6
In which form of government do all the citizens have the opportunity to participate in the process of making authoritative decisions and allocating resources? (A) Democracy (B) Autocracy (C) Oligarchy (D) Constitutional monarchy
Answer: (A) Democracy 7
A form of government in which the power to make decisions and allocate resources is vested in one person is called (A) oligarchy. (B) autocracy. (C) democracy. (D) constitutional monarchy.
Answer: (B) autocracy. 8
Which of the following is NOT considered a basic form of government? (A) Autocracy (B) Oligarchy (C) Initiative (D) Democracy
Answer: (C) Initiative 9
The idea that people should be free from discrimination and class or social barriers is called (A) social equality. (B) democracy. (C) political freedom. (D) popular sovereignty.
Answer: (A) social equality. 10 The idea that people believe their views are “normal” and “common sense” and therefore shared by most people is known as (A) limited government. (B) democracy. (C) false consensus. (D) ideology. Answer: (C) false consensus. 11 Harold D. Lasswell's definition of _______ is “who gets what, when, and how.” (A) power struggle (B) democracy
(C) government (D) politics Answer: (D) politics 12 In Polisciland all important decisions are made by a single individual who serves as supreme ruler for life. Polisciland has what form of government? (A) Democracy (B) Autocracy (C) Federalism (D) Oligarchy Answer: (B) Autocracy 13 Political scientists who adopt science as the best means to gain useful knowledge about politics and government are most interested in (A) identifying which form of government is best. (B) constructing empirical theories and testing explanations of why politics works the way it does. (C) normative theory. (D) using the scientific method to indoctrinate students to agree with their partisan and ideological values. Answer: (B) constructing empirical theories and testing explanations of why politics works the way it does. 14 As a core democratic principal, majority rule is more important than (A) political freedom. (B) political equality. (C) both of the above. (D) none of the above. Answer: (D) none of the above. 15 In which type of election do voters have an opportunity to make specific policy decisions? (A) Recall elections (B) Initiative and referendum (C) Issue election (D) Amending election Answer: (B) Initiative and referendum 16 ______ is a term used to describe a society in which organized, influential minority interests dominate the political process. (A) Pluralistic (B) Elitist (C) Diverse
(D) None of the above Answer: (B) Elitist 17 Questions and debates that can be answered by careful observation can be described as (A) empirical. (B) normative. (C) impossible. (D) rare. Answer: (A) empirical. 18 All of the following are basic goals of science EXCEPT: (A) description. (B) explanation. (C) valuation. (D) prediction. Answer: (C) valuation. 19 A monarchy (in its pure form) is an example of an autocracy. Why? Answer: 20 What term describes Aristotle’s view of the formation of the state, which contends that the state naturally developed like a living being? Answer: 21 An election in which a state legislature refers a proposed law to the voters for their approval is defined as (A) an initiative. (B) a referendum. (C) an open primary. (D) an exit poll. Answer: (B) a referendum. 22 What academic discipline is dedicated to the study of government, political institutions, processes, and behavior? (A) Political Science (B) Biology (C) History (D) Economics Answer: (A) Political Science 23 The idea that individual preferences should be given equal weight describes ________. (A) political equality
(B) political science (C) popular sovereignty (D) equality under the law Answer: (A) political equality 24 ______ analysis seeks to prescribe how things should be valued, what should be, and what is good or just, better or worse. (A) Empirical (B) Null hypothesis (C) Normative (D) False consensus Answer: (C) Normative 25 The principal under which government follows the course of action preferred by most people is known as (A) minority rights. (B) majority rule. (C) partisanship. (D) politics. Answer: (B) majority rule. 26 Which of the following does NOT describe a representative democracy? (A) Ordinary citizens make all governmental decisions. (B) Citizens choose the public officials/representatives. (C) Elected representatives make decisions for the citizens. (D) The form of democracy practiced in the United States and Great Britain. Answer: (A) Ordinary citizens make all governmental decisions. 27 Which of the following best describes a liberal democracy? (A) A concern for individual liberty (B) A law and constitution that constrain elected representatives (C) A focus on minority rights (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above 28 An election in which ordinary citizens circulate a petition to put a proposed law on the ballot for the voters to approve is known as (A) a referendum. (B) an initiative. (C) an opinion poll. (D) a primary.
Answer: (B) an initiative. 29 A consistent set of values, attitudes, and beliefs about the appropriate role of government in society can describe one's (A) partisanship. (B) voting record. (C) ideology. (D) initiative. Answer: (C) ideology. 30 The institution that has the authority to make decisions that are binding on everyone is generally referred to as (A) religion. (B) government. (C) sovereignty. (D) Congress. Answer: (B) government. 31 The idea that the law is supposed to be applied impartially, without regard for the identity or status of the individual involved is called (A) equality under the law. (B) economic equality. (C) equality of opportunity. (D) social equality. Answer: (A) equality under the law. 32 The idea that every individual has the right to develop to the fullest extent of his or her abilities is called (A) economic equality. (B) equality under the law. (C) social equality. (D) equality of opportunity. Answer: (D) equality of opportunity. 33 Which of the following characteristics differentiates government from other organizations that resolve conflict? (A) Using the power of admonitions (B) Teaching certain beliefs (C) Legitimate use of coercion (D) Resolving conflicts over values Answer: (C) Legitimate use of coercion
34 An elite theorist would probably agree with which of the following? (A) Out of the clash of competing governmental agencies, political parties, and interest groups will emerge the “public interest.” (B) There is likely to be a conflict between majority rule and minority rights. (C) Elites are controlled by the majority. (D) None of the above. Answer: (D) None of the above. 35 Which of the following would pluralists probably agree with? (A) Majority tyranny is to be feared more that the tyranny of the minority. (B) Elections provide an adequate check on government. (C) Power should be concentrated in the hands of the majority. (D) All of these. Answer: (A) Majority tyranny is to be feared more that the tyranny of the minority. 36 A society in which power is divided among a wide variety of interests is (A) elitist. (B) autocratic. (C) pluralistic. (D) oligarchistic. Answer: (C) pluralistic. 37 A study which argues that democracy is a good idea is considered to be (A) empirical. (B) normative. (C) psychological. (D) economic. Answer: (B) normative. 38 Psychological attachment to a particular political party is (A) ideology. (B) democracy. (C) republicanism. (D) partisanship. Answer: (D) partisanship. 39 The process of deciding who gets what or what values we live by is (A) politics. (B) debating. (C) bargaining.
(D) government. Answer: (A) politics. 40 Fifty percent plus one of everyone who votes in a particular election is a (A) simple majority. (B) absolute majority. (C) plurality. (D) unanimous consent. Answer: (A) simple majority. 41 A decision that is made by a majority in an election but that infringes upon minority rights is said to be (A) democratic in substance, but not democratic in process. (B) democratic in process, but not democratic in substance. (C) neither democratic in substance or process. (D) democratic in both substance and process. Answer: (B) democratic in process, but not democratic in substance. 42 Democracy can be direct or representative, and the United States has both, although it is a primarily representative democratic system. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 43 Democracy always produces the best possible outcomes. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 44 Government is among many institutions that can legitimately use coercion on all individuals and organizations in deciding who gets what. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 45 Americans like the idea of democracy, but don't necessarily like the process of democratic politics. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True
46 Democracies do not necessarily produce the best policy outcomes. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 47 Although the heart of democracy is about process, substance counts too. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 48 Democracies do not necessarily produce the best policy outcomes. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 49 An oligarchy is a type of government in which one person has all ruling power. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 50 Politics can be defined as (A) who gets what, when, and how. (B) the authoritative allocation of values. (C) Both a and b. (D) Neither a nor b. Answer: (C) Both a and b. 51 Conflict and debate over policy ideas and philosophies (A) contribute to an intractable, hostile environment in which government officials cannot make decisions. (B) must be avoided at all costs in order to prevent outbursts of violence from ordinary citizens. (C) are more common in the country than debates over whose football or basketball team is the best. (D) are common, and even desirable, in a functioning pluralist democracy. Answer: (D) are common, and even desirable, in a functioning pluralist democracy. 52 According to your text, each of the following are among the “core beliefs” of American democracy EXCEPT (A) unitary government. (B) popular sovereignty.
(C) individual liberty. (D) political equality. Answer: (A) unitary government. 53 The pluralist model of democracy has been criticized for (A) its slowness and conservative bias. (B) its overemphasis on restraining majorities. (C) its failure to protect the rights of unpopular and unorganized minorities. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 54 An advocate of populist democracy would probably favor (A) the Constitutional amendment providing for direct election of U.S. senators rather that by state legislatures. (B) the Constitutional amendments that extended voting rights to African Americans, women, and young people. (C) “initiative” and “referendum.” (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 55 The populist model of democracy emphasizes (A) giving power to the smartest and wisest people in society. (B) strict majority rule and greater direct citizen participation. (C) fragmented power to promote deliberation and compromise. (D) capitalism and free enterprise. Answer: (B) strict majority rule and greater direct citizen participation. 56 Pluralists argue that in American government, power should be (A) fragmented among different branches. (B) given to the majority because democracy requires majority rule. (C) given to the most educated because they will make the right decisions. (D) given to the richest because they have earned the right to made decisions. Answer: (A) fragmented among different branches. 57 In an election, if candidate “A” gets 41% of the vote, candidate “B” gets 33%, and candidate “C” gets 26%, which candidate has a majority of the votes cast? (A) Candidate “A” (B) Candidate “B” (C) Candidate “C” (D) None of the above
Answer: (D) None of the above 58 A form of government in which the power to make decisions and allocate resources is given to a small number of persons is called: (A) oligarchy. (B) autocracy. (C) democracy. (D) constitutional monarchy. Answer: (A) oligarchy. 59 Partisanship is (A) the formal membership in political party. (B) best exemplified by the “party in structure."" (C) caused by rational deliberation and debate on many issues. (D) a psychological attachment to political party. Answer: (D) a psychological attachment to political party. 60 What are the core principles of democracy? (A) Majority rule, political equality, popular sovereignty (B) Popular sovereignty, elections, political equality (C) Majority rule, political equality, political freedom (D) Political freedom, majority rule Answer: (C) Majority rule, political equality, political freedom 61 State voters are asked to approve a ballot initiative legalizing beer sales in Flagship University Stadium. What is this an example of? (A) Direct democracy (B) The Madisonian Dilemma (C) Oligarchy (D) Purposive benefits Answer: (A) Direct democracy 62 In Polisciland blue-eyed people are not allowed to vote, a policy approved by the majority brown-eyed people. What core democratic values are in conflict here? (A) Majority rule against political equality (B) Political equality against minority rights (C) Majority rule against popular sovereignty (D) Direct versus representative democracy Answer: (A) Majority rule against political equality 63 In Polisciland, all important political decisions are made by a council of four men from prominent families. Polisciland has what form of government?
(A) Democracy (B) Autocracy (C) Federalism (D) Oligarchy Answer: (D) Oligarchy 64 The term “pluralism” describes a governmental philosophy in which (A) groups of competing interests vie for the attention of government. (B) power is divided between a single national government and several subnational units. (C) a handful of elites control the actions of government. (D) power is divided between several branches of government. Answer: (A) groups of competing interests vie for the attention of government. 65 Which of the following is an example of direct democracy? (A) A ballot initiative (B) Congress (C) An opinion poll (D) The presidential election Answer: (A) A ballot initiative 66 The Founding Fathers believed that minority rights must be respected in order to achieve all the following goals EXCEPT (A) contribute to a political culture in which those in the minority will respect the decisions of the majority. (B) instill a sense that decisions have been arrived at fairly. (C) promote governmental legitimacy and stability. (D) to prove that slavery was unjust. Answer: (D) to prove that slavery was unjust. 67 Ballot initiatives, or referendums, are examples of direct democracy. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True
Chapter 2 1
When the Constitution was written, the ___ believed that the national government should have more power than state governments. The ___ believed that state governments should have more power than national governments
Answer: Federalists Anti-Federalists 2
The power to review decisions of the lower courts and to determine the constitutionality of laws and actions of public officials is known as (A) judicial review. (B) executive privilege. (C) implied powers. (D) enumerated powers.
Answer: (A) judicial review. 3
Powers that are not listed or implied by the Constitution but that rather have been claimed as essential to the national government are known as (A) executive privilege. (B) enumerated powers. (C) implied powers. (D) inherent powers.
Answer: (D) inherent powers. 4
All are true of Federalism, EXCEPT: (A) Federalism is a political system. (B) Regional governments share power with central or national government. (C) Each level of a federalist government has legal powers that are independent of the other. (D) All are true of federalism.
Answer: (D) All are true of federalism. 5
All are true of the Declaration of Independence EXCEPT: (A) It was written by Thomas Jefferson. (B) It lays the foundation of American constitutional theory. (C) It was the first constitution of the United States. (D) In it, the author justifies the struggle for independence with a republican theory of government based on the concepts of natural rights and popular sovereignty.
Answer: (C) It was the first constitution of the United States. 6
What are the freedoms and protections against arbitrary governmental actions given to the people in a democratic society called? (A) Enumerated powers (B) Implied powers (C) Checks and balances
(D) Civil liberties Answer: (D) Civil liberties 7
The idea that each branch of the federal government should assert and protect its own rights but must also cooperate with the other branches is known as (A) separation of powers. (B) checks and balances. (C) enumerated powers. (D) mixed government.
Answer: (B) checks and balances. 8
The _____ served as the first constitution of the United States. (A) U.S. Constitution (B) Treaty of Versailles (C) Declaration of Independence (D) Articles of Confederation
Answer: (D) Articles of Confederation 9
To keep members insulated from popular influences, longer terms in office were instituted for (A) the Senate. (B) the House of Representatives. (C) district court judges (D) state legislatures.
Answer: (A) the Senate. 10 One of the central issues raised by the opponents of the Constitution during the ratification process was (A) the restrictions placed on state governments. (B) the failure to address the issue of too much presidential authority. (C) the absence of a Bill of Rights. (D) the weakness of the judiciary. Answer: (C) the absence of a Bill of Rights. 11 The idea that each branch of government should be responsible for a separate part of the political process is known as (A) separation of powers. (B) checks and balances. (C) enumerated powers. (D) mixed government.
Answer: (A) separation of powers. 12 The _____ served as the second constitution of the United States. (A) Declaration of Independence (B) Articles of Confederation (C) U.S. Constitution (D) Treaty of Versailles Answer: (C) U.S. Constitution 13 The “full faith and credit” clause of the Constitution requires (A) states to recognize and uphold the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the other states. (B) states to use the National Bank of Unites States for their financial transactions. (C) Congress to extend taxing rights to the states. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) states to recognize and uphold the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the other states. 14 Constitutional change resulting from custom and usage includes (A) political parties. (B) the eighteen-year-old vote. (C) judicial review. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) political parties. 15 The idea that government should represent both property and the number of people is know as (A) separation of powers. (B) checks and balances. (C) enumerated powers. (D) mixed government. Answer: (D) mixed government. 16 A unicameral legislature has how many chambers? (A) One (B) Two (C) None (D) Varying Answer: (A) One 17 In Federalist Number 10, Madison argued that
(A) factions would not form because men were basically “good”."" (B) minority factions were to be feared more than majority factions. (C) factions ought to be prevented from forming by a strong central government. (D) factions were inevitable and could not be removed, so their effects should be controlled. Answer: (D) factions were inevitable and could not be removed, so their effects should be controlled. 18 In class, we discussed a requirement that officeholders in England had to meet which probably explains the inclusion of a part of Article VI of the Constitution. What was that requirement? Answer: 19 Representative John Boehner, the Speaker of the House, is currently suing President Barack Obama. What principle, discussed in class, is Boehner claiming that Obama violated? Answer: 20 A majority of students band together to pressure the university to require all students to wear school colors on game days. James Madison saw such groups as the central problem of trying to create a workable democracy. What did he call such groups? Answer: 21 Which of the following does NOT represent problems experienced by states under the Articles of Confederation? (A) Laws that changed so frequently citizens could not keep track of them. (B) Competition from other states made foreign trade agreements difficult to negotiate. (C) States could not issue their own currency. (D) An “excess of democracy.” Answer: (C) States could not issue their own currency. 22 The confederal system of government under the Articles of Confederation most closely resembles (A) the Union states during the Civil War. (B) the United Nations. (C) the state government of Texas. (D) Latin American dictatorships. Answer: (B) the United Nations. 23 The Articles of Confederation demonstrated that the American people (A) missed the days of the monarchy under George III. (B) favored a strong, centralized national government. (C) demanded a unitary system of government. (D) feared a strong , centralized national government. Answer: (D) feared a strong , centralized national government. 24 The republican form of government exercised in the United States is an example of
(A) indirect democracy. (B) a unitary system. (C) direct democracy. (D) a confederal system. Answer: (A) indirect democracy. 25 Article VI of the Constitution specifically prohibits testing a potential candidate’s (A) religion. (B) literacy. (C) constitutional knowledge. (D) political ideology. Answer: (A) religion. 26 The Articles of Confederation provided for (A) a strong national government. (B) a strong executive branch. (C) strong state governments. (D) amendments without unanimous consent. Answer: (C) strong state governments. 27 The constitutional framework for the structure of Congress was the (A) New Jersey Plan. (B) Connecticut Compromise. (C) Virginia Plan. (D) Articles of Confederation. Answer: (B) Connecticut Compromise. 28 Governmental powers not explicitly written in the Constitution, but suggested by the “necessary and proper” clause (Article I, Section 8) are (A) unconstitutional. (B) enumerated powers. (C) inherent powers. (D) implied powers. Answer: (D) implied powers. 29 Amendments to the United States Constitution can be initiated by (A) a proposal in Congress. (B) a constitutional convention requested by the states. (C) both A and B. (D) neither A or B.
Answer: (C) both A and B. 30 Which one of the following is not one of the three inalienable rights in the Declaration of Independence? (A) property (B) life (C) liberty (D) pursuit of happiness Answer: (A) property 31 The Constitution has been changed through (A) formal amendment. (B) legislative interpretation. (C) custom and usage. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 32 Of the amendments currently in the Constitution, what was the longest time between submission and final ratification? (A) 13 years (B) 27 years (C) 52 years (D) 203 years Answer: (D) 203 years 33 Which of the following is prohibited in Article I of the Constitution? (A) Infringements on the right to a speedy trial (B) Ex post facto laws (C) The denial of a jury trial in civil cases (D) Limitations on freedom of speech Answer: (B) Ex post facto laws 34 Powers that are explicitly granted by the Constitution are known as (A) implied powers. (B) enumerated powers. (C) Wonder Twin powers. (D) concurrent powers. Answer: (B) enumerated powers. 35 The constitutional provision requiring all states to recognize and respect the decisions and authority of the other states regarding their citizens is the
(A) First Amendment. (B) “supremacy” clause. (C) “full faith and credit” clause. (D) Aretha Franklin clause. Answer: (C) “full faith and credit” clause. 36 The “supremacy clause” of the Constitution establishes which of the following authorities as the supreme law of the land? (A) All treaties and laws enacted by the national government (B) The Constitution (C) Neither a nor b (D) Both a and b Answer: (D) Both a and b 37 The “implied powers clause” of the Constitution ensures that the national government is sufficiently powerful to lead the nation in which of the following ways? (A) By granting to the national government all powers not explicitly granted to the states (B) By establishing a unitary system of government (C) By granting Congress the power to make all laws that it deems “necessary and proper” (D) By granting the president the power to make all laws that he deems “necessary and proper” Answer: (C) By granting Congress the power to make all laws that it deems “necessary and proper” 38 The Constitution can be changed by amendment, custom and usage, or (A) legislative act. (B) executive order. (C) citizen referendum. (D) judicial interpretation. Answer: (D) judicial interpretation. 39 Which of the following is NOT an element of the separation of powers as established in the Constitution? (A) Each branch has the power to overrule decisions made by another branch if it becomes necessary. (B) Implementation of policy is left to the bureaucracy. (C) Each branch has policy-making powers that overlap to a degree with the other branches. (D) Members of each branch of government are chosen in different ways and different intervals. Answer: (B) Implementation of policy is left to the bureaucracy. 40 The Constitution, as a written document outlining the limitations of government power, reflects the influence of (A) British customs and traditions.
(B) Marxist theory. (C) social contract theory. (D) utilitarianism. Answer: (C) social contract theory. 41 The delegates to the Constitutional Convention compromised on economic policy by allowing Congress (A) to tax imports but not exports. (B) to tax exports but not imports. (C) to tax both imports and exports. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) to tax imports but not exports. 42 An important concession granted to the large states under the Great Compromise was that taxing and spending bills must originate in (A) the House of Representatives. (B) the Senate. (C) a bipartisan joint committee. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) the House of Representatives. 43 Which of the following was NOT a key economic factor leading up to the Constitutional Convention? (A) The need to enforce debt collection (B) The need for stable currency (C) The need for a central government with the ability to negotiate trade agreements and treaties (D) The need to create a national bank Answer: (D) The need to create a national bank 44 The current method of electing Senators was established in the original Constitution. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 45 The New Jersey plan, which called for a unicameral legislature, was favored by large states. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 46 Federalists wanted (A) a weaker federal government.
(B) a stronger federal government. (C) stronger state governments. (D) none of the above. Answer: (B) a stronger federal government. 47 Which of the following is NOT true of the Constitutional Convention of 1787? (A) The delegates were overwhelmingly Federalists. (B) Luther Martin was probably drunk when he gave a long speech on state's rights. (C) There was wide agreement on the need for a stronger central government. (D) Thomas Jefferson cast the deciding vote on the Virginia Plan. Answer: (D) Thomas Jefferson cast the deciding vote on the Virginia Plan. 48 You are a delegate to the Constitutional Convention from a large, populous state who wants to maximize your state's role in the new government. Which of the following proposals would you support? (A) A bicameral legislature with a popularly elected lower chamber, and an upper chamber elected by the lower chamber (B) A unicameral legislature with equal representation for each state (C) A bicameral legislature with equal representation for each state (D) A bicameral legislature with both chambers popularly elected Answer: (D) A bicameral legislature with both chambers popularly elected 49 If a proposed amendment is not ratified within two years of when it is submitted, then its chances of being ratified are (A) still very high. (B) about 50-50. (C) very low. (D) none of the above because ratification of amendments is not affected by politics. Answer: (C) very low. 50 The most common way amendments to the U.S. Constitution have been ratified is by (A) three-fourths of state legislatures. (B) three-fourths of state conventions. (C) the president's signing them into law. (D) choice “a” is most common, but “c” is also a necessary condition. Answer: (A) three-fourths of state legislatures. 51 The states' power to initiate the process of proposing amendments to the Constitution is important because (A) it was the method used to propose almost half the amendments. (B) amendments initiated by states are more likely to be ratified because the states are closer to the people than Congress.
(C) it raises public consciousness about issues and may pressure Congress to act. (D) it is not important because a process that has never been used is obviously not important. Answer: (C) it raises public consciousness about issues and may pressure Congress to act. 52 The most common way of proposing amendments to the U.S. Constitution is (A) a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress. (B) a petition from two-thirds of state legislatures asking Congress to call a constitutional convention. (C) a petition from three-fourths of states legislatures asking Congress to call a constitution convention. (D) a three-fourths vote in both houses of Congress. Answer: (A) a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress. 53 The original Constitution (i.e., before any amendments) explicitly prohibits both the national and state governments from (A) passing ex post facto laws. (B) passing bills of attainder. (C) adopting religious tests as a requirement to hold public office. (D) all of the above are limitations on both national and state governments. Answer: (D) all of the above are limitations on both national and state governments. 54 Governmental powers listed in the Constitution are called (A) Inherent (or prerogative) powers (B) Implied powers (C) Enumerated powers (D) Specific powers Answer: (C) Enumerated powers 55 The factions with the greatest potential to threaten individual liberty are those that (A) constitute a majority. (B) are based on religious beliefs. (C) constitute an intense vocal minority. (D) take moderate positions. Answer: (A) constitute a majority. 56 The Madisonian dilemma concerns the problem of how to (A) prevent infighting among factions of self-interested individuals. (B) empower citizens to rely on morals and conscience when governing. (C) prevent self-interested individuals with government power from exploiting those with less power. (D) eliminate biased special interests and provide for the common interests for all citizens.
Answer: (C) prevent self-interested individuals with government power from exploiting those with less power. 57 A constitution does all of the following EXCEPT: (A) establishes a legal relationship between the people and their leaders. (B) determines the rules for attaining power. (C) determines the rules of warfare. (D) outlines the rules for exercising political power. Answer: (C) determines the rules of warfare. 58 In FederalistNumber 51, James Madison argued that the new constitution should be ratified because (A) it was democratic. (B) people were “good” and would not abuse the powers of government. (C) it was mixed government in which individual selfish acts would counteract each other and result in policies that serve the public interest. (D) all of the above. Answer: (C) it was mixed government in which individual selfish acts would counteract each other and result in policies that serve the public interest. 59 Which of the following is (are) empirically true? (A) Democracy is good because it permits political freedom. (B) Democracy may not the perfect, but it works better than other types of government. (C) The term of a U.S. senator is six years. (D) All of the above are true. Answer: (C) The term of a U.S. senator is six years. 60 The major deficiency of the Articles of Confederation was (A) the structuring of government. (B) the procedures through which amendments were made. (C) the national government lacked sufficient power to govern. (D) the opposition to strong state governments. Answer: (C) the national government lacked sufficient power to govern. 61 Which type of powers are listed in the Constitution? (A) Inherent (B) Implied (C) Enumerated (D) Arbitrary Answer: (C) Enumerated
62 Concurrent powers, such as the ability to levy taxes, are not shared by the federal and state governments. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False
Chapter 3 1
Dual federalism is sometimes called ___ because federal and state governments have distinct and independent spheres of power. ___ is sometimes called marble-cake federalism because the distinction between federal powers and state powers is not clear, and often mixed.
Answer: layer-cake federalism Cooperative federalism 2
_________ is/are a type of federal grant that returns money to the state and local governments with NO requirements as to how it is spent. (A) General revenue sharing (B) Categorical grants (C) Grants-in-aid (D) Block grants
Answer: (A) General revenue sharing 3
A form of national subsidy to the states designed to help them pay for policies and programs that are the responsibility of states rather than the national government became known as (A) general revenue sharing. (B) grants-in-aid. (C) unfunded mandates. (D) unmandated funding.
Answer: (B) grants-in-aid. 4
The notion that the distinction between state and national responsibilities is unclear and that the different levels of government share responsibilities in many areas is known as: (A) the doctrine of nullification (B) duel federalism (C) cooperative federalism (D) new federalism
Answer: (C) cooperative federalism 5
The act of declaring a national law null and void within a state's borders is known as (A) overriding. (B) nullification. (C) voiding. (D) downgrading.
Answer: (B) nullification. 6
_______ refers to the obligation of states to return people accused of a crime to the state from which they fled. (A) Interstate rendition (B) Enabling act.
(C) The good neighbor policy (D) “Full faith and credit” Answer: (A) Interstate rendition 7
The provision in the Constitution that requires states to honor the civil obligations generated by other states is known as (A) interstate rendition. (B) “full faith and credit.” (C) enabling act. (D) devolution.
Answer: (B) “full faith and credit.” 8
_____ are powers listed in the Constitution as belonging to both the national and state governments. (A) God-given powers (B) Supreme Powers (C) Police power (D) Concurrent powers
Answer: (D) Concurrent powers 9
______ is a political system in which regional governments share power with a central or national government, but each level of government has legal powers that are independent of the other. (A) Socialism (B) Federalism (C) Unitary system (D) Cooperation
Answer: (B) Federalism 10 A political system in which the power is concentrated in the national government, and the regional governments can exercise only those powers granted them by the central government, is called a (A) unitary system. (B) confederal system. (C) democratic system. (D) federal system. Answer: (A) unitary system. 11 Chapter 3 of your textbook identifies three distinct types of political systems. Which of the following is NOT one of the political systems discussed? (A) Unitary systems (B) Federal systems
(C) Exclusionary systems (D) Confederation Answer: (C) Exclusionary systems 12 The specific grants of power given to the national government that are listed in the Constitution are called (A) implied powers. (B) enumerated powers. (C) concurrent powers. (D) separation of powers. Answer: (B) enumerated powers. 13 The advantages of federalism are (A) dispersal of power and factions, policy experimentation, and accommodation of diverse interests. (B) legislative expertise, dispersal of power and factions, and representation of diverse interests. (C) states’ right to withdraw from the larger union, universal suffrage, and limited power and authority of the central government. (D) the ability of factions to dominate local government, efficient coordination of local laws, and government accountability. Answer: (A) dispersal of power and factions, policy experimentation, and accommodation of diverse interests. 14 _________ is/are a type of federal grant that provides money for a specific policy activity and details how the programs are to be carried out. (A) Block grants (B) General revenue sharing (C) Quasi grants (D) Categorical grants Answer: (D) Categorical grants 15 _________ is/are a type of federal grant that provides funds for a general policy area but offers state and local governments discretion in designing the specific programs. (A) Grants-in-aid (B) Block grants (C) Categorical grants (D) General revenue sharing Answer: (B) Block grants 16 Although the Supreme Court ruled that Congress could tax someone if they did not buy health insurance, the Court ruled that Congress could not force someone to buy health insurance. Had Congress been able to directly force people to buy health insurance, the power would have been granted under what clause of the Constitution?
Answer: 17 Which level of government has more power in a confederation? Answer: 18 Amendment Ten to the Constitution (A) reserves constitutional powers not given to the national government to the state governments, or to the people. (B) reserves constitutional powers not given to the state governments to the national government, or to the people. (C) gives a specific list of powers that state governments have. (D) gives a specific list of powers that the national governments has. Answer: (A) reserves constitutional powers not given to the national government to the state governments, or to the people. 19 Medicaid is an example of a grant-in-aid program because it is (A) primarily state-funded but partially federally-administered. (B) neither state-funded nor state-administered. (C) privately-funded but federally-administered. (D) partially federally funded but primarily state-administered. Answer: (D) partially federally funded but primarily state-administered. 20 Some people argue that all states should be required to recognize same-sex marriages due to which clause in the Constitution? (A) Full Faith and Credit Clause (B) Free Exercise Clause (C) Supremacy Clause (D) Commerce Clause Answer: (A) Full Faith and Credit Clause 21 In which type of governmental system do the people grant significant powers to state governments, and then state governments grant limited powers to the federal government? (A) Unitary (B) Federal (C) Confederation (D) Autocratic Answer: (C) Confederation 22 McCulloch v. Maryland expanded the power of the federal government by offering a broad interpretation of which clause of the Constitution? (A) Supremacy Clause (B) Commerce Clause (C) Necessary and Proper Clause
(D) Establishment Clause Answer: (C) Necessary and Proper Clause 23 The Mississippi Balance of Powers Act, which was a proposal that would allow the state government to choose not to enforce federal laws with which it disagreed, is an example of an attempt at (A) nullification. (B) cooperative federalism. (C) executive privilege. (D) unitary government. Answer: (A) nullification. 24 A resolution passed by Congress authorizing residents of a territory to draft a state constitution as part of the process of adding new states to the Union is called (A) interstate rendition. (B) a constitutional law. (C) a new state protocol. (D) an enabling act. Answer: (D) an enabling act. 25 Under preemption, Congress expressly gives (A) no preference to national, state, or local laws. (B) national laws precedence over state and local laws. (C) state and local laws precedence over national laws. (D) the president the authority to declare war. Answer: (B) national laws precedence over state and local laws. 26 Provisions in federal statutes requiring states and localities to take on certain responsibilities without covering any of the associated expenses is know as (A) an unfunded mandate. (B) a crossover sanction. (C) passing the bill. (D) devolution. Answer: (A) an unfunded mandate. 27 _____ is a process that returns the policy power and responsibility to the states from the national government. (A) Crossover sanction (B) Grants-in-aid (C) Devolution (D) Revolution
Answer: (C) Devolution 28 The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act marks the end of what model of federalism? (A) New federalism (B) Duel federalism (C) Cooperative federalism (D) None of the above Answer: (A) New federalism 29 The term _____was first used by President Richard Nixon and was intended to prompt a reversal of the trend of federal government expansion triggered by the Great Society Programs of the 1960's 1960s. (A) dual federalism (B) cooperative federalism (C) new federalism (D) state-centered federalism Answer: (C) new federalism 30 Polisciland is divided into four distinct political units. Each one of these units is only allowed to exercise the powers granted to it by a central government. Polisciland is a (A) confederal system. (B) federal system. (C) unitary system. (D) single-member district system. Answer: (C) unitary system. 31 Ad hoc federalism is (A) an approach to federalism that means advocating state or federal supremacy on an issue-byissue basis depending on ideological or partisan preference. (B) an approach to federalism that completely ignores state's rights. (C) an approach to federalism that advocates returning power to the states. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) an approach to federalism that means advocating state or federal supremacy on an issueby-issue basis depending on ideological or partisan preference. 32 The philosophy that national and state governments are independent sovereign powers with separate and distinct powers is (A) the definition of dual federalism. (B) a doctrine established by Supreme Court justice Roger B. Taney. (C) almost certainly an impractical and unworkable approach to state/federal relations. (D) all of the above.
Answer: (D) all of the above. 33 Considered independently, (A) states are a federal government. (B) states are confederal governments. (C) states are unitary governments. (D) none of the above. Answer: (C) states are unitary governments. 34 Polisciland is divided into four distinct political units. Each one of these units is a sovereign government and the central government must get their approval to make any policy decision. Polisciland is a (A) democracy. (B) oligarchy. (C) confederacy. (D) federal system. Answer: (C) confederacy. 35 The current conception of federalism, which emphasizes funding arrangements, might best be characterized as (A) state-centered federalism. (B) competitive federalism. (C) nation-centered federalism. (D) dual federalism. Answer: (B) competitive federalism. 36 Which of the following has become more common since the Reagan administration? (A) General revenue sharing (B) Grants-in-aid (C) Unfunded mandates (D) Unmandated funding Answer: (C) Unfunded mandates 37 Beginning with the New Deal in the 1930s and continuing up to the present day, the scope of federal authority has come to be interpreted even more broadly. During this period we have seen the rise of all of the following federal aid arrangements EXCEPT: (A) Unmandated funding. (B) Block grants. (C) General revenue sharing. (D) Grant-in-aid. Answer: (A) Unmandated funding.
38 McCulloch v. Maryland affirmed the implied powers of the national government by ruling that (A) the creation of a national bank was constitutional under the “necessary and proper” provision of the Constitution. (B) the creation of a national bank was unconstitutional. (C) jack-booted thugs could seize the property of citizens who “looked shady.” (D) states had a right to tax branches of the national bank. Answer: (A) the creation of a national bank was constitutional under the “necessary and proper” provision of the Constitution. 39 Among the advantages of federalism listed in your text is: (A) The national government can change state boundaries or merge two states together without the consent of the state legislatures. (B) Subnational governments can serve as the “laboratories of democracy” by trying out new policies on a small scale before they are implemented on a national level. (C) The national government can exercise complete control over states. (D) Laws in every state are exactly the same, so there is no confusion when one moves from one state to another. Answer: (B) Subnational governments can serve as the “laboratories of democracy” by trying out new policies on a small scale before they are implemented on a national level. 40 The division of power between the national government and state and local governments is known as (A) federalism. (B) a confederal system. (C) colonialism. (D) classical democracy. Answer: (A) federalism. 41 Categorical grants give state governments significant freedom in the operation of federallyfunded programs. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 42 The Supremacy Clause of the United States Constitution specifies that the Constitution carries more authority than state laws. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 43 Dispersal of power, policy experimentation, and accommodation of diverse interests are an advantages of
(A) an oligarchy. (B) federalism. (C) a unitary government. (D) a republic. Answer: (B) federalism. 44 The disadvantages of federalism include (A) faction, complexity, and inefficiency. (B) the dispersal of power and factions. (C) the representation of diverse interests and policy experimentation. (D) the dispersal of power and complexity. Answer: (A) faction, complexity, and inefficiency. 45 The term crossover sanction refers to (A) conditions placed on receipt of federal grants that have nothing to do with the purpose of the grant such as taking away a state's federal highway fund if it does not raise the drinking age to 21. (B) states punishing the federal government for taking action that infringes on states' rights. (C) the federal government punishing states for taking action that infringes on the federal government's authority. (D) state and federal laws that punish cross-dressing. Answer: (A) conditions placed on receipt of federal grants that have nothing to do with the purpose of the grant such as taking away a state's federal highway fund if it does not raise the drinking age to 21. 46 Using state and federal government spending as an indicator of governmental power and activity, we find that (A) federal power has expanded by taking away most of the important powers of states. (B) activity at all levels of government has grown over time. (C) government spending at the state level has been increasing at a faster rate than federal spending. (D) federal spending is higher than state spending only during periods of crisis such as the Great Depression in the 1930s and World Wars I and II. Answer: (B) activity at all levels of government has grown over time. 47 Which of the following is NOT part of the process of adding a new state to the Union? (A) Congress forms and incorporated territory (B) Residents of the territory petition Congress (C) Congress passes an enabling act (D) Three-fourths of the existing states approve the admission of the new state Answer: (D) Three-fourths of the existing states approve the admission of the new state
48 The notion that federal and state governments have separate and distinct jurisdictions is knows as (A) the doctrine of nullification. (B) duel federalism. (C) cooperative federalism. (D) new federalism. Answer: (B) duel federalism. 49 Washington, D.C. is (A) neither a state nor part of a state. (B) a sovereign power with rights equal to those of states. (C) constitutionally guaranteed equal representation in the Senate. (D) All of the above. Answer: (A) neither a state nor part of a state. 50 The U.S. Constitution, laws passed by Congress, and treaties made by the national government (A) can be legally nullified by state constitutions. (B) are the supreme law of the land. (C) are equal to, but not superior to, state laws and state constitutions. (D) All of the above. Answer: (B) are the supreme law of the land. 51 The authority of states to pass laws safeguarding “health, safety, and morals” of citizens is called (A) police power. (B) concurrent power. (C) power of moral authority. (D) new federalism. Answer: (A) police power. 52 A division of political power occurs (A) only in federal systems. (B) only in confederate systems. (C) in federal systems and confederate systems. (D) in unitary systems, federal systems, and confederate systems. Answer: (D) in unitary systems, federal systems, and confederate systems. 53 A political system in which the central government has only those powers that the regional governments choose to give it is called a (A) confederation.
(A) The Roman Catholic Church. (B) Texas A&M University. (C) The Department of Defense. (D) All of the above. Answer: (D) All of the above. 50 The federal bureaucracy (A) is centralized under the Executive Office of the President. (B) is government by centralized boards of control in each branch of government. (C) is overseen by Congress. (D) consists of numerous departments, independent agencies, and advisory committees. Answer: (D) consists of numerous departments, independent agencies, and advisory committees. 51 A public agency that makes decisions based solely on its technical expertise is an example of (A) patronage. (B) neutral competence. (C) technical policy. (D) neutral politics. Answer: (B) neutral competence. 52 The merit system is based on (A) political loyalty. (B) patronage. (C) demonstrated ability or expertise. (D) all of these choices. Answer: (C) demonstrated ability or expertise. 53 Which of the following is at the top of the executive branch hierarchy? (A) Cabinet departments (B) Independent agencies (C) Advisory committees (D) The Executive Office of the President Answer: (D) The Executive Office of the President 54 _______ established the first merit system for the federal bureaucracy. (A) Andrew Jackson (B) The Pendleton Act (C) Franklin Roosevelt (D) the Garfield Rule
Answer: (B) The Pendleton Act 55 The advantages or organizing public agencies along bureaucratic lines include (A) stability. (B) impartiality. (C) predictability. (D) all of these. Answer: (D) all of these. 56 Government bureaucracies are largely responsible for the performance of the governing/political system. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True