Test Bank for BUSINESS DRIVEN INFORMATION SYSTEMS 8th Edition by Paige Baltzan and Amy Phillips. ISB by welldoneassistant

APPENDIX A 1)

Describe the six major categories of hardware and provide an example of each.

Identify the different computer categories and explain their potential business uses.

Explain the difference between primary and secondary storage.

List the common input, output, storage, and communication devices.

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Describe the eight categories of computers by size.

Define the relationship between operating system software and utility software.

What is software?

A) any computer-based tool that people use to work with information and support the information and information-processing needs of an organization B) the set of instructions that the hardware executes to carry out specific tasks C) consists of the physical devices associated with a computer system D) an electronic device operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory that can accept, manipulate, and store data

What is hardware?

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What is a CPU?

A) the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together B) the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and the read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the central processing unit (CPU) C) equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage D) equipment used to capture information and commands

10)

What is the arithmetic-logic unit?

A) the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together B) interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions C) a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly D) performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations (such as sorting and comparing numbers)

11)

What is a complex instruction set computer chip?

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12)

Which of the following represents megahertz?

A) the number of millions of CPU cycles per second B) the number of billions of CPU cycles per second C) a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly D) limit the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed

13)

What is the number of bits (0s and 1s) that can be processed by the CPU at any one time? A) clock speed B) word length C) bus width D) chip line width

14) What is the size of the internal electrical pathway along which signals are sent from one part of the computer to another?

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A) clock speed B) word length C) bus width D) chip line width

15)

What is roughly 1 million bytes? A) megabyte B) terabyte C) kilobyte D) gigabyte

16) What is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium? A) magnetic medium B) magnetic tape C) hard drive D) RAM

17) What is a form of a stationary mouse on which the movement of a finger causes the pointer on the screen to move? A) microphone B) touch pad C) pointing stick D) touch screen

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18) What detects the presence or absence of a mark in a predetermined place (popular for multiple-choice exams)? A) magnetic ink character reader B) optical-character recognition C) optical-mark recognition D) point-of-sale

19) What is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together? A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage

20) What interprets software instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions? A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage

21) What performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations?

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A) CPU B) control unit C) ALU D) primary storage

22)

What is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

23)

What is the number of billions of CPU cycles per second? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

24) What is a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

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25) What limits the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed? A) megahertz B) gigahertz C) CISC D) RISC

26) What is the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU? A) CPU B) control unit C) secondary storage D) primary storage

27) What is the computer’s primary working memory, in which program instructions and data are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the CPU via the processor’s high-speed external data bus? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

28)

What refers to a device’s ability to function with or without power?

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A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

29) What is a small unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently accessed or frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this data from slower memory circuits such as RAM? A) RAM B) cache memory C) volatility D) flash memory

30) What is the portion of a computer’s primary storage that does not lose its contents when one switches off the power? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

31) What is a special type of rewritable read-only memory (ROM) that is compact and portable? A) RAM B) ROM C) volatility D) flash memory

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32) What contains high-capacity storage that holds data such as captured images, music, or text files? A) RAM B) memory stick C) memory card D) flash memory

33) What provides nonvolatile memory for a range of portable devices including computers, digital cameras, MP3 players, and PDAs? A) RAM B) memory stick C) memory card D) flash memory

34) What consists of equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage? A) primary storage B) secondary storage C) memory stick D) flash memory

35) What is a secondary storage medium that uses magnetic techniques to store and retrieve data on disks or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials?

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A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

36) What is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

37)

What is equipment used to capture information and commands? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

38) What is an input device designed for special applications for use by people with different types of special needs? A) input device B) output device C) adaptive computer devices D) magnetic medium devices

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39) What is equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of informationprocessing requests? A) input device B) output device C) magnetic tape D) magnetic medium

40) What is similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and graphics processing capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time? A) tablet B) PDA C) workstation D) minicomputer

41) What is a computer dedicated to a single function, such as a calculator or computer game? A) tablet B) PDA C) appliance D) minicomputer

42) What is an electronic book that can be read on a computer or special reading device. Some are small enough to carry around, while others are the size of a telephone booth?

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A) tablet B) eBook C) appliance D) minicomputer

43) What is a cellular telephone with a keypad that runs programs, music, photos, email, and includes many features of a PDA? A) tablet B) PDA C) eBook D) smartphone

44) What is a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar? A) tablet B) PDA C) eBook D) smartphone

45) What is a computer portable enough to fit on a lap or in a bag and has its own power source or battery? A) tablet B) PDA C) laptop computer D) desktop computer

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46) What is a computer that has a flat screen that uses a mouse or fingertip for input instead of a keyboard? A) tablet B) PDA C) laptop computer D) desktop computer

47) What is a computer that sits on, next to, or under a user’s desk and is too large to carry around? A) tablet B) desktop computer C) workstation D) minicomputer

48) What is a computer designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment? A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer

49) What is a computer designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a large business environment?

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A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer

50)

What computer is the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer? A) supercomputer B) mainframe computer C) workstation computer D) minicomputer

51) What software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

52) What software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

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53) What system is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications, such as an automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

54)

What allows more than one piece of software to be used at a time? A) system software B) operating system software C) embedded operating system D) multitasking

55)

What provides additional functionality to the operating system? A) system software B) operating system software C) utility software D) multitasking

56) What occurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential parts of the operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities?

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A) system restore software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

57)

What enables a user to return to the previous operating system? A) system restore software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

58)

What software helps save information if a computer crashes? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

59) What is software for data recovery and relieves the burden of reinstalling applications if a hard drive crashes or becomes irretrievably corrupted? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

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60)

What software organizes information on a hard disk in the most efficient way? A) disk optimization software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

61) What uses programs such as Window Washer which erases file histories, browser cookies, cache contents, and other crumbs that applications and Windows leave on a hard drive? A) preventative security software B) safe mode software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

62) What removes any software that employs a user’s Internet connection in the background without the user’s knowledge or explicit permission? A) preventative security software B) spyware software C) crash-proof software D) disk image software

63)

What software can remove software that is no longer needed? A) preventative security software B) spyware software C) crash-proof software D) uninstaller software

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64)

What software handles contact information, appointments, task lists, and email? A) preventative security software B) personal information management software C) crash-proof software D) course management software

65) What software contains course information such as a syllabus and assignments and offers drop boxes for quizzes and homework along with a grade book? A) preventative security software B) personal information management software C) crash-proof software D) course management software

66) What occur when the software vendor releases updates to software to fix problems or enhance features? A) software updates B) software upgrades C) crash-proof software D) course management software

67) What occurs when the software vendor releases a new version of the software making significant changes to the program?

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A) software updates B) software upgrades C) crash-proof software D) course management software

68)

Which license restricts the use of the software to one user at a time? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license

69)

Which license enables anyone on the network to install and use the software? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license

70) Which license enables any qualified users within the organization to install the software, regardless if the computer is on a network? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provide license

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71) Which licenses specialty software paid for on a license basis or per-use basis or usagebased licensing? A) single user license B) network user license C) site license D) application service provider license

72)

What enables users to navigate the World Wide Web? A) a browser B) a network user license C) groupware D) PIM software

73)

What is system software?

A) controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software B) controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together C) provides additional functionality to the operating system D) used for specific information-processing needs, including payroll, customer relationship management, project management, training, and many others

74)

What is application software?

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75) Volatility is a protected memory space created by the CPU allowing the computer to create virtual machines. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Complex instruction set computer chips limits the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) A computer is an electronic device operating under the control of instructions stored in its own memory that can accept, manipulate, and store data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The central processing unit (CPU) (or microprocessor) is the actual hardware that interprets and executes the program (software) instructions and coordinates how all the other hardware devices work together. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

79) The arithmetic-logic unit includes instructions and literally tells the other hardware devices what to do, based on the software instructions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) The control unit performs all arithmetic operations (for example, addition and subtraction) and all logic operations. ⊚ ⊚

81)

Gigahertz is the number of millions of CPU cycles per second. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Megahertz is the number of billions of CPU cycles per second. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Complex instruction set computer (CISC) chips, which is a type of CPU that can recognize as many as 100 or more instructions, enough to carry out most computations directly. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

84) Complex instruction set computer chips limit the number of instructions the CPU can execute to increase processing speed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Primary storage is the computer’s main memory, which consists of the random access memory (RAM), cache memory, and read-only memory (ROM) that is directly accessible to the CPU. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Random access memory (RAM) is the computer’s primary working memory, in which program instructions and data are stored so that they can be accessed directly by the CPU via the processor’s high-speed external data bus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Volatility refers to a device’s ability to function with or without power. RAM is volatile, meaning it must have constant power to function; its contents are lost when the computer’s electric supply fails. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Cache memory is a small unit of ultra-fast memory that is used to store recently accessed or frequently accessed data so that the CPU does not have to retrieve this data from slower memory circuits such as RAM. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

89) Random access memory is the portion of a computer’s primary storage that does not lose its contents when one switches off the power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) ROM is nonvolatile, meaning it does not require constant power to function. ROM contains essential system programs that neither the user nor the computer can erase. Since the computer’s internal memory is blank during start-up, the computer cannot perform any functions unless given start-up instructions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Flash memory is a special type of rewritable read-only memory (ROM) that is compact and portable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Memory cards contain high-capacity storage that holds data such as captured images, music, or text files. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Memory sticks provide nonvolatile memory for a range of portable devices including computers, digital cameras, MP3 players, and PDAs. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 25

94) Secondary storage consists of equipment designed to store large volumes of data for long-term storage. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

A megabyte (MB or M or Meg) is roughly 1 million bytes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Magnetic medium is a secondary storage medium that uses magnetic techniques to store and retrieve data on disks or tapes coated with magnetically sensitive materials. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Memory stick is an older secondary storage medium that uses a strip of thin plastic coated with a magnetically sensitive recording medium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) A hard drive is a secondary storage medium that uses several rigid disks coated with a magnetically sensitive material and housed together with the recording heads in a hermetically sealed mechanism. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

99)

An input device is equipment used to capture information and commands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Adaptive computer devices are input devices designed for special applications for use by people with different types of special needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) An input device is equipment used to see, hear, or otherwise accept the results of information-processing requests. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) A tablet is a pen-based computer that provides the screen capabilities of a PDA with the functional capabilities of a laptop or desktop computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) An appliance is a computer dedicated to a single function, such as a calculator or computer game. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

104) A desktop computer is an electronic book that can be read on a computer or special reading device. Some are small enough to carry around, while others are the size of a telephone booth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) A workstation is a cellular telephone with a keypad that runs programs, music, photos, email, and includes many features of a PDA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Personal digital assistant (PDA) is a small handheld computer that performs simple tasks such as taking notes, scheduling appointments, and maintaining an address book and a calendar. The PDA screen is touch-sensitive, allowing a user to write directly on the screen, capturing what is written. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) A handheld computer portable enough to fit in a purse or pocket and has its own power source or battery. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) A desktop computer portable enough to fit on a lap or in a bag and has its own power source or battery. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

109) A tablet computer has a flat screen that uses a mouse or fingertip for input instead of a keyboard. Similar to PDAs, tablet PCs use a writing pen or stylus to write notes on the screen and touch the screen to perform functions such as clicking on a link while visiting a website. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) A personal computer is a computer that is operated by a single user who can customize the functions to match personal preferences. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) A desktop computer sits on, next to, or under a user’s desk and is too large to carry around. The computer box is where the CPU, RAM, and storage devices are held with a monitor on top, or a vertical system box (called a tower) usually placed on the floor within a work area. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) A workstation computer is similar to a desktop but has more powerful mathematical and graphics processing capabilities and can perform more complicated tasks in less time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) A minicomputer is designed to meet the computing needs of several people simultaneously in a small to medium-size business environment. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 29

114) A common type of minicomputer is a server and is used for managing internal company applications, networks, and websites. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) A mainframe computer is designed to meet the computing needs of hundreds of people in a large business environment. Mainframe computers are a step up in size, power, capability, and cost from minicomputers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) A supercomputer is the fastest, most powerful, and most expensive type of computer. Organizations such as NASA that are heavily involved in research and number crunching employ supercomputers because of the speed with which they can process information. Other large, customer-oriented businesses such as General Motors and AT&T employ supercomputers just to handle customer information and transaction processing. ⊚ ⊚

117)

Utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. ⊚ ⊚

118)

true false

Disk optimization software helps save information if a computer crashes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

119) System software controls how the various technology tools work together along with the application software. System software includes both operating system software and utility software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Operating system software controls the application software and manages how the hardware devices work together. When using Excel to create and print a graph, the operating system software controls the process, ensures that a printer is attached and has paper, and sends the graph to the printer along with instructions on how to print it. Some computers are configured with two operating systems so they can dual boot— provide the user with the option of choosing the operating system when the computer is turned on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Application software is used in computer appliances and special-purpose applications, such as an automobile, ATM, or media player and are used for a single purpose. ⊚ ⊚

122)

true false

An iPod has a single-purpose embedded operating system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Application software also supports a variety of useful features, one of which is multitasking.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

124) Multitasking allows more than one piece of software to be used at a time. Multitasking is used when creating a graph in Excel and simultaneously printing a word processing document. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Utility software provides additional functionality to the operating system. Utility software includes antivirus software, screen savers, and antispam software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Utility systems are customized by using the control panel, which is a Windows feature that provides options that set default values for the Windows operating system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) Safe mode occurs if the system is failing and will load only the most essential parts of the operating system and will not run many of the background operating utilities. ⊚ ⊚

128)

true false

System restore enables a user to return to the previous operating system. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

129)

Crash-proof software helps save information if a computer crashes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) Disk image is software for data recovery and relieves the burden of reinstalling applications if a hard drive crashes or becomes irretrievably corrupted. ⊚ ⊚

131)

A disk image organizes information on a hard disk in the most efficient way. ⊚ ⊚

132)

true false

Encrypt data protects confidential information from unauthorized eyes. ⊚ ⊚

133)

true false

File and data recovery software retrieves accidental deletion of photos or documents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

134) Preventative security software uses programs such as Window Washer, erases file histories, browser cookies, cache contents, and other crumbs that applications and Windows leave on a hard drive. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

135) Spyware removes any software that employs a user’s Internet connection in the background without the user’s knowledge or explicit permission. ⊚ ⊚

136)

true false

Spyware can remove software that is no longer needed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

137) Personal information management (PIM) software handles contact information, appointments, task lists, and email. ⊚ ⊚

true false

138) Personal information management software contains course information such as a syllabus and assignments and offers drop boxes for quizzes and homework along with a grade book. ⊚ ⊚

true false

139) Course management software occurs when the software vendor releases updates to software to fix problems or enhance features. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 34

140) Software upgrade occurs when the software vendor releases a new version of the software making significant changes to the program. ⊚ ⊚

141)

A single user license restricts the use of the software to one user at a time. ⊚ ⊚

142)

true false

A network user license enables anyone on the network to install and use the software. ⊚ ⊚

true false

143) A site license enables any qualified users within the organization to install the software, regardless if the computer is on a network. Some employees might install the software on a home computer for working remotely. ⊚ ⊚

true false

144) Application service provider licenses specialty software paid for on a license basis or peruse basis or usage-based licensing. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

145) Communication turns a computer into a terminal for transmitting data to and receiving data from distant computers through the telephone system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

146) Desktop publishing transforms a computer into a desktop publishing workstation. Leading packages include Adobe FrameMaker, Adobe PageMaker, and QuarkXpress. ⊚ ⊚

true false

147) Email provides email services for computer users, including receiving mail, sending mail, and storing messages. Leading email software includes Microsoft Outlook, Microsoft Outlook Express, and Eudora. ⊚ ⊚

true false

148) Desktop publishing increases the cooperation and joint productivity of small groups of co-workers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

149) Presentation graphics create and enhance charts and graphs so that they are visually appealing and easily understood by an audience. A full-features presentation graphics package such as Lotus Freelance. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

150) Graphics or Microsoft PowerPoint includes facilities for making a wide variety of charts and graphs and for adding titles, legends, and explanatory text anywhere in the chart or graph. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix A_8e 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) C Version 1

33) B 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) B 57) A 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) B Version 1

63) D 64) B 65) D 66) A 67) B 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) D 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE Version 1

93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) FALSE 122) TRUE Version 1

123) FALSE 124) TRUE 125) TRUE 126) FALSE 127) TRUE 128) TRUE 129) TRUE 130) TRUE 131) FALSE 132) TRUE 133) TRUE 134) TRUE 135) TRUE 136) FALSE 137) TRUE 138) FALSE 139) FALSE 140) TRUE 141) TRUE 142) TRUE 143) TRUE 144) TRUE 145) TRUE 146) TRUE 147) TRUE 148) FALSE 149) TRUE 150) TRUE

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APPENDIX B 1)

Compare LANs, WANs, and MANs.

List and describe the four components that differentiate networks.

Compare the two types of network architectures.

Explain topology and the different types found in networks.

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Describe TCP/IP along with its primary purpose.

Identify the different media types found in networks

What is a telecommunications system?

A) enables the transmission of data over public or private networks B) a communications, data exchange, and resource-sharing system created by linking two or more computers and establishing standards, or protocols, so that they can work together C) any network without a central file server and in which all computers in the network have access to the public files located on all other workstations D) a computer that is designed to request information from a server

Which of the following is not one of the differentiating factors of a network? A) architecture B) topology C) protocols D) telecommunication system

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What is a network?

10) What is designed to connect a group of computers in close proximity to each other such as in an office building, a school, or a home? A) local area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network

11)

What spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province, or country? A) local area network B) wide area network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network

12)

What is a large computer network usually spanning a city?

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A) client/server network B) corporate network C) metropolitan area network D) peer-to-peer network

13)

What is a peer-to-peer network?

14)

What is a client?

15) What runs a network, steering information between computers and managing security and users?

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A) client B) server C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system

16)

What is a computer that is designed to request information from a server? A) client B) packet-switching C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system

17) What occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer? A) client B) packet-switching C) peer-to-peer network D) network operating system

18)

What is a router?

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A) occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently sized units called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer B) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination C) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network D) a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the front-end processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients

19)

What is a client/server network?

20)

What is packet-switching?

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21)

What is interoperability?

A) an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination B) refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers and other network devices) in a network C) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission D) the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers

22)

What is network topology?

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23)

Which of the following is not a network topology? A) bus B) ring C) ethernet D) star

24)

Which of the following represents the bus topology?

A) All devices are connected to a central cable or backbone. B) All devices are connected to a central device, called a hub. C) All devices are connected to one another in the shape of a closed loop, so that each device is connected directly to two other devices, one on either side of it. D) Groups of star-configured workstations are connected to a linear bus backbone cable.

25)

Which of the following represents the ring topology?

26)

What is a protocol?

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27) What allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

28)

What allows the management of networked nodes to be managed from a single point? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

29)

What is TCP/IP’s own messaging system for email?

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A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

30)

What allows web browsers and servers to send and receive web pages? A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) D) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

31) What refers to a type of cable composed of four (or more) copper wires twisted around each other within a plastic sheath? A) twisted-pair cable B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

32)

Which of the following represents the TCP/IP four-layer reference model? A) Application, Internet, Transport, Network Interfaces B) Application, Internet, Network Interfaces, Transport C) Application, Transport, Internet, Network Interfaces D) Application, Network Interfaces, Internet, Transport

33)

How many layers does the OSI model contain?

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A) four B) seven C) ten D) eleven

34)

Which of the following is not a commonly used type of guided media? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

35)

What refers to the various types of media used to carry the signal between computers? A) twisted-pair wiring B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

36) What is transmission material manufactured so that signals will be confined to a narrow path and will behave predictably? A) wire media B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

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37) What refers to a type of cable composed of four copper wires twisted around each other within a plastic sheath? A) twisted-pair wiring B) network transmission media C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

38)

What is cable that can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal loss? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

39) What refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light impulses along a glass wire or fiber? A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

40) What refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light impulses along a glass wire or fiber?

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A) twisted-pair wiring B) coaxial cable C) fiber-optic cable D) wireless media

41) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) Telecommunication systems enable the transmission of data over public or private networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) A network is a communications system created by linking two or more devices and establishing a standard methodology by which they can communicate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area, such as a state, province, or country. WANs often connect multiple smaller networks, such as local area networks or metropolitan area networks. The world’s most popular WAN is the Internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

45) A MAN is a set of communication rules to make sure that everyone speaks the same language. ⊚ ⊚

true false

46) A WAN is a card that plugs into the back (or side) of your computers and lets them send and receive messages from other computers. ⊚ ⊚

47)

Cable is the medium to connect all of the computers. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

Topology includes peer-to-peer networks and client/server networks. ⊚ ⊚

50)

true false

A hub (switch or router) is the hardware to perform traffic control. ⊚ ⊚

49)

true false

Protocols includes bus, star, ring, hybrid, and wireless.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

51) Architecture includes Ethernet and Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

Media includes coaxial, twisted-pair, and fiber-optic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) A peer-to-peer (P2P) network is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) A server is a computer designed to request information from a server. A server is a computer dedicated to providing information in response to requests. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) A peer-to-peer network is a model for applications in which the bulk of the back-end processing, such as performing a physical search of a database, takes place on a server, while the front-end processing, which involves communicating with the users, is handled by the clients. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 15

56) A network operating system (NOS) is the operating system that runs a network, steering information between computers and managing security and users. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Packet-switching occurs when the sending computer divides a message into a number of efficiently sized units of data called packets, each of which contains the address of the destination computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) A router is an intelligent connecting device that examines each packet of data it receives and then decides which way to send it onward toward its destination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) A network topology refers to the geometric arrangement of the actual physical organization of the computers (and other network devices) in a network. Topologies vary depending on cost and functionality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) A protocol is a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

61) A protocol is the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

A WAN is a physical and data layer technology for LAN networking. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) The application layer serves as the window for users and application processes to access network services. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

The application layer handles end-to-end packet transportation. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

66) The transport layer formats the data into packets, adds a header containing the packet sequence and the address of the receiving device, and specifies the services required from the network. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

The network interface layer places data packets on the network for transmission. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows files containing text, programs, graphics, numerical data, and so on to be downloaded off or uploaded onto a network. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is TCP/IP’s own messaging system for email. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) FTP provides terminal emulation that allows a personal computer or workstation to act as a terminal, or access device, for a server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) allows web browsers and servers to send and receive web pages.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) allows networked nodes to be managed from a single point. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Network transmission media refers to the various types of media used to carry the signal between computers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Wireless media are transmission material manufactured so that signals will be confined to a narrow path and will behave predictably. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Coaxial cable refers to a type of cable composed of four (or more) copper wires twisted around each other within a plastic sheath. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Twisted-pair cable can carry a wide range of frequencies with low signal loss. It consists of a metallic shield with a single wire placed along the center of a shield and isolated from the shield by an insulator.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Fiber-optic (or optical fiber) refers to the technology associated with the transmission of information as light impulses along a glass wire or fiber. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix B_8e 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C Version 1

33) B 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE Version 1

63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE

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APPENDIX C 1) What is a technique for documenting the entities and relationships in a database environment? A) entity-relationship diagram B) data model C) database D) relational database model

Which of the following is a type of attribute? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct.

What has only a single value of each attribute of an entity? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct.

What has the potential to contain more than one value for an attribute?

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A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) null-valued attribute D) All of the answers are correct.

What kind of attribute can be calculated using the value of another attribute? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute

6) What kind of attribute is assigned to an attribute when no other value applies or when a value is unknown? A) single-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) null-valued attribute

What kind of attribute would be date of birth? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute

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What kind of attribute would be age? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) derived attribute D) stored attribute

What kind of attribute would be given for a person who does not have an email address? A) null-valued attribute B) multi-valued attribute C) single-valued attribute D) stored attribute

10)

What is a statement that defines an aspect of a business? A) attribute B) entity C) business relational diagram D) business rule

11)

Which of the following is a possible business rule? A) A customer can purchase many DVDs. B) DVDs can be purchased by many customers. C) A DVD title can have many copies. D) All of the answers are correct.

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12)

Which of the following statements is accurate?

A) A correct business rule for one organization may not be correct for another organization. B) Each business rule will have entities and sometimes even attributes. C) A typical business may have hundreds of business rules. D) All of the answers are correct.

13) What occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to only one instance of a related entity? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

14)

What occurs when two entities can be related to each other in many instances? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

15) What occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to many instances of a related entity?

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A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

16)

What exists to represent the relationship between two other entities? A) one-to-one relationship B) one-to-many relationship C) many-to-many relationship D) composite entity

17)

What expresses the specific number of instances in an entity? A) cardinality B) composite entity C) business rule D) null-valued attribute

18)

What is a characteristic of a table? A) field B) table C) record D) key

19)

What is composed of rows and columns that represent an entity?

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A) field B) table C) record D) key

20)

What is a collection of related data elements? A) field B) table C) record D) key

21)

What is a primary key?

A) a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table B) a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables C) a table that uniquely identifies a given record in a field D) a foreign key of one table that appears as an entity in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two records

22)

What is a foreign key?

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23)

A primary key is a field that uniquely identifies a given record in a table. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) A foreign key is a primary key of one table that appears as an attribute in another table and acts to provide a logical relationship between the two tables. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

A field is composed of rows and columns that represent an entity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

26) A one-to-many relationship occurs between two entities in which an instance of one entity can be related to only one instance of a related entity. ⊚ ⊚

27)

true false

Date of birth would be a stored attribute. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix C_8e 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE Version 1

27) TRUE

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APPENDIX D 1) Organizations anticipate, forecast, and assess future events using a variety of rational, scientific methods including A) trend analysis. B) trend monitoring. C) trend projection. D) All of the answers are correct.

What is trend analysis?

A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Complex systems can be modeled by means of mathematical equations and different scenarios can be run against the model to determine “what if” analysis.

What is trend monitoring?

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What is trend projection?

What is historical analysis?

A) When numerical data are available, a trend can be plotted to display changes through time and into the future. B) A trend is examined to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. C) Trends viewed as particularly important in a specific community, industry, or sector are carefully monitored, watched, and reported to key decision makers. D) Historical events are studied to anticipate the outcome of current developments.

6) All of the following are scientific methods organizations use to anticipate, forecast, and assess the future except A) computer simulation. B) historical analysis. C) trend analysis. D) trend simulation.

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Which of the following is not one of the top reasons organizations should study trends? A) generate current revenue B) gain confidence C) generate ideas D) beat the competition

8) All of the following are countries expected to have the largest increases in population between 2000 and 2050 except A) Palestinian Territory. B) India. C) Democratic Republic of the Congo. D) Yemen.

9) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from the world’s population doubling in the next 40 years? A) Developed nations will begin to increase immigration limits. B) Developed nations will find that retirees will have to remain on the job to remain competitive. C) Global agriculture will be required to supply as much food as has been produced during all of human history. D) The time to get products and services to market is being shortened by technology.

10) On average, how many years longer does each generation live than the previous in the United States?

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A) one B) two C) three D) four

11)

What are the life expectancies for men and women in many developed countries? A) over 65 years for males and over 75 years for females B) over 80 years for males and over 75 years for females C) over 75 years for males and over 80 years for females D) over 75 years for males and over 75 years for females

12) Which of the following is not a potential business impact from people in developed countries living longer? A) global demand for elderly products will grow B) global demand for elderly services will grow C) the cost of health care will decrease D) pharmaceutical companies will be pushed for advances in geriatric medicine

13)

What kind of society is being created by the growth in information industries? A) knowledge-independent global society B) knowledge-dependent global society C) knowledge-independent local society D) knowledge-dependent local society

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14) Which of the following is not a potential business impact created by the growth in information industries? A) top managers must be computer-literate B) knowledge workers are generally higher paid C) entry-level positions will require less education D) downsizing will continue

15)

Why is the global economy becoming more integrated? A) relaxed borders in the European Union B) the Internet C) international outsourcing D) All of the answers are correct.

16)

Which of the following is one of the primary reasons for the increase in Internet use? A) reorganization B) connectivity technology C) organizational restructuring D) All of the answers are correct.

17)

All of the following jobs will be increasingly performed by robots except A) mundane commercial and service jobs. B) environmentally dangerous jobs. C) the repair of inaccessible equipment such as space stations. D) jobs performed by scientists, engineers, and technicians.

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18) What does 50 percent of what a student learns about innovative technology in their freshman year of college become by their senior year? A) obsolete B) revised C) taken for granted D) All of the answers are correct.

19)

What percentage will all of today’s technical knowledge represent in 2050? A) one B) ten C) twenty D) fifty

20)

How long does a product’s entire life cycle last today? A) 4 weeks B) 40 weeks C) 4 months D) 4 years

21) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Companies must take an active role in helping their employees balance their time at work with their family lives and need for leisure.

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A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

22) Which trend has the following potential business impact? The time to get products and services to market is being shortened by technology. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

23) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Demand for personnel in distant countries will increase the need for foreign language training, employee incentives suited to other cultures, and many other aspects of performing business globally. A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The economy and society are dominated by technology. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

24) Which trend has the following potential business impact? Top managers must be computer-literate to retain their jobs and achieve success.

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A) The global economy is becoming more integrated. B) The pace of technological innovation is increasing. C) The growth in information industries is creating a knowledge-dependent global society. D) Time is becoming one of the world’s most precious commodities.

25) What is a type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and also to learn? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

26) What is software that carries out some set of operations on behalf of a user or another program with some degree of independence or autonomy and employs some knowledge or representation of the user’s goals or desires? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

27) What is the network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple perimeters and moving parts on the network, and increasingly advanced threats targeting enterprises?

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A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

28) What is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human body’s autonomic nervous system? A) autonomic computing B) real-time adaptive security C) autonomous agent D) machine learning

29) What is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

30) What includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

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31) What is a world where interconnected Internet-enabled devices or “things” have the ability to collect and share data without human intervention? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

32) What is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes? A) ambient digital experience B) biological 3D Printing C) Internet of Things (IoT) D) Information of Everything (IoE)

33) Trend analysis is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) Trend projection is the examination of a trend to identify its nature, causes, speed of development, and potential impacts. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

35)

The world’s population will double in the next 20 years. ⊚ ⊚

36)

true false

People in undeveloped countries are living longer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

37) The ambient digital experience is a blend of the physical, virtual, and electronic environments creating a real-time ambient environment that changes as the user moves from one place to another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) Biological 3D printing includes the printing of skin and organs and is progressing from theory to reality; however, politicians and the public do not have a full understanding of the implications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

39) The Information of Everything (IoE) is a concept that extends the Internet of Things emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

40) The Internet of Things (IoT) is a concept with emphasis on machine-to-machine communications to describe a more complex system that also encompasses people and processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

41) Real-time adaptive computing is a self-managing computing model named after, and patterned on, the human body’s autonomic nervous system. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix D_8e 1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE

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APPENDIX E 1)

Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) LAN, WAN, SAN B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) LAN, SAN, XAN D) LAN, WAN, XAN

Which of the following includes the three primary network access technologies? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

Which of the following includes the three primary network providers? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) ISP, NSP, RSP

Which of the following includes the three forms of primary network convergence? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

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Which of the following are the three primary network categories? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

Which of the following includes the three primary network protocols? A) DSL, cable modem, broadband B) LAN, WAN, MAN C) VoIP, UC, IPTV D) TCP/IP, FTP, DHCP

7) What is a large computer network usually spanning a city or a specific infrastructure like a college? A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN)

8) What spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country, similar to the Internet?

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A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN)

9) What connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in a school or office setting? A) Metropolitan area network (MAN) B) Local area network (LAN) C) Wide area network (WAN) D) Secure area network (SAN)

10)

What are the five elements that are needed to create a connected world or a network? A) categories, programs, alternatives, people, and core philosophy B) program, providers, access, mechanics, and teachers C) categories, providers, access technologies, protocols, and convergence D) LAN, WAN, MAN, PAN, and SAN

11) LANs, WANs, and MANs all provide users with an accessible and reliable network infrastructure. Which of the below are the most important network differentiating dimensions? A) reliability and timing B) confidentiality and performance C) security and cost D) cost and performance

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12) What is the largest and most important network that has evolved into a global information superhighway? A) Internet B) Intranet C) Extranet D) LAN

13)

Which of the below offers a common example of a LAN? A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) All of the answers are correct.

14)

Which of the below offers an example of a WAN? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the City of Denver’s Court and Police Departments D) All of the answers are correct,

15)

Which of the below offers a common example of a WAN?

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A) college campus B) home office C) city library D) the Internet

16)

Which of the below offers an example of a LAN? A) the Internet B) Microsoft’s main campus in Washington C) the City of Denver’s Court and Police Departments D) college campus

17)

Which of the below is a WAN? A) home office B) business office C) college dorm room D) the Internet

18) The Internet is a hierarchical structure linking different levels of service providers whose millions of devices supply all the interconnections. The three levels outlined in the book from the top down include A) new system provider (NSP), current system provider (CSP), and order entry system provider (OSP). B) national service provider (NSP), regional service provider (RSP), and Internet service provider (ISP). C) net server point (NSP), radio server point (RSP), and Internet server point (ISP). D) All of the answers are correct.

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19) What measures network performance by the maximum amount of data that can pass from one point to another in a unit of time? A) bandwidth B) frequency C) access D) protocol

20)

The speed of transmission of a network is determined by the speed of its smallest A) unit of time. B) number of computers. C) amount of bandwidth. D) number of customers.

21)

What is a device that enables a computer to transmit and receive data? A) broadband B) modem C) bandwidth D) ISP

22) Which of the following terms refers to the smallest element of data and has a value of either 0 or 1?

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A) bit B) bandwidth C) modem D) Internet Protocol

23)

What measures bandwidth in terms of numbers transferred or received per unit of time? A) connection time B) broadband C) protocol D) bit rate

24) What is a high-speed Internet connection that is always connected and has a bandwidth greater than 2 Mbps? A) analog B) dial-up C) broadband D) protocol

25)

What are the two most prevalent types of broadband access? A) data subscriber and cable connection B) digital subscriber line and cable connection C) digital line and client line D) digital server and client server

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26) Which of the following allows high-speed digital data transmission over standard telephone lines? A) digital subscriber line (DSL) B) data subscription service (DSS) C) dominance service line (DSL) D) data converter input (DCI)

27) Which of the following provides Internet access using a cable television company’s infrastructure and a special cable modem? A) ISP cable box B) Internet cable connection C) Satellite cable box D) Satellite cable connection

28)

Which of the below allows a user to access the Internet? A) dial-up connection B) cable C) T1 line D) All of the answers are correct.

29) Which of the following is a type of data connection able to transmit a digital signal at 1.544 Mpbs and is more expensive and reliable than cable or DSL?

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A) T1 line B) dial-up line C) modem line D) All of the answers are correct.

30) What is the standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission? A) bandwidth B) bit rate C) protocol D) transmission record

31) What is the standard Internet protocol, which provides the technical foundation for the public Internet? A) data streaming and DSL protocols B) transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) C) data streaming rules and regulations D) Internet protocol/transmission control protocol (IP/TCP)

32)

How do TCP and IP differ?

A) TCP verifies the correct delivery of data in case it is corrupted, where IP verifies the data are sent to the correct IP address. B) TCP verifies the information is reliable, and IP verifies that the data is sent. C) IP verifies the correct delivery of data in case it is corrupted, where TCP verifies the data are sent to the correct IP address. D) IP verifies connectivity, and TCP verifies the rate at which the data is sent.

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33) What is the conversion of IP addresses that identifies labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions? A) domain grades B) URL spaces C) domain national sequences (DNS) D) domain name system (DNS)

34)

Which domain is reserved for U.S. government agencies? A) .info B) .USA C) .gov D) .US

35) Which domain is the most common and reserved for commercial organizations and businesses? A) .net B) .com C) .biz D) .org

36)

Which domain is reserved for accredited postsecondary institutions?

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A) .mil B) .edu C) .biz D) .org

37)

Which domain is reserved for the U.S. military? A) .mil B) .gov C) .org D) .age

38) What is the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures? A) network protocol B) networking category C) network convergence D) network communication

39)

What is a benefit of network convergence? A) the weaving together of voice, data, and video B) multiple services offered from a single vendor C) multiple devices supported by one provider D) All of the answers are correct.

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40)

What is a benefit of network convergence? A) the uncoupling of voice, data, and video service B) multiple services offered from several different vendors C) multiple devices supported by one provider D) All of the answers are correct.

41)

What is the integration of communication channels into a single service? A) instant communication B) unified communication C) peer-to-peer communication D) voice over communication

42)

What is VoIP? A) VoIP uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. B) VoIP offers the low cost ability to receive personal and business calls via computer. C) VoIP offers the ability to have more than one phone number. D) VoIP offers all of these.

43) What is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server? A) peer-to-peer (P2P) B) Voice over IP (VoIP) C) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV) D) All of the answers are correct.

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44)

Which of the below is an example of P2P? A) GoDaddy B) Skype C) Federal Communication Commission (FCC) D) Facebook

45)

Which statement below is inaccurate in reference to domain names? A) domain names are rented B) domain names are owned C) domain names are renewable D) GoDaddy is a popular domain name registrar

46)

What can unified communications merge? A) IMing B) videoconferencing C) voice mail D) All of the answers are correct.

47)

Which of the below statements is inaccurate in reference to unified communications? A) UC decreases communication costs. B) UC enhances the way individuals communicate. C) UC enhances the way individuals collaborate. D) UC increases communication expenses.

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48)

VoIP allows users to A) call anyone with a local telephone number. B) call anyone with an international telephone number. C) call anyone with a cellular telephone number. D) All of the answers are correct.

49)

What is a benefit of VoIP? A) lowers costs B) clear connection C) higher expenses D) All of the answers are correct.

50) What distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks? A) Internet broadband policy network B) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV) C) Internet Television Interactivity (ITVI) D) Internet television personalization

51)

What is a feature of IPTV?

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A) IPTV uses low bandwidth. B) IPTV offers personalization. C) IPTV supports multiple devices. D) All of the answers are correct.

52) What is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

53) What technology makes possible high-speed Internet access over ordinary residential electrical lines and offers an alternative to DSL or high-speed cable modems? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

54) What represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or radio interference or physical obstructions like walls also impact communication signals? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

Version 1

55)

What receives and repeats a signal extending its attenuation or range? A) proxy B) broadband over power line C) attenuation D) repeater

56) What allows users to work from remote locations such as home or hotel using high-speed Internet to access business applications and data? A) telecommuting B) repeater C) packet header D) virtual attenuation

57)

What is a single unit of binary data routed through a network? A) packet B) traceroute packet C) packet header D) packet footer

58) Which formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet footer?

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A) attenuation B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

59) What lists the destination (for example in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

60)

What represents the end of the packet or transmission end? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

61) What is a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer? A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

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62) What represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or because of radio interference or physical obstructions such as walls. A) traceroute B) standard packet C) packet header D) packet footer

63)

What is traceroute?

A) a single unit of binary data routed through a network B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer

64)

What is a packet?

65)

What is a packet header?

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66)

What is a packet footer?

67)

What are standard packet formats? A) include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet

footer B) lists the destination (for example, in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data C) represents the end of the packet or transmission end D) a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer

68)

What is a proxy?

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A) software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons B) a standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission C) a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet D) a standard Internet protocol that provides the technical foundation for the public Internet as well as for large numbers of private networks

69)

What is a protocol?

70)

What is a file transfer protocol (FTP)?

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71)

What is transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP)?

72)

What is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?

A) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP address to use the network B) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions C) the efficient coexistence of telephone, video, and data communication within a single network, offering convenience and flexibility not possible with separate infrastructures D) the integration of communication channels into a single service

73)

What is domain name system (DNS)?

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74)

What is network convergence?

75)

What is unified communications (UC)?

76)

What is voice over IP (VoIP)?

A) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls B) a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server C) distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks D) the integration of communication channels into a single service

77)

What is peer-to-peer (P2P)?

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78)

What is Internet Protocol TV (IPTV)?

79) What is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an Internetlike environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, and web publishing? A) national ISP B) regional ISP C) intranet D) extranet

80)

What is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders? A) national ISP B) regional ISP C) intranet D) extranet

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81)

An extranet is not available for use by a(n) A) customer. B) supplier. C) employee. D) competitor.

82)

What is a VPN?

A) a direct network provider using a company server B) a direct private network that creates a “private tunnel” within the Internet to connect to the corporate server C) a direct URL that creates a private tunnel for a company D) a direct P2p that creates an open access community for a company

83)

Why would a company use an intranet? A) Intranets are used for business operations and management. B) Intranets are used for communications and collaboration. C) Intranets are used for web publishing. D) All of the answers are correct.

84)

The network categories include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

85)

The network providers include ISP, NSP, and RSP. ⊚ ⊚

86)

The network access technologies include DSL, cable modem, and broadband. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

The network categories include ISP, NSP, and RSP. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

Network convergence includes VoIP, UC, and IPTV. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

The network protocols include TCP/IP, FTP, and DHCP. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

The network providers include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

91)

The network access technologies include VoIP, UC, and IPTV. ⊚ ⊚

92)

The network protocols include LAN, WAN, and MAN. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

Network convergence includes TCP/IP and FTP. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) A wide area network (WAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

97) A metropolitan area network (MAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Attenuation represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels (dB) and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or because of radio interference or physical obstructions such as walls. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

A repeater receives and repeats a signal to reduce its attenuation and extend its range. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. Most colleges, universities, and large companies that span a campus use an infrastructure supported by a MAN. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

A local area network (LAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false 27

102)

Network convergence is the integration of communication channels into a single service. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) A domain name system (DNS) converts IP addresses into domains, or identifying labels that use a variety of recognizable naming conventions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) A local area network (LAN) connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home. LANs allow sharing of files, printers, games, and other resources. A LAN also often connects to other LANs, and to wide area networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) A wide area network (WAN) spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country. Perhaps the best example is the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Broadband over power line (BPL) technology makes possible high-speed Internet access over ordinary residential electrical lines and offers an alternative to DSL or high-speed cable modems. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

107) A repeater represents the loss of a network signal strength measured in decibels and occurs because the transmissions gradually dissipate in strength over longer distances or radio interference or physical obstructions like walls also impact communication signals. ⊚ ⊚

108)

A repeater receives and repeats a signal extending its attenuation or range. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a large computer network usually spanning a city. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Attenuation is a single unit of binary data routed through a network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Packets directly impact network performance and reliability by subdividing an electronic message into smaller more manageable packets. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

112) Traceroute formats include a packet header, packet body containing the original message, and packet footer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) The packet header lists the destination (for example in IP packets the destination is the IP address) along with the length of the message data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) The packet footer represents the end of the packet or transmission end. The packet header and packet footer contain error-checking information to ensure the entire message is sent and received. The receiving device reassembles the individual packets into the original by stripping off the headers and footers and then piecing together the packets in the correct sequence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Dynamic host configuration protocol is a utility application that monitors the network path of packet data sent to a remote computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Telecommuting (virtual workforce) allows users to work from remote locations such as home or hotel using high-speed Internet to access business applications and data. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

117)

IP address is a unique number that identifies where computers are located on the network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) IP address is a simple network protocol that allows the transfer of files between two computers on the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows dynamic IP address allocation so users do not have to have a preconfigured IP address to use the network. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) A proxy is software that prevents direct communication between a sending and receiving computer and is used to monitor packets for security reasons. ⊚ ⊚

121)

true false

Voice over IP (VoIP) uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

122) Peer-to-peer (P2P) is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Internet Protocol TV (IPTV), which distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks. ⊚ ⊚

124)

true false

Peer-to-peer uses IP technology to transmit telephone calls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Voice over IP is a computer network that relies on the computing power and bandwidth of the participants in the network rather than a centralized server. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) A repeater distributes digital video content using IP across the Internet and private IP networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) An intranet is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an Internet-like environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, Web publishing, and the support of business processes. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 32

128) An extranet is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders, such as customers, partners, and suppliers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) Companies can establish direct private network links among themselves or create private, secure Internet access, in effect a private tunnel within the Internet, called a virtual private network (VPN). ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) An extranet is a restricted network that relies on Internet technologies to provide an Internet-like environment within the company for information sharing, communications, collaboration, Web publishing, and the support of business processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) An intranet is an extension of an intranet that is available only to authorized outsiders, such as customers, partners, and suppliers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

132) Companies can establish direct private network links among themselves or create private, secure Internet access, in effect a private tunnel within the Internet, called an extranet. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false

133) VPNs are often used to connect to a corporate server. VPN stands for a Valued Partner Network. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix E_8e 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) A 58) B 59) C 60) D 61) A 62) B 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) A 77) B 78) C 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) B 83) D 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) TRUE Version 1

117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) FALSE 125) FALSE 126) FALSE 127) TRUE 128) TRUE 129) TRUE 130) FALSE 131) FALSE 132) FALSE 133) FALSE

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APPENDIX F 1) What types of BI decisions include predicting sales, determining correct inventory levels and distribution schedules among outlets, and loss prevention? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

2) What types of BI decisions include forecasting levels of bad loans and fraudulent credit card use, credit card spending by new customers, and which kinds of customers will best respond to new loan offers? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

3) What types of BI decisions include predicting machinery failures and finding key factors that control optimization of manufacturing capacity? A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

4) What types of BI decisions include forecasting claim amounts, medical coverage costs, classifying the most important elements that affect medical coverage to predicting which customers will buy new insurance policies?

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A) retail and sales BI decisions B) banking BI decisions C) operations management BI decisions D) insurance BI decisions

Which of the following can use BI to make informed decisions? A) law enforcement industry B) airline industry C) broadcasting industry D) All of the answers are correct.

6) Which of the following is a result of implementing business intelligence systems and tools allowing business users to receive data for analysis? A) reliable B) understandable C) easily manipulated D) All of the answers are correct.

7) Which of the following is the result of BI that implies that the data have been documented as the certified or approved data for the enterprise? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

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8) Which of the following is the result of BI that the processes that deliver the data to the business community are well documented and there are no surprises such as missing or inaccurate data? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

9) Which of the following is the result of BI that the data have been defined in business terms and calculations and algorithms are easily accessed for comprehension? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

10) Which of the following is the result of BI that it is no longer required to have a PhD in statistics to get sophisticated analytics delivered to users’ fingertips? A) reliable B) consistent C) understandable D) easily manipulated

11) What do organizations using BI ask to find the root causes to problems and provide solutions?

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A) what B) when C) where D) why

12)

Which type of BI manages daily operations and integrates BI with operational systems? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

13)

Which type of BI conducts short-term analysis to achieve strategic goals? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

14)

Which type of BI achieves long-term organizational goals? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

15)

Which form of BI has managers and analysts as its primary users?

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A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

16)

Which form of BI uses the time frame of days to weeks to months? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

17)

Which form of BI uses real-time metrics for its data? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

18)

Which form of BI uses months to years as its time frame? A) operational BI B) tactical BI C) strategic BI D) All of the answers are correct.

19)

What is data latency?

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A) the time duration to make data ready for analysis and loading the data into the database B) the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete C) the time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic results and determine an appropriate action D) All of the answers are correct.

20)

What is analysis latency?

21)

What is decision latency?

22) What is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone?

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A) data integrity B) data mart analysis C) data mining D) data extraction

23)

What are the two main objectives associated with data mining? A) uncovering tactics and plans B) uncovering trends and patterns C) uncovering intelligence and unstructured data issues D) uncovering competitors and market advantages

24) Which of the following uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making? A) data analysis tools B) electronic analysis tools C) data-mining tools D) data integrity tools

25)

Which of the following is not a common form of data-mining analysis? A) division organization B) classification C) estimation D) clustering

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26) Which of the following forms of data mining assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes? A) clustering B) classification C) estimation D) affinity grouping

27) What is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible? A) statistical detection B) cluster analysis C) association detection D) social media analytics

28) What is an example of using cluster analysis in business to create target-marketing strategies? A) Google search B) first name information C) ZIP code segmentation D) last name associations

29) Which of the following reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship?

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A) association detection B) masking detection tool C) cluster grouping D) blocking barriers

30) What is a common association detection analysis technique in which you analyze certain items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior? A) clustering factors B) mashup technology C) market basket analysis D) drill-down basket analysis

31)

What is prediction?

A) a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover B) a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste C) predictions based on time-series information D) a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables

32)

What is optimization?

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33)

What are forecasts?

34)

What is regression?

35) What is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover?

Version 1

A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

36) What is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

37)

What are predictions based on time-series information? A) predictions B) optimizations C) forecasts D) regression

38)

What is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

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39)

What is classification? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

40)

What is estimation? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

41)

What is being accomplished by affinity grouping? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

42)

What does clustering accomplish?

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A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value B) determines which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

43)

What assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

44) What determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

45)

What determines which things go together? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

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46)

What segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

47)

What is data mining?

A) the common term for the representation of multidimensional information B) a particular attribute of information C) using a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information and infer rules from them that predict future behavior and guide decision making D) the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone

48) What is the process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone? A) data integrity B) data mart analysis C) data mining D) data extraction

49)

What are the two main objectives associated with data mining?

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A) uncovering tactics and plans B) uncovering trends and patterns C) uncovering intelligence and unstructured data issues D) uncovering competitors and market advantages

50) Which of the following uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making? A) data analysis tools B) electronic analysis tool C) data-mining tools D) data integrity tools

51)

Which of the following is not a common form of data-mining analysis? A) division organization B) classification C) estimation D) clustering

52) What is the technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible? A) statistical detection B) cluster analysis C) association detection D) social media analytics

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53) What is an example of using cluster analysis in business to create target-marketing strategies? A) Google search B) first name information C) ZIP code segmentation D) last name associations

54) Which of the below reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship? A) affinity grouping analysis B) masking detection tool C) cluster grouping D) blocking barriers

55) What is a common association detection analysis technique where you analyze certain items to detect customers’ buying behavior and predict future behavior? A) clustering factors B) mashup technology C) market basket analysis D) drill-down basket analysis

56)

What is prediction?

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57)

What is optimization?

58)

What are forecasts?

59)

What is regression?

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60) What is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

61) What is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

62)

What are predictions based on time-series information?

Version 1

A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

63)

What is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables? A) prediction B) optimization C) forecasting D) regression

64)

What is estimation? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determine which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

65)

What is being accomplished by affinity grouping? A) determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future

value B) determine which things go together C) segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups D) assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes

Version 1

66) What determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

67)

What determines which things go together? A) classification B) estimation C) affinity grouping D) clustering

68)

What is data mining?

A) the common term for the representation of multidimensional information B) a particular attribute of information C) uses a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information and infer rules from them that predict future behavior and guide decision making D) process of analyzing data to extract information not offered by the raw data alone

69)

Which of the following is a business benefit of BI?

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A) single point of access to information for managers only B) BI available to financial organizational departments only C) up-to-the minute information for everyone D) All of the answers are correct.

70)

Which of the following is one of the four main categories of BI benefits? A) quantifiable benefits B) predictable benefits C) tangible benefits D) All of the answers are correct.

71) Which type of BI benefits includes working time saved in producing reports and selling information to suppliers? A) quantifiable benefits B) predictable benefits C) tangible benefits D) All of the answers are correct.

72)

Which type of BI benefits are the results of discoveries made by creative users? A) quantifiable benefits B) indirectly quantifiable benefits C) unpredictable benefits D) intangible benefits

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73) Which type of BI benefits includes improved communication throughout the enterprise, improved job satisfaction of empowered users, and improved knowledge sharing? A) quantifiable benefits B) indirectly quantifiable benefits C) unpredictable benefits D) intangible benefits

74)

Improving the quality of business decisions has a direct impact on costs and revenue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Affinity grouping analysis reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Sensitivity analysis, what-if analysis, return on investment, and market basket analysis are the common DSS analysis techniques. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Affinity grouping analysis is a technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

78)

A pivot rotates data to display alternative presentations of the data. ⊚ ⊚

79)

A consolidation rotates data to display alternative presentations of the data. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

Digital dashboards offer consolidation, drill-down, and slice-and-dice capabilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

Time-series information is time-stamped information collected at a particular frequency.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. It includes many techniques for modeling and analyzing several variables when the focus is on the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Regression is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Prediction is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Regression is a prediction based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 24

89)

Optimization is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

Affinity grouping determines which things go together. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Association detection reveals the relationship between variables along with the nature and frequency of the relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Association detection is a technique used to divide information sets into mutually exclusive groups such that the members of each group are as close together as possible to one another and the different groups are as far apart as possible. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

94)

Data mining occurs on structured data that are already in a database or a spreadsheet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Prediction is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Optimization is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

97)

Time-series information is time-stamped information collected at a particular frequency. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

Forecasts are predictions based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Regression is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. It includes many techniques for modeling and analyzing several variables when the focus is on the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Regression is a statement about what will happen or might happen in the future, for example, predicting future sales or employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Prediction is a statistical process that finds the way to make a design, system, or decision as effective as possible, for example, finding the values of controllable variables that determine maximal productivity or minimal waste. ⊚ ⊚

102)

Regression is a prediction based on time-series information. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Optimization is a statistical process for estimating the relationships among variables. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

Classification assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

105) Estimation determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

106)

Clustering segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

Clustering assigns records to one of a predefined set of classes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Affinity grouping determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

109)

Estimation determines which things go together. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Classification segments a heterogeneous population of more homogeneous subgroups.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Data-mining tools use a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Affinity determines values for an unknown continuous variable behavior or estimated future value. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

Estimation determines which things go together. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Data-mining tools use a variety of techniques to find patterns and relationships in large volumes of information that predict future behavior and guide decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Quantifiable benefits, indirectly quantifiable benefits, unpredictable benefits, and intangible benefits are the four primary categories of BI benefits. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

116) Data latency is the time from which data are made available to the time when analysis is complete. ⊚ ⊚

117)

true false

The three forms of BI include operational, tactical, and value-added. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: Appendix F_8e 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) B 67) C 68) D 69) C 70) A 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE Version 1

87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE Version 1

117) FALSE

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CHAPTER 1 1) Describe the information age and the differences between data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge.

2) Identify the different departments in a company and why they must work together to achieve success.

Explain the concept of data silos and provide an example of their effect on a company.

4) Define the six primary MIS-related strategic positions in an organization along with their associated responsibilities.

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5) Explain systems thinking and how management information systems enable business communications.

Explain why competitive advantages are temporary.

Describe Porter’s Five Forces Model and explain each of the five forces.

Compare Porter’s three generic strategies.

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Demonstrate how a company can add value by using Porter’s value chain analysis.

10)

Explain a digital value chain and explain how it benefits a company.

11)

Which of the following is NOT considered a core driver of the information age? A) information B) business intelligence C) competitive facts D) data

12)

Which of the following is NOT considered a core driver of the information age? A) information B) business intelligence C) knowledge D) variables

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13)

Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age? A) fact B) goods C) competitive intelligence D) data

14)

Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age? A) business analytics B) unstructured data C) analytics D) knowledge

15)

Why do students need to study management information systems? A) Management information systems are everywhere in business. B) Management information systems are rarely discussed in business. C) Management information systems are rarely used in organizations. D) Management information systems are found in only a few businesses.

16)

What is the confirmation or validation of an event or object? A) fact B) data C) data scientist D) business intelligence

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17) The age we live in has infinite quantities of facts that are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. What is this age called? A) data age B) information age C) business intelligence age D) data scientist age

18) Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of selling books? A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

19) Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of renting videos? A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

20) Which of the following companies used technology to revamp the business process of selling shoes?

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A) Netflix B) Dell C) Zappos D) Amazon

21)

What is data?

A) raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object B) data converted into a meaningful and useful context C) information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making D) skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, which create a person’s intellectual resources

22)

What is information?

23)

What is business intelligence?

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24)

What is knowledge?

25)

Which of the following is considered information? A) quantity sold B) date sold C) best-selling item by month D) product sold

26)

Which of the following is considered data? A) quantity sold B) best customer by month C) best-selling item by month D) worst-selling item by month

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27) Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of a piece of data Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job? A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) compare the costs of supplies, including energy, over the last five years to determine the best-selling product by month C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

28) Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of the type of information Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job? A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) Flour Power is supplier number 8745643. C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

29) Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health-conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of knowledge that Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job?

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A) Craig Newmark is customer number 15467. B) Flour Power is supplier number 8745643. C) best-selling product by day D) best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working

30) Data is useful for understanding individual sales, but to gain deeper insight into a business, data needs to be turned into information. Which of the following offers an example of turning data into information? A) Who are my best customers? B) What is my best-selling product? C) What is my worst-selling product? D) All answers provide an example of turning data into information.

31)

Which of the following provides an example of information? A) Who is customer number 12345XX? B) What is product number 12345XX? C) What customer number is Bob Smith? D) What is my worst-selling product?

32)

Which of the following provides an example of data? A) Who are my best customers? B) What is my best-selling product? C) What is my worst-selling product? D) Who is customer number 12345XX?

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33) Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources. Which of the following provides an example of a source that would be included in business intelligence? A) supplier source systems B) customer source systems C) competitor source systems D) All of the answers are correct.

34)

Which of the following represents the core drives of the information age? A) data, information, business intelligence, knowledge B) fact, data, intelligence, experience C) fact, intelligence, business skills, knowledge D) data, intelligence, business information, knowledge

35)

Which of the following represents the definition of a variable?

A) a data characteristic that is collected through competitive intelligence and cannot change over time B) a data characteristic that stands for a value that changes or varies over time C) a data characteristic that stands for a value that does not change or vary over time D) a data characteristic that is collected only through competitive intelligence and can change over time

36) Today’s workers are referred to as________, and they use BI along with personal experience to make decisions based on both information and intuition, a valuable resource for any company.

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A) knowledge workers B) knowledge thinkers C) knowledge resources D) fact workers

37) What is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making? A) supplier’s intelligence B) social intelligence C) employee intelligence D) business intelligence

38) Information is data converted into useful, meaningful context. What are data characteristics that change or vary over time? A) facts B) variables C) supplies D) services

39)

What is data converted into a meaningful and useful context? A) competitive intelligence B) information C) buyer power D) first-mover advantage

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40) What is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention? A) Internet of Things B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) fourth industrial revolution

41)

What refers to devices that connect directly to other devices? A) information age B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) descriptive analytics

42) What extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns? A) Internet of Things B) predictive analytics C) machine-to-machine D) fourth industrial revolution

43)

What is the Internet of Things?

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A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

44)

Which of the following definitions describes machine-to-machine?

45)

What is predictive analytics?

A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) techniques that extract information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

46) Who collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions?

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A) business intelligence manager B) data scientist C) data worker D) data analyst

47)

What role does a data analyst perform?

A) collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions B) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information C) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions D) supports sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services

48)

What are the three key skills required for a data analyst? A) understanding of math and statistics B) coding skills to work with data C) business area subject matter expertise D) All of the answers are correct.

49)

What is the science of fact-based decision making? A) business intelligence B) information C) knowledge D) analytics

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50) What is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions? A) business analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

51)

What describes past performance and history? A) diagnostic analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

52) What extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns? A) diagnostic analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

53)

What creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take?

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A) diagnostics analytics B) descriptive analytics C) prescriptive analytics D) predictive analytics

54)

What are business analytics?

A) the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

55)

What are descriptive analytics?

A) examines data or content to answer the question, “Why did it happen?” B) describe past performance and history C) extracts information from data and use it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns D) creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take

56)

What are diagnostic analytics?

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57)

What are predictive analytics?

58)

What are prescriptive analytics?

59)

What are the four primary areas of analytics? A) descriptive analytics, diagnostics analytics, predictive analytics, prescriptive analytics B) descriptive analytics, primary analytics, secondary analytics, response analytics C) descriptive analytics, diagnostics analytics, future analytics, past analytics D) technique analytics, diagnostics analytics, future analytics, past analytics

60)

What are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization?

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A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

61) What resides within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

62)

What helps harness the wealth of knowledge in the organization? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) data analysts D) business analytics

63)

What helps acquire and catalog the knowledge assets in an organization? A) knowledge assets B) knowledge facilitators C) predictive analytics D) business analytics

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64)

What data is created by a machine without human intervention? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) structured data D) facts

65)

What data is generated by humans in interaction with computers? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine D) big data

66)

What type of structured data includes sensor data, point-of-sale data, and web log data? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) collective intelligence D) systems thinking

67)

What type of structured data includes input data, click-stream data, or gaming data? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine (M2M) D) systems thinking

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68)

Which of the following describes structured data? A) data that has a defined length, type, and format B) data that includes numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address C) data that is typically stored in a relational database or spreadsheet D) All of the answers are correct.

69)

What refers to devices that connect directly to other devices? A) human-generated B) machine-generated C) machine-to-machine D) systems thinking

70)

What is the characteristic of unstructured data? A) does not follow a specified format B) free-form text C) emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages D) All of the answers are correct.

71)

Which of the following does not describe unstructured data? A) does not follow a specified format B) a defined length, type, and format C) free-form text D) emails, twitter tweets, and text messages

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72)

Which of the following does not describe structured data? A) data with a defined length B) emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages C) typically stored in a relational database or spreadsheet D) data with a defined format

73)

Which of the following represent machine-generated unstructured data? A) satellite images B) scientific atmosphere data C) radar data D) All of the answers are correct.

74)

Which of the following represent human-generated unstructured data? A) text messages B) social media data C) emails D) All of the answers are correct.

75)

Which of the following does not represent machine-generated unstructured data? A) satellite images B) radar data C) social media data D) All of the answers are correct.

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76)

Which of the following does not represent human-generated unstructured data? A) text messages B) social media data C) scientific atmosphere data D) All of the answers are correct.

77)

What is a snapshot?

A) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention B) a view of data at a particular moment in time C) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices D) opportunities to change the way people purchase books

78)

What is a view of data at a particular moment in time? A) knowledge B) big data C) snapshot D) unstructured data

79)

What is a report?

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A) a document containing data organized in a table, matrix, or graphical format allowing users to easily comprehend and understand information B) a collection of large complex datasets, including structured and unstructured, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools C) a view of data at a particular moment in time D) a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention

80)

What type of report is created based on data that does not change? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

81)

What type of report changes automatically during creation? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

82) What type of report can include a sales report from last year or salary report from five years ago? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) unstructured report

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83) What type of report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory? A) static report B) dynamic report C) variable report D) structured report

84) Who extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends? A) data scientist B) knowledge worker C) data analyst D) chief sustainability officer

85)

What area does a data scientist extract knowledge from to identify trends? A) statistical analysis B) data mining C) advanced analytics on big data D) All of the answers are correct.

86)

Which of the following terms is synonymous with analytics?

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A) data analyst B) business analytics C) structured data D) data scientist

87) What is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions? A) business analytics B) Internet of Things C) machine-to-machine D) big data

88)

Which of the following definitions represents a data scientist?

A) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information B) collects, queries, and consumes organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decisions C) individuals valued for their ability to interpret and analyze information D) All of the answers are correct.

89) Who extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information?

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A) data scientist B) data analyst C) data worker D) knowledge facilitator

90)

In terms of big data, what is variety? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

91)

In terms of big data, what is veracity? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

92)

In terms of big data, what is volume? A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

93)

In terms of big data, what is velocity?

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A) includes different forms of structured and unstructured data B) includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities C) includes the scale of data D) includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet

94)

In terms of big data, what includes different forms of structured and unstructured data? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

95) In terms of big data, what includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

96)

In terms of big data, what includes the scale of data? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

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97) In terms of big data, what includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet? A) variety B) veracity C) volume D) velocity

98) What is a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools? A) big data B) data scientist C) data analyst D) descriptive analytics

99)

What is big data?

A) a collection of large, complex datasets, including structured and unstructured data, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools B) processes and manages algorithms across many machines in a computing environment C) focuses on forecasting future trends and producing insights using sophisticated quantitative methods, including statistics, descriptive and predictive data mining, simulation, and optimization D) extracts knowledge from data by performing statistical analysis, data mining, and advanced analytics on big data to identify trends, market changes, and other relevant information

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100) In Lou’s Pizza Planet Inc., each department works independently. The sales and marketing department focuses on providing goods and services to customers and maintains transactional data, the finance and accounting department focuses on managing the organization’s resources and maintains monetary data, and the human resources department focuses on hiring and training people and maintains employee data. In the context of how Lou’s functions, which of the following best describes the situation? A) data silos B) data democratization C) data digitization D) data science

101) What of the following terms describes a situation at a company when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units? A) data silos B) data democratization C) competitive advantage D) productivity

102)

How are most companies today typically organized? A) by departments or functional areas B) by departments or financial areas C) by degree or financial areas D) by manager or knowledge area

103)

How does a company operate if it wants to be successful in the information age?

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A) functionally independent between departments B) interdependently between departments C) together as one department with little or no independence D) each department acting as its own individual business unit

104) Most companies are typically organized by departments or functional areas. Which of the following is not a common department found in a company? A) accounting B) payroll C) marketing D) human resources

105)

The sales department needs to rely on information from operations to understand A) inventory. B) customer orders. C) demand forecasts. D) All of the answers are correct.

106) Which of the following is the department that maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees? A) human resources B) sales resources C) employee resources D) employee relations

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107) Greg works for Geneva Steel Corporation. Greg’s duties include managing the overall processes for the company and transforming the steel resources into goods. Which department would Greg most likely work in? A) accounting B) operations management C) marketing D) chief information officer

108) The department within a company that records, measures, and reports monetary transactions is called A) accounting. B) marketing. C) human resources. D) operations management.

109) The department within a company that performs the function of selling goods or services is called A) marketing. B) sales. C) finance. D) operations management.

110) The department within a company that supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services is called

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A) sales. B) operations management. C) accounting. D) marketing.

111) Which department tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

112) Which department manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

113)

Which department records, measures, and reports monetary transactions? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) finance

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114) Which department maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees? A) sales B) operations management C) accounting D) human resources

115)

Which activities belong in the accounting department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

116)

Which activities belong in the finance department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

117)

Which activities belong in the marketing department?

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A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

118)

Which activities belong in the sales department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) relies on information from operations to understand inventory, place orders, and forecast consumer demand

119)

Which activities belong in the human resources department? A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) tracks strategic financial issues, including money, banking, credit, investments, and

assets C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees

120)

Which activities belong in the operations management department?

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A) records, measures, and reports monetary transactions B) manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services C) supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services D) maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees

121)

Which data types are typically found in the marketing department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

122)

Which data types are typically found in the human resources department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

123)

Which data types are typically found in the finance department? A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

124)

Which data types are typically found in the accounting department?

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A) promotion data, sales data, advertising data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

125)

Which data types are typically found in the sales department? A) sales data, customer data, commission data, customer support data B) employee data, promotion data, vacation data C) investment data, monetary data, reporting data D) transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data, tax data

126)

Which data types are typically found in the operations management department? A) manufacturing data, distribution data, production data B) sales data, customer data, commission data, customer support data C) employee data, promotion data, vacation data D) investment data, monetary data, reporting data

127)

Which of the following describes the relationship between functional areas in a business? A) independent B) autonomous C) interdependent D) self-sufficient

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128) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the accounting department? A) tax data B) payroll data C) transactional data D) All of the answers are correct.

129) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the finance department? A) monetary data B) technology data C) production data D) employee data

130) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the human resource department? A) financial data B) technology data C) production data D) employee data

131) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the sales department?

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A) customer data B) sales report data C) commission data D) All of the answers are correct.

132) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the marketing department? A) promotional data B) payroll data C) tax data D) employee data

133) Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the operations management department? A) monetary data B) payroll data C) production data D) employee data

134)

Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

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135) Who is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

136) Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the management information systems? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

137) Who is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

138) Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses?

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A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

139) Trina Hauger works for Johnson Electric as a corporate lawyer, and part of her duties are to ensure the ethical and legal use of information within the company. Which of the following represents Trina’s role at Johnson Electric? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief technology officer (CTO) D) chief information officer (CIO)

140) The challenge that companies today sometimes have is that they are departmentalized into functions that act independently of each other. One solution that can help a company work________ includes management information systems. A) variables B) human resource data C) interdepartmentally D) resource information systems

141) Susan Stewart is an executive at Equity Title, where she is responsible for collecting, maintaining and distributing knowledge for the company. What is Susan’s role at Equity Title?

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A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief technology officer (CTO) C) chief information officer (CIO) D) chief security officer (CSO)

142)

What is the primary responsibility of the CTO? A) overseeing all uses of MIS B) ensuring the security of business systems C) ensuring speed, accuracy, and reliability for MIS D) collecting and distributing company information

143) Jeremy Bridges is an executive for Green Web Designs, where his primary role is to ensure the security of business systems and develop strategies to protect the company from online viruses and hackers. What is Jeremy’s role within the company? A) chief executive officer (CEO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief procurement officer (CPO) D) chief technology officer (CTO)

144) Which role within a company is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategic aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief knowledge officer (CKO) B) chief privacy officer (CPO) C) chief information officer (CIO) D) chief security officer (CSO)

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145) Recently, 150 of the Fortune 500 companies added which of the following positions to their list of senior executives? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief data officer (CDO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

146) Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief data officer (CDO)

147) Who is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company? A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

148) Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses?

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A) chief technology officer (CTO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

149)

Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge? A) chief data officer (CDO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

150) Who is responsible for (1) overseeing all uses of MIS and (2) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives? A) chief information officer (CIO) B) chief data officer (CDO) C) chief privacy officer (CPO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

151) Who is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share? A) chief information officer (CIO) B) chief security officer (CSO) C) chief data officer (CDO) D) chief knowledge officer (CKO)

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152) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief technology officer (CTO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

153) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief information officer (CIO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

154) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief privacy officer (CPO)? A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

155) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief security officer (CSO)? Version 1

A) ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

156) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief data officer (CDO)? A) determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share B) ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

157) Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of the chief knowledge officer (CKO)? A) determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share B) collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge C) ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses D) ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives

158)

Which of the following executive levels might we see created over the next decade?

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A) chief intellectual property officer B) chief automation officer C) chief user experience officer D) All of the answers are correct.

159) The chief intellectual property officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

160) The chief automation officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights, and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

161) The chief user experience officer is a new executive level we might see created over the next decade. Which of the following includes the roles and responsibilities of this officer? A) manage and defend intellectual property, copyrights, and patents B) determine if a person or business process can be replaced by a robot or software C) create the optimal relationship between user and technology D) ensure the ethical and legal use of information within an organization

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162)

Which of the following is not a broad function of a chief information officer? A) manager B) follower C) communicator D) leader

163)

What is the difference between the chief information officer and chief data officer?

A) the CIO is responsible for the data, regardless of the information system; the CDO is responsible for the information systems through which data is stored and processed B) the CIO is responsible for the information systems through which data is stored and processed; the CDO is responsible for the data, regardless of the information system C) their roles and relationships are identical D) All of the answers are correct.

164) What is the difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to fulfill business goals and strategies? A) off-site training B) MIS skills gap C) social recruiting D) information security

165)

In recruiting lingo, what are perfect MIS candidates sometimes called?

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A) turquoise turtles B) red rabbits C) purple squirrels D) white unicorns

166) Eric Eberly holds an executive position at Parker Industries. He has designed and implemented a system to collect, maintain, and share information across the many departments of Parker Industries. He’s also instilled an updating protocol requiring department heads to keep the system up-to-date. Based on this description, what position does Eric hold? A) chief information officer B) chief security officer C) chief data officer D) chief knowledge officer

167) Cody Osterman holds an executive position at Trek Enterprises. His role is the newest senior executive position at the organization. He has advised the company on privacy procedures and processes, and has initiated a training program for employees about the privacy policy, customer confidentiality, and data security. Based on this description, what position does Cody hold at Trek Enterprises? A) chief information officer B) chief security officer C) chief data officer D) chief privacy officer

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168) Sara McGuire holds an executive position at Henry Commerce. She is a big-picture thinker, and makes sure the technology strategy at Henry Commerce serves its business strategy. She has a well-rounded knowledge of MIS, and her primary responsibilities include the efficiency of Henry Commerce’s MIS systems. Based on this description, what position does Sara hold? A) chief user experience officer B) chief technology officer C) chief data officer D) chief privacy officer

169) Allana Nation holds an executive position at PH Corporation. He has an extensive understanding of networks and telecommunications. Adam is aware of the informationtechnology threats the company faces and institutes security protocols and safeguards to secure the MIS systems at PH Corporation. Based on this description, what position does Allana hold? A) chief security officer B) chief user experience officer C) chief data officer D) chief automation officer

170) Jasmine Coleman holds an executive position at Keck-Howes Group. Jasmine has improved the quality of the data gathered by the organization and has created a model to decrease the cost of managing data while increasing the value of the data gathered. Based on this description, what position does Jasmine hold at Keck-Howes Group? A) chief security officer B) chief user experience officer C) chief data officer D) chief automation officer

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171) What is the ability for data to be collected, analyzed, and accessible to all users (the average end users)? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge democratization D) business data

172)

What is a segment of a company representing a specific business function? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge democratization D) business data

173) You are working for a new boss, Jill Slater. Jill believes that all employees in the company should have access to the data they need when they need it for analysis and to make data-driven business decisions. Which term best describes Jill’s business belief? A) data democratization B) business unit C) knowledge dissemination D) business data

174) Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter and modifies the transmitter’s actions. What would the original transmitter include?

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A) input, transform, output B) input, transform, outnumber C) output, input, perform D) All of the answers are correct.

175) MIS is a business function. Which of the following does MIS perform to help aid the company in decision making and problem solving? A) moves information about people B) moves processes across the company to improve systems C) moves information about products D) All of the answers are correct.

176)

In terms of system thinking, what is data entered in a computer? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

177)

In terms of system thinking, what controls to ensure correct processes? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

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178) In terms of system thinking, what is the resulting information from the computer program? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

179)

In terms of system thinking, what is the computer program that processes the data? A) input B) output C) process D) feedback

180)

In terms of system thinking, what is input? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

181)

In terms of system thinking, what is output? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

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182)

In terms of system thinking, what is feedback? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

183)

In terms of system thinking, what is process? A) data entered in a computer B) controls to ensure correct processes C) the resulting information from the computer program D) the computer program that processes the data

184) A system is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose. Systems thinking is a way of monitoring A) the entire system B) a division within the sales role C) the executive team D) the company’s competitors

185) MIS can be an important enabler of business success and innovation. Which of the below statements is accurate when referring to MIS?

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A) MIS equals business success and innovation. B) MIS represents business success and innovation. C) MIS is not a valuable tool that leverages talent. D) MIS is a valuable tool that can leverage the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively.

186) What is a way of monitoring the entire system in a company by viewing the multiple inputs being processed to produce outputs? A) feedback thinking B) systems thinking C) output management D) operational thinking

187)

Which of the following statements is true? A) MIS equals business success. B) MIS equals business innovation. C) MIS represents business success and innovation. D) MIS enables business success and innovation.

188)

What is the name of a company’s internal computer department? A) management information systems B) information systems C) information technology D) All of the answers are correct.

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189)

What are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

190)

What are tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

191) What is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

192) What is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs?

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A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

193)

What are goods?

A) material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need B) tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need C) the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services D) the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

194)

What are services?

195)

What is production?

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196)

What is productivity?

197)

Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in which category? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

198)

Teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in which category? A) goods B) services C) production D) productivity

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199)

Which of the following is considered a good? A) cars B) groceries C) clothing D) All of the answers are correct.

200)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) teaching B) waiting tables C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

201)

Which of the following is considered a good? A) cars B) teaching C) waiting tables D) All of the answers are correct.

202)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) cars B) groceries C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

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203)

Which of the following is considered goods? A) milk and eggs B) managing a team C) selling groceries D) All of the answers are correct.

204)

Which of the following is considered a service? A) selling groceries B) managing a team C) cutting hair D) All of the answers are correct.

205) The lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in which category of making a hamburger? A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

206) Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in which category of making a hamburger?

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A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

207)

The actual hamburger is included in which category of making a hamburger? A) input B) process C) output D) All of the answers are correct.

208) Assume you are in the business of producing and selling hamburgers. If you could produce more hamburgers with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your hamburgers remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

209) Assume you are in the business of producing and selling T-shirts. If you could produce more T-shirts with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your T-shirts remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

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210) Assume you are in the business of producing and selling cars. If you could produce more cars with the same input, what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your cars remains the same? A) increase in productivity, decrease in profits B) increase in productivity, increase in profits C) decrease in productivity, decrease in profits D) decrease in productivity, increase in profits

211)

Which four elements are included in systems thinking? A) output, process, feedback, and accounting B) process, output, operations, and accounting C) input, process, output, and feedback D) input, output, sales, and feedback

212) MIS is a business function, like accounting or sales, which moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. What does MIS stand for? A) management information strategy B) management intelligence system C) management information system D) management information strategist

213) Shelby Black runs a very successful hair salon in downtown Los Angeles. One of Shelby’s tasks is to input positive and negative customer reviews into her computer system. What type of information is Shelby gathering?

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A) feedback B) processing C) output management D) sales processing

214)

Which of the following provides an accurate definition of systems thinking?

A) a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part B) a way of monitoring individual components including an input, the process, and an output while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system C) a way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system D) a way of monitoring singular parts of a system by viewing a single input that is processed or transformed to produce an entire system that is continuously monitored to gather feedback on each individual part

215) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the inputs? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

216) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the process?

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A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

217) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

218) If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system, which of the following represents the outputs? A) the dirty clothes, water, and detergent B) the clean clothes C) the wash and rinse cycles D) the light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped

219) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the input? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

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220) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the output? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

221) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the process? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

222) If you were thinking about an oven as a system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the uncooked food B) the cooked food C) a light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature D) the oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes

223) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the inputs?

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A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

224) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the outputs? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

225) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the process? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

226) If you were thinking about a home theater system, which of the following represents the feedback? A) the DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity B) playing the movie, including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV C) a message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played D) spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward

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227) Which of the following is not a typical way that a company would duplicate a competitive advantage? A) acquiring the new technology B) copying the business operations C) hiring away key employees D) carrying large product inventories

228) When a company is the first to market with a competitive advantage, this is called a firstmover advantage. All of the following companies were first-movers except A) FedEx—Online Self-Service Software. B) Apple—iPad. C) Apple—iPod. D) Microsoft—Bing Search Engine.

229) Which of the following is a tool a manager can use to analyze competitive intelligence and identify competitive advantages? A) the three generic strategies B) the threat of substitute buyer power C) differentiated costs D) supplier loyalty

230) Identifying competitive advantages can be difficult, which explains why they are typically

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A) temporary. B) satisfactory. C) terminated. D) unsuccessful.

231) Updating business strategies is a continuous undertaking as internal and external environments A) become less competitive. B) remains stagnant. C) rapidly changes. D) become more consistent.

232) Which of the following represents a reason why competitive advantages are typically temporary? A) The competitor will hire away your key employees. B) The competitor quickly seeks ways to duplicate your business operations. C) The competitor will purchase new technology. D) All of the answers are correct.

233)

What is a competitive advantage?

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A) a product that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from a competitor B) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a lesser value than they do on similar offerings from another supplier C) a service that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from another supplier D) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors

234) Which of the following is not a common tool used in industry to analyze and develop competitive advantages? A) Five Forces Model B) three generic strategies C) competitive analysis model D) value chain analysis

235) What is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed? A) feedback B) information C) competitive intelligence D) data

236)

Who is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization?

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A) stakeholder B) business strategy C) supplier D) partner

237) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include reliable contracts, ethical materials handling, and responsible production? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

238) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include adhering to regulations/laws, increasing employment, and ethical taxation reporting? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

239) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include maximizing profits, growing market share, and high return on investment? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) government

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240) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include exceptional customer service, high-quality products, and ethical dealings? A) partners/suppliers B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

241) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include fair compensation, job security, and ethical conduct/treatment? A) employees B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

242) Which group of stakeholder’s primary interests include professional associations, ethical recycling, and increasing employment? A) employees B) shareholders/investors C) community D) customers

243) What is a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors?

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A) competitive advantage B) competitor advantage C) power advantage D) first-mover advantage

244)

Which of the following evaluates a project’s position? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

245)

What is a SWOT analysis?

A) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies B) analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry C) views a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

246)

What evaluates industry attractiveness? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

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247)

What is Porter’s Five Forces Model?

248)

What executes business strategy? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

249)

What is a value chain analysis?

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250)

Which strategy below helps an organization choose its business focus? A) SWOT analysis B) Five Forces Model C) value chain analysis D) three generic strategies

251)

What are Porter’s three generic strategies?

A) evaluate an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. B) analyze the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for profitability in an industry. C) view a firm as a series of business processes, each of which adds value to the product or service. D) generic business strategies that are neither organization- nor industry-specific and can be applied to any business, product, or service

252)

Which of the following describes a stakeholder? A) a leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives B) a feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value C) a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization D) information about a competitive environment

253) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for customers?

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A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

254) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for employees? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

255) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for the community? A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

256) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for partners/suppliers?

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A) exceptional customer service B) fair compensation C) professional associations D) reliable contracts

257) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for the government? A) maximized profits B) adherence to regulations/laws C) exceptional customer service D) reliable contracts

258) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is a main concern for shareholders/investors? A) maximized profits B) adherence to regulations/laws C) exceptional customer service D) reliable contracts

259) There are many different stakeholders found in an organization with common business interests. Depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. Which of the following is not a main concern for shareholders/investors?

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A) maximized profits B) grow market share C) job security D) high return on investment

260)

What is included in a SWOT analysis? A) strengths, weaknesses, organizations, and technology B) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats C) success, willingness, opportunities, and technology D) success, weaknesses, organizations, and threats

261)

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a SWOT analysis? A) Strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization. B) Opportunities and threats originate inside an organization. C) Strengths and threats originate inside an organization. D) Opportunities and weaknesses originate outside an organization.

262)

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a SWOT analysis? A) Strengths and weaknesses originate outside an organization. B) Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization. C) Strengths and threats originate inside an organization. D) Opportunities and weaknesses originate outside an organization.

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263) Which of the following are included as potential internal strengths in a SWOT analysis that are helpful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

264) Which of the following are included as potential internal weaknesses in a SWOT analysis that are harmful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

265) Which of the following are included as potential external opportunities in a SWOT analysis that are helpful to an organization? A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

266) Which of the following are included as potential external weaknesses in a SWOT analysis that are harmful to an organization?

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A) core competencies, market leaders, cost advantages, excellent management B) lack of strategic direction, obsolete technologies, lack of managerial talent, outdated product line C) expanded product line, increase in demand, new markets, new regulations D) new entrants, substitute products, shrinking markets, costly regulatory requirements

267)

How would you categorize strengths in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

268)

How would you categorize weaknesses in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

269)

How would you categorize opportunities in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

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270)

How would you categorize threats in a SWOT analysis? A) internal, helpful B) internal, harmful C) external, helpful D) external, harmful

271)

What does a SWOT analysis perform? A) evaluates an organizations strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threats B) evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats C) evaluates an organization’s supporters, weaknesses, opportunities, and technology D) evaluates an organization’s systems, warehouses, outputs, and technology

272)

In a SWOT analysis, strengths and weaknesses originate________ an organization. A) inside (internally) B) outside (externally) C) both inside (internally) and outside (externally) D) All of the answers are correct.

273)

In a SWOT analysis, opportunities and threats originate________ an organization. A) inside (internally) B) outside (externally) C) both inside (internally) and outside (externally) D) All answer choices are correct.

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274) In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential internal strengths (helpful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) competitor issues

275) In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential inner weaknesses (harmful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) competitor issues

276) In a SWOT analysis, which of the following could you discover as potential external opportunities (helpful)? A) cost advantages B) damaged reputation C) new markets D) improved marketing campaigns

277) Managers use four common tools to analyze competitive intelligence and develop competitive advantages. Which of the following is not one of these tools?

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A) three generic strategies B) Five Forces Model C) first-mover advantage D) SWOT analysis

278) The Victory Wireless store in Denver is currently offering a fabulous marketing strategy for potential new iPhone customers. Victory Wireless offers customers who purchase an iPhone with a 2-year subscription a free Otter phone case, car charger, ear phones, and speakers. In terms of Porter’s Five Forces Model, what is Victory Wireless attempting to achieve with this marketing strategy? A) increased buyer power B) increased substitute products C) decreased supplier power D) decreased buyer power

279) Gina Brooks works for Aquarium Retail Services selling high-end salt water fish and tank supplies. Aquarium Retail Services is the current market leader in Gina’s city. Gina has recently been approached by Deep Blue Incorporated with an opportunity to run its corporate nation-wide marketing and sales division. Gina decides to jump at the opportunity. Deep Blue is attempting to gain a competitive________ by stealing its competitor’s key employees. A) power B) entry barrier C) advantage D) loyalty

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280) The banking industry has implemented several competitive advantages including ATMs, online bill pay services, and electronic statements. Of course, these competitive advantages were quickly duplicated by any competitor that wanted to remain in the banking industry. These were all examples of seeking competitive advantages through A) acquiring new technology products and services. B) hiring new employees. C) reducing expenses. D) gaining invaluable feedback from customers.

281) Michael Porter defined the Five Forces Model and the potential pressures that can hurt sales. Which of the following is not one of the potential pressures that can hurt sales? A) Suppliers can drive down profits by charging more for supplies. B) New market entrants can steal potential investment capital. C) Substitute products can steal customers. D) Competition can steal customers.

282) Kevin Campbell is an incoming freshman at your college. Kevin is frustrated by the cost of books, tuition, and expenses, and he needs to purchase a rather expensive laptop. In an effort to save money, Kevin begins a Facebook group finding other college students who need to purchase laptops. Soon, Kevin’s Facebook group has close to 100,000 students. Kevin decides to collectively approach different computer companies to see if his group qualifies for a special discount. What business strategy is Kevin using to purchase laptops? A) collecting business intelligence B) decreasing entry barriers C) purchasing a substitute product D) increasing buyer power

283)

What are costs that make customers reluctant to switch to another product or service?

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A) support activities B) switching costs C) loyalty rewards D) value chain activities

284) Callie Crystal owns and operates one of the most successful local coffee shops in Denver, called the Edgewater Café. Each time a customer purchases their 100th cup of coffee at the Edgewater Café, they receive a free pound of coffee of their choice. What is Callie attempting to create with her unique “Free Pound of Coffee” marketing program? A) reducing buyer power with a loyalty program B) increasing buyer power with a loyalty program C) decreasing supplier power with a differentiated product D) creating a substitute product

285) What includes all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product? A) support chain B) supply chain C) system chain D) supply choice

286)

Which of the below represents a company in a supply chain? A) customer and competitor B) supplier and competitor C) knowledge worker and supplier D) supplier and customer

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287) In the center of Porter’s Five Forces Model is competition. Which of the below represents the four outer boxes? A) buyer power, systems power, threat of false entrants, and threat of substitute products or services B) buyer power, systems power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services C) buyer power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services D) business power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of powerful services

288) Shawn McGill is on the executive board for ABC Pharmaceuticals. The company produces the top-selling cancer-fighting drug on the market. Due to its incredible success, ABC Pharmaceuticals has decided to increase the cost of the drug from $8 a pill to $15 a pill. Which force is ABC Pharmaceuticals using to increase its drug price? A) supplier power B) buyer power C) threat of false entrants D) business power

289)

What is one of the most common ways a company can decrease supplier power? A) charge lower prices B) charge higher prices C) use MIS to find and create alternative products D) companies cannot impact supplier power

290)

If a supplier has high power, what can it do to influence its industry?

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A) charge higher prices B) shift costs to industry participants C) limit quality or services D) All of the answers are correct.

291)

How can a company reduce the threat of substitute products or services? A) market the product to fewer than 10 customers B) ignore competitive forces C) offer additional value through wider product distribution D) offer less value making the product far more generic and similar to the competition

292) Which one of Porter’s five forces is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market? A) threat of new entrants B) threat of substitute products or services C) threat of buyer power D) supply chain competition

293) John Cleaver is the CEO of Tech World, a retail store that sells computers, monitors, cameras, televisions, and many other electronic products. John and his executive team are meeting to brainstorm new ideas on how to grow the business. One idea is to mimic a competitor product that is attempting to sell a new product in a different industry. After performing a Porter’s Five Forces Model analysis, John determines that all of the forces are high in this new industry. What should John do?

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A) explode into the market with an overflow of the product B) contemplate other products to introduce at the same time in this new market C) compare the competitor’s prices and offer his product at a lower price in this new market D) not introduce the product because all five forces are strong and this would be a highly risky business strategy

294) What is a feature of a product or service that customers have come to expect and entering competitors must offer the same if they want to survive? A) significant barrier B) entry barrier C) product differentiation D) entry chain

295)

Which of the following represents a typical supply chain? A) company – customers – suppliers B) company – suppliers – customers C) suppliers – company – customers D) suppliers – customers – company

296) Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the following statements indicates that it would be easy for you as the new entrant to compete in this market?

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A) The threat of new entrants’ force is high in the up-and-coming market. B) The threat of new entrants’ force is low in the up-and-coming market. C) The threat of new entrants’ force is impossible to define in the up-and-coming market. D) All of the answers are correct depending on the time of year.

297) Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the following statements indicates that it would be difficult for you to enter this new market? A) The threat of new entrants’ force is high in the up-and-coming market. B) The threat of new entrants’ force is low in the up-and-coming market. C) The threat of new entrants’ force is high during the summer months in the up-andcoming market. D) All of the answers are correct depending on the time of year.

298) Which of the following is an example in which Porter’s five forces are mostly strong and competition is high? A) dog-walking business B) ski resort C) professional hockey team D) All of the answers are correct.

299) Which of the following offers an example in which Porter’s five forces are mostly weak and competition is low?

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A) an international hotel chain purchasing milk B) a coffee shop C) a single consumer purchasing milk D) a dog-walking business

300) Some industries’ competition is much more intense than others. Retail grocery stores such as Kroger, Safeway, and Albertson’s in the United States experience fierce competition and offer similar marketing campaigns to compete. What is this an example of in terms of Porter’s Five Forces Model? A) rivalry among new entrants B) rivalry among existing competitors C) threat of substitute products or services D) buyer power

301) Amazon.com uses a customer profiling system whenever a customer visits its website. Using this system, Amazon can offer products tailored to that particular customer’s profile and buying pattern. What is Amazon using to achieve this competitive advantage? A) rivalry B) buyer power C) product differentiation D) substitute product

302) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the music industry?

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A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) Walmart, Target, iTunes C) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook. D) Taylor Swift,Beyoncé, The Beatles, The Stones

303) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the music industry? A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) Walmart, Target, iTunes C) independent record labels D) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook

304) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents the threat of substitute products or services in the music industry? A) established record labels such as EMI, Sony, and Universal B) independent record labels C) game systems such as Xbox and social networks such as Facebook D) Taylor Swift,Beyoncé, The Beatles, The Stones

305) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the soft drink industry?

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A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

306) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

307) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents a threat of a new entrant in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

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308) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents a substitute product in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee

309)

What is buyer power?

A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose

310)

What is supplier power?

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311)

What is the threat of substitute products or services?

312)

What is the threat of new entrants?

313)

What is the rivalry among existing competitors?

A) the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item B) the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services) C) high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market D) high when competition is fierce in a market and low when competitors are more complacent

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314) Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces Model. Which of the following represents rivalry in the soft drink industry? A) Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases. B) Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store. C) Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet. D) Coke and Pepsi submit bids to the owner of a football stadium for the exclusive sale of their products during games.

315) Porter identified three generic strategies that a business could follow after identifying a market it wanted to enter. Which of the following is not included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies? A) broad differentiation B) supplier cost differentiation C) focused strategy D) broad cost leadership

316) When analyzing Porter’s three generic strategies for entering a market, if you have a focused strategy, what market should you target? A) a niche market B) a broad market C) neither niche nor broad markets D) both niche and broad markets

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317) Which of the following offers an example of a company operating in a narrow focused market as the low-cost provider? A) Walmart B) Tiffany & Co. C) Neiman Marcus D) Payless Shoes

318) Broad differentiation, broad cost leadership, and________ create the three generic strategies identified by Porter. A) narrow market leadership B) high cost versus low cost C) focused strategy D) None of the answer choices are correct.

319) Jennifer Bloom is writing a paper, and she must determine which of Porter’s three generic strategies The Museum Company has implemented. Jennifer finds out that The Museum Company offers specialty products found only in museums around the world to affluent customers. What would Jennifer determine The Museum Company is using as its generic strategy? A) broad market, low cost B) narrow market, high cost C) broad market, high cost D) narrow market, low cost

320) According to Porter, companies that wish to dominate broad markets should operate using a________ strategy.

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A) cost leadership with a low cost B) differentiation with a low cost C) cost leadership with a high cost D) All answer choices are correct.

321) Which of the following demonstrates a company that has implemented a low-cost, broad market strategy? A) Neiman Marcus B) Payless Shoes C) the Sharper Image D) Walmart

322)

If a business is following a focused strategy, then its competitive scope is A) broad market. B) narrow market. C) broad range products. D) broad range of services.

323) When applying Porter’s three generic strategies, Tiffany & Co. has a competitive scope and cost strategy that is A) broad market, high cost. B) narrow market, low cost. C) narrow market, high cost. D) broad market, low cost.

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324) When analyzing the book store industry, some of today’s businesses compete with different business strategies and cost strategies. Which of the following is using a broad market competitive scope along with a low-cost strategy? A) Amazon.com B) local independent bookstore specializing in antique books C) Barnes & Noble D) bookstore at the airport

325)

Which of the following is similar to a focused strategy versus a broad strategy? A) large market versus leadership B) large market versus uniqueness C) niche market versus large market D) niche market versus generic

326) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a cost leadership strategy? A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

327) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a differentiation strategy?

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A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

328) Your boss, Penny Dirks, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a focused strategy? A) Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue B) British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic C) Sky Taxi, a rent-by-the-hour personal plane service D) All of the answers are correct.

329) A(n)________ allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. A) SWOT analysis B) digital distribution platform C) management information system D) digital value chain

330) Baltzan bike manufacturing needed to decrease the amount of time it took to develop a customized bike. Many customers requested special parts to be assembled for the one-time creation for a bike. By connecting the sales systems to the manufacturing systems and adding 3D printing to its manufacturing process, it was able to cut down on the amount of time it took between sales and production. What type of technology is this called?

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A) digital value chain B) buyer power C) first-mover advantage D) SWOT analysis

331) When reviewing Porter’s value chain analysis, which of the following provides customer support after the sale of goods and services? A) inbound logistics B) outbound logistics C) operations D) service

332) Which of the following represents procurement as part of the support value activities in a value chain analysis? A) purchases inputs such as raw materials, resources, equipment and supplies B) applies MIS to processes to add value C) distributes goods and services to customers D) promotes, prices, and sells products to customers

333) What includes support value activities and primary value activities and is used to determine how to create the greatest possible value for customers? A) supplier power B) operations management C) Porter’s Five Forces Model D) value chain analysis

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334)

What is a standardized set of activities that accomplishes a specific task? A) business strategy B) business outcome C) business process D) knowledge process

335) Which of the following analyzes a company’s business processes and is useful for determining how to create the greatest possible value for customers? A) product analysis B) primary supplier power C) value chain analysis D) buyer chain analysis

336) The goal of value chain analysis is to identify processes in which the firm can add value for the customer and create a competitive advantage for itself, with a________ or________. A) focused strategy; product differentiation B) focused strategy; cost advantage C) cost advantage; primary value activities D) cost advantage; product differentiation

337)

What are the two main categories in a value chain analysis?

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A) primary value activities and secondary value activities B) primary value activities and support value activities C) primary value activities and strengthening value activities D) None of the answer choices are correct.

338) Which of the following is not considered a category within the primary value activities in a value chain analysis? A) inbound logistics B) firm infrastructure C) operations D) service

339) Which of the following is not considered a category within the support value activities in a value chain analysis? A) technology development B) outbound logistics C) human resource management D) firm infrastructure

340) What is the support value activity that provides employees with training, hiring, and compensation? A) procurement B) operations resource management C) human resource management D) firm infrastructure

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341) Sandy Fiero works as the chief knowledge officer for Bend Lumbar Company. She has been given the responsibility to create a product or service that will bring an added value to its customers to increase the company’s revenue. Sandy determines that the best value she can add is by creating a service that offers free next-day shipping on any order over $50. Where in the value chain is Sandy adding value? A) primary value activity outbound logistics B) primary value activity inbound logistics C) primary value activity marketing and sales D) primary value activity operations

342) When evaluating the value chain, all of the following are included in the primary value activities except A) inbound activities. B) operations. C) service. D) MIS development.

343) When evaluating the value chain, which of the following is included in the support value activities? A) inbound activities B) marketing and sales C) firm infrastructure D) finance and sales

344) Which of the following decisions does a firm need to make as soon as it has identified the activities from the value chain that are bringing the highest added value to their customers? Version 1

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A) target high value-adding activities to further enhance their value B) target low value-adding activities to increase their value C) perform some combination of the two D) All of the answers are correct.

345) MIS can add value to both primary activities and support activities in the value chain. Which of the following is not an example of adding value by the use of MIS in a primary activity? A) creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness program rewards, and other employee benefit items B) a system for the sales and marketing departments to track specific sales targets and follow-up processes C) an easy electronic survey, similar to the Survey Monkey, to be sent to the customer right after a service is completed D) using a custom order and delivery system through an easily accessible web portal for the customer to track delivery status

346) MIS can add value to both primary and support activities within a business. Which of the following is not an example of adding value by the use of MIS in a support activity? A) creating a business strategy for the video rental market that delivers videos via the mail B) creating a tracking system to efficiently reward employees based on their performance C) creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness program rewards, and other employee benefit items D) creating a program to automatically order office supplies such as pens and pads of paper for employees

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347) Companies today are successful when they combine the power of the information age with traditional business methods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

348) Diagnostic analytics is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

349) Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

350) The information age is a time infinite quantities of facts are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

351) Top managers use bits to define the future of the business, analyzing markets, industries and economies to determine the strategic direction the company must follow to remain unprofitable. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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352) A variable is a business intelligence characteristic that stands for a value that cannot change over time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

353) A fact is the confirmation or validation of an event or object. In the past, people primarily learned facts from books. ⊚ ⊚

354)

Zappos primary business focus is to sell books and competitive intelligence. ⊚ ⊚

355)

true false

Order date, amount sold, and customer number are all forms of data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

356) Choosing not to fire a sales representative who is underperforming while knowing that the representative is experiencing family problems is a form of knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

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357) Information is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. The truth about information is that its value is only as good as the people who use it. People using the same information can make different decisions depending on how they interpret or analyze the information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

358) The Internet of Things (IoT) is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention. ⊚ ⊚

359)

Machine-to-machine (M2M) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. ⊚ ⊚

360)

true false

The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to devices that connect directly to other devices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

361) Predictive analytics extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

362) Predictive analytics is a world where interconnected, Internet-enabled devices or “things” can collect and share data without human intervention. Version 1

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⊚ ⊚

true false

363) Top managers use predictive analytics to define the future of the business, analyzing markets, industries, and economies to determine the strategic direction the company must follow to remain profitable. Tony will set the strategic direction for his firm, which might include introducing new flavors of potato chips or sports drinks as new product lines or schools and hospitals as new market segments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

364) A data analyst collects, queries, and consumers organizational data to uncover patterns and provide insights for strategic business decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

365) Knowledge workers are individuals valued for their ability to mitigate risk and implement critical human resource and accounting rules and regulations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

366) Using only data and information to make decisions and solve problems is the key to finding success in business. These are also the only core drivers of the information age and the building blocks of business systems. ⊚ ⊚

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106

367) Big data is a collection of large complex datasets, which cannot be analyzed using traditional database methods and tools. ⊚ ⊚

368)

The four common characteristics of big data include variety, veracity, volume, velocity. ⊚ ⊚

369)

true false

Variety in big data includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

370) Veracity in big data includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities. ⊚ ⊚

371)

true false

Volume in big data includes the scale of data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

372) Velocity in big data includes the analysis of streaming data as it travels around the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

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373)

Velocity in big data includes different forms of structured and unstructured data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

374) Volume in big data includes the uncertainty of data, including biases, noise, and abnormalities. ⊚ ⊚

375)

Big data is a view of data at a moment in time. ⊚ ⊚

376)

true false

A snapshot is a view of data at a particular moment in time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

377) A static report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

378) A dynamic report can include updating daily stock market prices or the calculation of available inventory. Version 1

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⊚ ⊚

true false

379) Business analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions. ⊚ ⊚

380)

true false

Descriptive analytics describes past performance and history. ⊚ ⊚

true false

381) Predictive analytics extracts information from data to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

382) Prescriptive analytics creates models indicating the best decision to make or course of action to take. ⊚ ⊚

true false

383) Knowledge assets, also called intellectual capital, are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization. ⊚ ⊚

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384) Knowledge assets reside within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media. ⊚ ⊚

385)

true false

Knowledge facilitators help harness the wealth of knowledge in the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

386) Descriptive analytics is the scientific process of transforming data into insight for making better decisions. ⊚ ⊚

387)

true false

Diagnostic analytics describes past performance and history. ⊚ ⊚

true false

388) Prescriptive analytics extracts information from data to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

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110

389) Analytics, also called intellectual capital, are the human, structural, and recorded resources available to the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

390) Knowledge facilitators reside within the minds of members, customers, and colleagues and include physical structures and recorded media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

391) Structured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

392) Unstructured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

393) Structured data is data that has a defined length, type, and format and includes numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address. ⊚ ⊚

true false

394) Unstructured data is data that is not defined and does not follow a specified format and is typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. Version 1

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⊚ ⊚

true false

395) Unstructured data is data that has a defined length, type, and format and includes numbers, dates, or strings such as Customer Address. ⊚ ⊚

true false

396) Structured data is data that is not defined and does not follow a specified format and is typically free-form text such as emails, Twitter tweets, and text messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

397) Unstructured data extracts information from data and uses it to predict future trends and identify behavioral patterns. ⊚ ⊚

398)

A business unit is a segment of a company representing a specific business function. ⊚ ⊚

399)

true false

The terms department, functional area, and business unit are used interchangeably. ⊚ ⊚

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400) Companies update business strategies continuously as internal and external environments change. ⊚ ⊚

401)

true false

The finance department performs the function of selling goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

402) The marketing department supports sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

403) The operations management department manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

404)

The accounting and finance departments primarily use monetary data. ⊚ ⊚

405)

true false

The sales and marketing departments primarily use monetary data.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

406) A data silo occurs when one business unit is able to freely communicate with other business units from silo to silo. ⊚ ⊚

true false

407) A data silo occurs when one business unit is unable to freely communicate with other business units, making it difficult or impossible for organizations to work cross-functionally. ⊚ ⊚

true false

408) A data silo is beneficial because it helps keep all the data for a company organized in one place. ⊚ ⊚

true false

409) For an organization to succeed, every department or functional area must work independently to be most effective. ⊚ ⊚

true false

410) Successful companies today operate cross-functionally, integrating the operations of all departments. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

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411) MIS is a tool that is most valuable when it leverages the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively. ⊚ ⊚

true false

412) The chief technology officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

413) The chief security officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

414) The chief data officer is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability for MIS. ⊚ ⊚

true false

415) The chief privacy officer is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company. ⊚ ⊚

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416) The business decisions made by the marketing department include promotional data, sales data, and advertising data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

417) The business decisions made by the human resources department include employee data, promotion data, and vacation data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

418) The business decisions made by the finance department include investment data, monetary data, and reporting data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

419) The business decisions made by the accounting department include transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data and tax data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

420) The business decisions made by the sales department include potential customer data, sales report data, commission data, and customer support data. ⊚ ⊚

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421) The business decisions made by the operations management department include manufacturing data, distribution data, and production data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

422) The business decisions made by the finance department include promotion data, sales data, and advertising data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

423) The business decisions made by the accounting department include employee data, promotion data, and vacation data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

424) The business decisions made by the human resources department include investment data, monetary data, and reporting data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

425) The business decisions made by the marketing department include transactional data, purchasing data, payroll data and tax data. ⊚ ⊚

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426) The business decisions made by the human resources department include potential customer data, sales report data, commission data, and customer support data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

427) The business decisions made by the accounting department include manufacturing data, distribution data, and production data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

428) The chief data officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

429) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

430) Most organizations maintain positions such as chief executive officer (CEO), chief financial officer (CFO), and chief operations officer (COO) at the strategic level. ⊚ ⊚

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431) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

432) The chief knowledge officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

433) The chief data officer (CDO) is responsible for determining the types of information the enterprise will capture, retain, analyze, and share. ⊚ ⊚

true false

434) The chief data officer (CDO) is responsible for ensuring the throughput, speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of an organization’s information technology. ⊚ ⊚

true false

435) The chief technology officer (CTO) is responsible for ensuring the security of MIS systems and developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

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436) The chief privacy officer (CPO) is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

437) The chief intellectual property officer (CIPO) is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing the organization’s knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

438) The chief security officer (CSO) is responsible for ensuring the security of MIS systems and developing strategies and MIS safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

439) According to Fast Company magazine, a few executive levels you might see created over the next decade include chief intellectual property officer, chief automation officer, and chief user experience officer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

440) The difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to fulfill the business goals and strategies is called a data analyst certification. ⊚ ⊚

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441) Most chief technology officers do not possess a well-rounded knowledge of all aspects of MIS, such as hardware, software, and telecommunications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

442) Many chief privacy officers (CPOs) are lawyers by training, enabling them to understand the often-complex legal issues surrounding the use of information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

443) MIS skills gap is the difference between existing MIS workplace knowledge and the knowledge required to fulfill the business goals and strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

444) In many instances, an MIS job will remain unfilled for an extended period when an employer needs to hire someone who has a very specific set of skills. In recruiting lingo, such candidates are referred to as purple turtles. ⊚ ⊚

445)

true false

Goods are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need. ⊚ ⊚

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446) Waiting tables, teaching, and cutting hair are all examples of services that people pay for to fulfill their needs. ⊚ ⊚

447)

true false

An overview of systems thinking includes input, process, output, and finances. ⊚ ⊚

true false

448) A stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or concern in an organization. Stakeholder’s drive business strategies, and depending on the stakeholder’s perspective, the business strategy can change. It is not uncommon to find stakeholder’s business strategies have conflicting interests such as investors looking to increase profits by eliminating employee jobs. ⊚ ⊚

449)

true false

Cars, groceries, and clothing are all examples of goods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

450) Production is the process by which a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

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451) Productivity is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

452) Lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in the output of making a hamburger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

453) Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in the process of making a hamburger. ⊚ ⊚

true false

454) Bread, cheese, and butter are included in the process of making a grilled cheese sandwich. ⊚ ⊚

455)

true false

A grilled cheese sandwich is considered the final output of a making-a-sandwich process. ⊚ ⊚

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456) If a business could produce the same hamburger with less expensive inputs, it would probably see a decrease in profits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

457) If a business could produce more hamburgers with the same inputs, it would see a rise in productivity and possibly an increase in profits. ⊚ ⊚

458)

true false

A leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives is a business strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

459) To combat business challenges, leaders communicate and execute business strategies; the word strategy comes from the Greek stratus for army and ago for leading. ⊚ ⊚

true false

460) Businesses rarely need to update business strategies as the business environment remains relatively stable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

461) Attracting new customers, decreasing costs, and entering new markets are all examples of successful business strategies.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

462) Decreasing customer loyalty, increasing costs, and decreasing sales are all examples of business strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

463) A first-mover advantage is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

464) FedEx created a first-mover advantage by developing its customer self-service software, which allows people to request parcel pickups, print mailing slips, and track parcels online. ⊚ ⊚

true false

465) A SWOT analysis will evaluate potential internal strengths, internal weaknesses, and external opportunities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

466) A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

467) A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threats. ⊚ ⊚

true false

468) A SWOT analysis evaluates an organization’s strengths, worries, opportunities, and technologies to identify significant influences that work for or against business strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

469) In a SWOT analysis, strengths and weaknesses originate inside an organization, or internally. Opportunities and threats originate outside an organization, or externally, and cannot always be anticipated or controlled. ⊚ ⊚

true false

470) In a SWOT analysis, potential internal strengths are helpful when they identify all key strengths associated with the competitive advantage, including cost advantages, new and/or innovative services, special expertise and/or experience, proven market leader, improved marketing campaigns, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

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471) In a SWOT analysis, potential internal weaknesses are harmful when they identify all key areas that require improvement. Weaknesses focus on the absence of certain strengths, including absence of an Internet marketing plan, damaged reputation, problem areas for service, outdated technology, employee issues, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

472) In a SWOT analysis, potential external opportunities are helpful when they identify all significant trends along with how the organization can benefit from each, including new markets, additional customer groups, legal changes, innovative technologies, population changes, competitor issues, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

473) In a SWOT analysis, potential external threats are harmful when they identify all threats or risks detrimental to your organization, including new market entrants, substitute products, employee turnover, differentiating products, shrinking markets, adverse changes in regulations, economic shifts, and so on. ⊚ ⊚

true false

474) Competitive advantages provide the same product or service either at a lower price or with additional value that can fetch premium prices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

475) Mark Peterson identified Porter’s Five Forces Model, which analyzes the competitive forces within a business environment.

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⊚ ⊚

476)

true false

Porter’s Five Forces Model outlines the process for a sales strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

477) With the Five Forces Model, companies should watch the forces in the market. If the forces are strong, competition generally increases, and if the forces are weak, competition typically decreases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

478) There are many challenges to changing doctors, including transferring medical records and losing the doctor-patient relationship along with the doctor’s knowledge of the patient’s history. Changing doctors provides a great example of switching costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

479) Supplier power is one of Porter’s five forces, and it measures the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services). ⊚ ⊚

true false

480) Polaroid had a unique competitive advantage for many years until it forgot to observe competitive intelligence. The firm went bankrupt when people began taking digital pictures. Polaroid provides a great example of Porter’s supplier power.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

481) Product differentiation occurs when a company develops unique differences in its products or services with the intent to influence demand. ⊚ ⊚

482)

true false

Buyer power is the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. ⊚ ⊚

true false

483) Rivalry among existing competitors refers to the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item. ⊚ ⊚

true false

484) The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of customers to purchase alternatives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

485) The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of competitors to enter a new market. ⊚ ⊚

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486) Tiffany & Company competes in the marketplace by offering high-cost, custom jewelry. Tiffany & Company is following a broad market and cost leadership strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

487) Porter has identified three generic business strategies, including focused, broad cost leadership, and switching strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

488) According to Porter’s three generic strategies, Walmart is following a business strategy that focuses on broad market and low cost. ⊚ ⊚

489)

According to Porter, it is recommended to adopt only one of the three generic strategies. ⊚ ⊚

490)

true false

Buyer power is included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies. ⊚ ⊚

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491) Value chain analysis views a firm as a series of business processes that each adds value to the product or service. ⊚ ⊚

true false

492) A standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task is called a supply chain component. ⊚ ⊚

true false

493) The value chain will group a company’s activities into two categories: primary value activities and support value activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

494) A digital value chain digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. It allows primary activities to connect digitally to help speed up the transition from sales to manufacturing in an organization. ⊚ ⊚

495)

true false

A digital data silo digitizes work across primary and supporting activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

496) A business process is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order. Version 1

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true false

497) A primary value activity is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order. ⊚ ⊚

498)

Inbound logistics and operations are part of the primary value activities. ⊚ ⊚

499)

true false

Inbound logistics and operations are part of the support value activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

500) Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the primary value activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

501) Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the support value activities. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_8e_Baltzan 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) A Version 1

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37) D 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) B 64) B 65) A 66) B Version 1

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67) A 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) B 73) D 74) D 75) C 76) C 77) B 78) C 79) A 80) A 81) B 82) A 83) B 84) A 85) D 86) B 87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) B 92) C 93) D 94) A 95) B 96) C Version 1

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97) D 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) B 104) B 105) D 106) A 107) B 108) A 109) B 110) D 111) D 112) B 113) C 114) D 115) A 116) B 117) C 118) D 119) D 120) B 121) A 122) B 123) C 124) D 125) A 126) A Version 1

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127) C 128) D 129) A 130) D 131) D 132) A 133) C 134) A 135) B 136) C 137) D 138) B 139) B 140) C 141) A 142) C 143) B 144) C 145) C 146) A 147) C 148) B 149) D 150) A 151) C 152) A 153) D 154) B 155) C 156) A Version 1

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157) B 158) D 159) A 160) B 161) C 162) B 163) B 164) B 165) C 166) D 167) D 168) B 169) A 170) C 171) A 172) B 173) A 174) A 175) D 176) A 177) D 178) B 179) C 180) A 181) C 182) B 183) D 184) A 185) D 186) B Version 1

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187) D 188) D 189) A 190) B 191) C 192) D 193) A 194) B 195) C 196) D 197) A 198) B 199) D 200) D 201) A 202) C 203) A 204) D 205) A 206) B 207) C 208) B 209) B 210) B 211) C 212) C 213) A 214) A 215) A 216) C Version 1

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217) D 218) B 219) A 220) B 221) D 222) C 223) A 224) B 225) D 226) C 227) D 228) D 229) A 230) A 231) C 232) D 233) D 234) C 235) C 236) A 237) A 238) D 239) B 240) D 241) A 242) C 243) A 244) A 245) A 246) B Version 1

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247) B 248) C 249) C 250) D 251) D 252) C 253) A 254) B 255) C 256) D 257) B 258) A 259) C 260) B 261) A 262) B 263) A 264) B 265) C 266) D 267) A 268) B 269) C 270) D 271) B 272) A 273) B 274) A 275) B 276) C Version 1

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277) C 278) D 279) C 280) A 281) A 282) D 283) B 284) A 285) B 286) D 287) C 288) A 289) C 290) D 291) C 292) A 293) D 294) B 295) C 296) A 297) B 298) A 299) A 300) B 301) C 302) A 303) B 304) C 305) A 306) B Version 1

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307) C 308) D 309) A 310) B 311) D 312) C 313) D 314) D 315) B 316) A 317) D 318) C 319) B 320) A 321) D 322) B 323) C 324) A 325) C 326) A 327) B 328) C 329) D 330) A 331) D 332) A 333) D 334) C 335) C 336) D Version 1

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337) B 338) B 339) B 340) C 341) A 342) D 343) C 344) D 345) A 346) A 347) TRUE 348) FALSE 349) TRUE 350) TRUE 351) FALSE 352) FALSE 353) TRUE 354) FALSE 355) TRUE 356) TRUE 357) TRUE 358) TRUE 359) TRUE 360) FALSE 361) TRUE 362) FALSE 363) TRUE 364) TRUE 365) FALSE 366) FALSE Version 1

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367) TRUE 368) TRUE 369) TRUE 370) TRUE 371) TRUE 372) TRUE 373) FALSE 374) FALSE 375) FALSE 376) TRUE 377) FALSE 378) TRUE 379) TRUE 380) TRUE 381) TRUE 382) TRUE 383) TRUE 384) TRUE 385) TRUE 386) FALSE 387) FALSE 388) FALSE 389) FALSE 390) FALSE 391) FALSE 392) FALSE 393) TRUE 394) TRUE 395) FALSE 396) FALSE Version 1

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397) FALSE 398) TRUE 399) TRUE 400) TRUE 401) FALSE 402) TRUE 403) TRUE 404) TRUE 405) FALSE 406) FALSE 407) TRUE 408) FALSE 409) FALSE 410) TRUE 411) TRUE 412) FALSE 413) TRUE 414) FALSE 415) TRUE 416) TRUE 417) TRUE 418) TRUE 419) TRUE 420) TRUE 421) TRUE 422) FALSE 423) FALSE 424) FALSE 425) FALSE 426) FALSE Version 1

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427) FALSE 428) FALSE 429) TRUE 430) TRUE 431) FALSE 432) TRUE 433) TRUE 434) FALSE 435) FALSE 436) TRUE 437) FALSE 438) TRUE 439) TRUE 440) FALSE 441) FALSE 442) TRUE 443) TRUE 444) FALSE 445) TRUE 446) TRUE 447) FALSE 448) TRUE 449) TRUE 450) TRUE 451) TRUE 452) FALSE 453) TRUE 454) TRUE 455) TRUE 456) FALSE Version 1

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457) TRUE 458) TRUE 459) TRUE 460) FALSE 461) TRUE 462) FALSE 463) FALSE 464) TRUE 465) TRUE 466) TRUE 467) FALSE 468) FALSE 469) TRUE 470) TRUE 471) TRUE 472) TRUE 473) TRUE 474) TRUE 475) FALSE 476) FALSE 477) TRUE 478) TRUE 479) TRUE 480) FALSE 481) TRUE 482) TRUE 483) FALSE 484) TRUE 485) FALSE 486) FALSE Version 1

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487) FALSE 488) TRUE 489) TRUE 490) FALSE 491) TRUE 492) FALSE 493) TRUE 494) TRUE 495) FALSE 496) TRUE 497) FALSE 498) TRUE 499) FALSE 500) FALSE 501) TRUE

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