A) "Don't worry about it. In a few weeks, with treatment, the lesions will disappear." B) "You seem upset. I'll get the doctor." C) "I think you need to see a therapist." D) "You seem upset. Can I help answer any questions?"
13) ______
14) Which of the following statements by the client verifies correct knowledge about vaginal herpes? A) "I could have another breakout during my period." B) "I should use sodium bicarbonate on the lesions to relieve discomfort." C) "I am more likely to develop cancer of the cervix." D) "I should douche daily to prevent infection."
14) ______
15) A client is hospitalized for pelvic inflammatory disease. Which of the following nursing interventions would have priority? A) Administer cefotetan IV. B) Remove IUD, if present. C) Encourage oral fluids. D) Enforce bedrest.
15) ______
1) B 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) A, C, F 13) D 14) A 15) A