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Test Bank for Critical Care Nursing 9th Edition by Urden.
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Chapter 01: Critical Care Nursing Practice Urden: Critical Care Nursing, 9th MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. During World War II, what type of wards were developed to care for critically
injured patients? Intensive care Triage Shock Postoperative
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
During World War II, shock wards were established to care for critically injured patients. Triage wards establish the order in which a patient is seen or treated upon arrival to a hospital. Postoperative wards were developed in 1900 and later evolved into intensive care units. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 1 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: N/A TOP: Critical Care Nursing Practice MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 2. What type of practitioner has a broad depth of specialty knowledge and expertise and
manages complex clinical and system issues? Registered nurses Advanced practice nurses Clinical nurse leaders Intensivists
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
Advanced practice nurses (APNs) have a broad depth of knowledge and expertise in their specialty area and manage complex clinical and systems issues. Intensivists are medical practitioners who manage the critical ill patient. Registered nurses (RNs) are generally direct care providers. Clinical nurse leaders (CNLs) generally do not manage system issues. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 2 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: N/A TOP: Critical Care Nursing Practice MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 3. What type of practitioner is instrumental in ensuring care that is evidence based and
that safety programs are in place? a. Clinical nurse specialist b. Advanced practice nurse c.
Registered nurses d. Nurse practitioners ANS: A
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Clinical nurse specialists (CNSs) serve in specialty roles that use their clinical, teaching, research, leadership, and consultative abilities. They are instrumental in ensuring that care is evidence based and that safety programs are in place. Advanced practice nurses (APNs) have a broad depth of knowledge and expertise in their specialty area and manage complex clinical and systems issues. Registered nurses are generally direct care providers. Nurse practitioners (NPs) manage direct clinical care of groups of patients. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 2 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: N/A TOP: Critical Care Nursing Practice MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 4. Which professional organization administers critical care certification exams for
registered nurses? State Board of Registered Nurses National Association of Clinical Nurse Specialist Society of Critical Care Medicine American Association of Critical-Care Nurses
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN) administers certification exams for registered nurses. The State Board of Registered Nurses (SBON) does not administer certification exams. National Association of Clinical Nurse Specialists (NACNS) does not administer certification exams. Society of Critical Care Medicine (SCCM) does not administer nursing certification exams for registered nurses. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 3 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: N/A TOP: Critical Care Nursing Practice MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 5. Emphasis is on human integrity and stresses the theory that the body, mind, and spirit
are interdependent and inseparable. This statement describes which methodology of care? a. Holistic care b. Individualized care c. Cultural care d. Interdisciplinary care ANS: A
Holistic care focuses on human integrity and stresses that the body, mind, and spirit are interdependent and inseparable. Individualized care recognizes the uniqueness of each patient’s preferences, condition, and physiologic and psychosocial status. Cultural diversity in health care is not a new topic, but it is gaining emphasis and importance as the world becomes more accessible to all as the result of increasing technologies and interfaces with places and peoples. Interdisciplinary care is care among a variety of health care professionals with the patient’s health as the common goal. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 4 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: N/A TOP: Critical Care Nursing Practice MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment qwessays.com Distribution of this document is illegal
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d. gluconeogenesis. ANS: B
The nutritional alteration most frequently encountered in the hospitalized patient is proteincalorie malnutrition. The respiratory quotient (RQ) is equal to the VCO2 divided by the VO2. Fat, protein, and carbohydrates each have a unique RQ; thus, RQ identifies which substrate is being preferentially metabolized and may provide target goals for calorie replacement. This process of manufacturing glucose from nonglucose precursors is called gluconeogenesis. Gluconeogenesis is carried out at all times, but it becomes especially important in maintaining a source of glucose in times of increased physiologic need and limited supply. Fat is used as a source of energy. 28. Sodium and fluid restrictions ordered for the patient with heart failure are primarily aimed
at reducing use of medications. weight. cardiac workload. serum lipids.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
Myocardial infarction, nutrition interventions, and education are designed to reduce angina, cardiac workload, and the risk of dysrhythmia. Sodium restriction applies in the treatment of patients with heart failure because water follows sodium. Fluids should be restricted to 1500 to 2000 mL/day. Weight is an anthropometric measurement and is a long-term goal. Serum lipids is a biochemical data and is a long-term goal. Medications are used to control fluid levels in the body and prevention of angina and dysrhythmia. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which of the following signs would alert the nurse to possible nutritional alterations?
(Select all that apply.) Impaired wound healing Edema Nail growth Muscle atrophy diaphoresis
a. b. c. d. e.
ANS: A, B, D
Impaired wound healing, edema, and muscle wasting atrophy are indicative of impaired nutrition. Nail growth would indicate normal caloric intake. Diaphoresis refers to sweating and is indicated with exercising and infection. 2. A patient was admitted with ESRD and on hemodialysis. Which of the following
elements should be restricted? (Select all that apply.) Fluid Protein Carbohydrates Fats Phosphorus
a. b. c. d. e.
ANS: A, B, E
The kidneys are responsible for the balance of fluids, protein, and other nutrients. When the kidneys are functioning suboptimally, dietary intake of those substances must be restricted. Downloaded by: giftonwenna | gonwenn819@student.glendale.edu Distribution of this document is illegal
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Chapter 07: Gerontological Alterations Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A 68-year-old patient has been admitted to the coronary care unit after an inferior
myocardial infarction. Age-related changes in myocardial pumping ability may be evidenced by a. increased contractility. b. decreased contractility. c. decreased left ventricle afterload. d. increased cardiac output. ANS: B
Collagen is the principal noncontractile protein occupying the cardiac interstitium. Because myocardial collagen content increases with age, increased myocardial collagen content renders the myocardium less compliant and may be responsible for increased loading of blood vessels. 2. Age-related pulmonary changes that may affect this patient include a. increased tidal volumes. b. weakening of intercostal muscles and the diaphragm. c. improved cough reflex. d. decreased sensation of the glottis. ANS: B
Respiratory muscle function is affected by skeletal muscle and peripheral muscle strength. During aging, skeletal muscle progressively atrophies, and its energy metabolism decreases, which may partially explain the declining strength of the respiratory muscles. 3. A 68-year-old patient has been admitted to the coronary care unit after an inferior
myocardial infarction. Dopamine 3 mcg/kg/min has been ordered for this patient. What nursing implications should be considered when administering this drug to an older patient? a. No changes are noted in older patients with this drug. b. Drug effect is enhanced by increased receptor site action. c. Increased breakdown by liver hepatocytes occurs, increasing dosage requirements. d. Drug metabolism and detoxification are slowed, increasing the risks of drug toxicity. ANS: D
Reduced drug-metabolizing capacity is caused by a decline in activity of the drugmetabolizing enzyme system, microsomal ethanol oxidizing system, and decrease in total liver blood flow. Medications that depend on the cytochrome P450 group of liver enzymes are most affected because age-associated changes cause as much as a 50% decline in enzymatic function. 4. A 68-year-old patient has been admitted to the coronary care unit after an inferior
myocardial infarction. When caring for this patient, the nurse will give increased attention to skin integrity because of the Downloaded by: giftonwenna | gonwenn819@student.glendale.edu Distribution of this document is illegal
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a. thickening of the epidermal skin layer. b. loss of sebaceous glands.
c. increased fragility from loss of protective subcutaneous layers. d. decreased melanocyte production. ANS: C
Ecchymotic areas may be seen because of decreased protective subcutaneous tissue layers, increased capillary fragility, and flattening of the capillary bed, predisposing older adults to developing ecchymoses. Medications and physiologic factors may result in an augmented bleeding tendency and appearance of ecchymotic areas; nevertheless, consideration should be given to the possibility of older adult abuse if ecchymosis is widespread or in unusual areas. 5. An older patient is admitted to the hospital with an acute onset of mental changes and
recent falls. The nurse knows that the most common cause of mental changes is hypoxia. infection. cerebrovascular accident. electrolyte imbalance.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
Some slight memory dysfunction is common with increasing age, but a significant decline may represent a change in individual need and may be a result of acute or chronic conditions. Acute mental status changes caused by infection, metabolic imbalances, or medications are usually reversible after identification and treatment. 6. A nurse is teaching an older patient about the signs and symptoms of a myocardial
infarction. Which statement by the patient would indicate that the teaching was effective? a. “The pain in my chest may last a long time.” b. “I will feel like I have an elephant sitting on the center of my chest.” c. “The chest pain will be sharp and over the center of my chest.” d. “The pain may not be severe and may not be in my chest.” ANS: D
Myocardial infarction in older adults is often associated with ST-segment depression rather than ST elevation. Sensation of chest pain may be altered and may be less intense and of shorter duration. Other atypical symptoms may include dyspnea, confusion, and failure to thrive, which results in unrecognized signs and symptoms of cardiac problems and delays in diagnosis and treatment. 7. An older patient is starting a new medication that is metabolized in the liver and excreted
by the kidneys. Which is the best assessment to monitor the patient’s ability to tolerate the medication? a. Liver function tests b. Drug side effects experienced by the patient c. Kidney function tests d. Therapeutic drug levels ANS: B
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Adverse drug effects and medication interactions may be related to pharmacokinetics or the manner in which the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes a drug. The aging process is associated with changes in gastric acid secretion, which can alter ionization or solubility of a drug and hence its absorption. Medication distribution depends on body composition and on physiochemical drug properties. With advancing age, a patient’s fat content increases, lean body mass decreases, and total body water decreases, which can alter drug disposition. 8. An older patient is receiving a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following would
be a priority for the nurse to monitor? Electrocardiogram Lung sounds Blood pressure Level of consciousness
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
Decrease in number and size of nephrons begins in the cortical regions and progresses toward the medullary portions of the kidney. This decrease in number of nephrons corresponds to a 20% decrease in weight of the kidneys between 40 and 80 years of age. Initially, this loss of nephrons does not appreciably alter renal function because of the large renal reserve and a simultaneous decrease in lean muscle mass. 9. Which of the following can be a normal assessment finding for an older patient? a. Asymptomatic dysrhythmias b. Decreased urine output c. Increased respiratory effort d. Difficulty problem solving ANS: A
The incidence of asymptomatic cardiac dysrhythmias increases in older patients. The most common dysrhythmia is the premature ventricular contraction. Other common types are atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and atrioventricular conduction disturbances. All of the other findings are abnormal. 10. Chemical changes in a drug that renders it active or inactive is known as a. absorption. b.
metabolism. c. excretion. d. distribution. ANS: B
Metabolism is the chemical change in a drug that renders it active or inactive. Absorption is the receptor-coupled or diffusional uptake of drug into the tissue. Distribution is the theoretic space (tissue) or body compartment into which free form of a drug distributes. Excretion is the removal of a drug through an eliminating organ, often the kidneys; some drugs are excreted in bile or feces, in saliva, or through the lungs. 11. Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has the side effect
of renal failure, HTN, heart failure, and GI bleed in the elderly population? a. Indomethacin b. Ketorolac
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a. b. c. d.
Junctional escape rhythm Atrial fibrillation Unifocal premature ventricular contractions Ventricular tachycardia
ANS: B
The electrocardiographic tracing in atrial fibrillation is notable for an uneven atrial baseline that lacks clearly defined P waves and instead shows rapid oscillations or fibrillatory wavelets that vary in size, shape, and frequency. Junctional escape rhythm has a rate of 40 to 60 beats/min and regular rhythm but P waves maybe present or absent, inverted in lead II, PR interval less than 0.12 second, and QRS complex is 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. With premature ventricular contractions, the QRS can manifest in an unlimited number of shapes or patterns. If all of the ventricular ectopic beats look the same in a particular lead, they are called unifocal, which means that they probably all result from the same irritable focus. Ventricular tachycardia is caused by a ventricular pacing site firing at a rate of 100 times or more per minute, usually maintained by a re-entry mechanism within the ventricular tissue. The complexes are wide, and the rhythm may be slightly irregular, often accelerating as the tachycardia continues. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 256 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Cardiovascular MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity 70. Identify the rhythm.
a. b. c. d.
Junctional escape rhythm Atrial fibrillation Unifocal premature ventricular contractions Ventricular tachycardia
ANS: A
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Under normal conditions, the junction never has a chance to escape and depolarize the heart because it is overridden by the sinus node. However, if the sinus node fails, the junctional impulses can depolarize completely and pace the heart. In this strip, the ventricular rate is 38. P waves are absent, and the QRS has a normal width. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 260 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Cardiovascular MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity 71. Identify the rhythm.
a. b. c. d.
Junctional escape rhythm Atrial fibrillation Unifocal premature ventricular contractions Ventricular tachycardia
ANS: C
When all of the ventricular ectopic beats look the same in a particular lead, they are called unifocal, which is what is shown in this strip. This means that they probably all result from the same irritable focus. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 260 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Cardiovascular MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity 72. Identify the rhythm.
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a. b. c. d.
Junctional escape rhythm Atrial fibrillation Unifocal premature ventricular contractions Ventricular tachycardia
ANS: D
Ventricular tachycardia is caused by a ventricular pacing site firing at a rate of 100 times or more per minute, usually maintained by a re-entry mechanism within the ventricular tissue. The complexes are wide, and the rhythm may be slightly irregular, often accelerating as the tachycardia continues. In most cases, the sinus node is not affected, and it continues to depolarize the atria on schedule. P waves can sometimes be seen on the electrocardiographic tracing. They are not related to the QRS and may even appear to conduct a normal impulse to the ventricles if their timing is just right. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 263 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Cardiovascular MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity 73. Identify the rhythm.
a. b. c. d.
Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation Supraventricular tachycardia Torsades de pointes
ANS: B
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On an electrocardiogram, ventricular fibrillation appears as a continuous, undulating pattern without clear P, QRS, or T waves. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying REF: p. 264 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Cardiovascular MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity 74. Which noninvasive imaging technique is useful in diagnosing complications of a myocardial
infarction (MI)? 12-lead ECG CT MRI Echocardiography
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in diagnosing complications of myocardial infarction, such as pericarditis or pericardial effusion, valvular dysfunction, ventricular septal rupture, aneurysm, and intracardiac thrombus. Computed tomography is used to calculate the coronary artery calcium score. Echocardiography uses ultrasound reflected best at interfaces between tissues that have different densities. In the heart, these are the blood, cardiac valves, myocardium, and pericardium. Because all these structures differ in density, their borders can be seen on the echocardiogram. The standard 12lead electrocardiogram provides a picture of electrical activity in the heart using 10 different electrode positions to create 12 unique views of electrical activity occurring within the heart. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering REF: p. 284 OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Cardiovascular MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity
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b. c. d. e.
Increased peak pulmonary pressures Decreased urine output Hypoxemia Bradycardia
ANS: A, B, C, D
Clinical manifestations of abdominal compartment syndrome include decreased cardiac output, decreased tidal volumes, increased peak pulmonary pressures, decreased urine output, and hypoxemia. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Le el: Analyzing OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Trauma MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential 5. Patients immobilized because of spinal trauma are at a high risk for contractures. The
nursing management plan for these patients should include which preventive measures? (Select all that apply.) a. Consultation by PT and OT early in the treatment of the patient b. Turning and repositioning the patient every 2 hours as ordered by the practitioner c. Range of motion exercises 1 month after the spine has been stabilized d. Removal of splints every 4 hours and at bedtime e. Hand splints for patients with paraplegia f. Hand and foot splints for patients with quadriplegia ANS: A, B, F
Physical therapy and occupational therapy personnel should be consulted early in the patient’s course. Range of motion exercises are initiated as soon as the spine has been stabilized. Foot drop splints should be appliedGoR nA adDmEiS ssM ioO nRtoEp.rC evOenMt contractures and prevent skin breakdown of the heels. Hand splints should be applied for patients with quadriplegia. Hand and foot splints should be removed every 2 hours. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
TOP: Trauma
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Chapter 25: Kidney Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures Urden: Critical Care Nursing, 9th EditionEdition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient was admitted with multiple trauma who has been volume resuscitated. The nurse
suspects the patient is fluid overloaded. Which assessment findings would confirm the nurse’s suspicion? a. Venous filling of the hand veins greater than 5 seconds b. Distended neck veins in the supine position c. Presence of orthostatic hypotension d. Presence of a third heart sound ANS: D
Auscultation of the heart requires not only assessing rate and rhythm but also listening for extra sounds. Fluid overload is often accompanied by a third or fourth heart sound, which is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Renal MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity
REF: p. 622
2. Loss of albumin from the vascular space may result in which condition? a. Peripheral edema b. Extra heart sounds c.
Hypertension d. Hyponatremia ANS: A
Decreased albumin levels in the vascular space result in a plasma-to-interstitium fluid shift, creating peripheral edema. A decreased albumin level can occur as a result of proteincalorie malnutrition, which occurs in many critically ill patients in whom available stores of albumin are depleted. A decrease in the plasma oncotic pressure results, and fluid shifts from the vascular space to the interstitial space. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Renal MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity
REF: p. 627
3. A patient was admitted with acute heart failure who has been receiving diuretic therapy.
The nurse suspects the patient is hypovolemic. What auscultatory parameter would confirm the nurse’s suspicion? a. Hypertension b. Third or fourth heart sound c. Orthostatic hypotension d. Vascular bruit ANS: C
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A drop in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or more, a drop in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more, or a rise in pulse rate of more than 15 beats/min from lying to sitting or from sitting to standing indicates orthostatic hypotension. The drop in blood pressure occurs because a sufficient preload is not immediately available when the patient changes position. The heart rate increases in an attempt to maintain cardiac output and circulation. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Renal MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity
REF: p. 622
4. Percussion of kidneys is usually done to assess what parameter? a. Size and shape of the kidneys b. Presence of pain in the renal area c. Presence of a fluid wave d. Patient’s overall fluid status ANS: B
Percussion is performed to detect pain in the area of a kidney or to determine excess accumulation of air, fluid, or solids around the kidneys. Percussion of the kidneys also provides information about kidney location, size, and possible problems. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Renal MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity
REF: p. 623
5. In a patient with a distended abdomen, differentiating ascites from solid bowel contents
is accomplished by performing what assessment? a. Auscultation of bowel sounds b. Palpation of the liver margin c. Measuring
abdominal girth d. Eliciting a fluid wave ANS: D
Differentiating ascites from distortion by solid bowel contents is accomplished by producing what is called a fluid wave. The fluid wave is elicited by exerting pressure to the abdominal midline while one hand is placed on the right or left flank. Tapping the opposite flank produces a wave in the accumulated fluid that can be felt under the hands. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Applying OBJ: Nursing Process Step: Assessment TOP: Renal MSC: NCLEX: Physiologic Integrity
REF: p. 623
6. A patient has been admitted with acute kidney injury. The nurse knows the most
important consideration for evaluating the patient’s fluid status is what parameter? a. Daily weights b. Urine and serum osmolality c. Intake and output d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels ANS: A
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ANS: B
Hypermetabolism in SIRS or MODS results in profound weight loss, cachexia, and loss of organ function. The goal of nutritional support is the preservation of organ structure and function. Although nutritional support may not definitely alter the course of organ dysfunction, it prevents generalized nutritional deficiencies and preserves gut integrity. Enteral nutrition may exert a physiologic effect that downregulates the systemic immune response and reduces oxidate stress. 25. One theory suggests that organ dysfunction in MODS occurs in a sequential or progressive
pattern. Place the following organs in the order in which they are affected: 1. Bone marrow 2. Cardiac 3. Gut 4. Kidneys 5. Liver 6. Lungs a. 6, 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 b. 5, 4, 6, 1, 2, 3 c. 6, 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 d. 6, 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 ANS: C
Organ dysfunction may occur in a sequential or progressive pattern. Organ dysfunction may begin in the lungs, the most commonly affected major organ, and progress to the liver, gut, and kidneys. Cardiac and bone marrow dysfunction may follow. Neurologic and autonomic system impairment may occur and propagate the progression of organ failure, which is associated with illness severity and mortality. Organs may fail simultaneously; for example, kidney dysfunction may occur concurrently with hepatic dysfunction. After the initial insult and resuscitation, patients develop persistent hypermetabolism, a metabolic consequence of sustained systemic inflammation and physiologic stress followed closely by pulmonary dysfunction, manifested as acute respiratory distress syndrome. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The key to treatment of septic shock is finding the cause of the infection. Which of the
following cultures are obtained before antibiotic therapy is initiated? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood cultures x 2 b. Wound cultures c. Urine cultures d. Sputum cultures e. CBC with differential ANS: A, B, C, D
A key measure in the treatment of septic shock is finding and eradicating the cause of the infection. At least two blood cultures plus urine, sputum, and wound cultures should be obtained to find the location of the infection before antibiotic therapy is initiated. Antibiotic therapy should be started within 1 hour of recognition of severe sepsis without delay for cultures.
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2. Which of the following historical findings would indicate a high risk for latex allergy?
(Select all that apply.) Allergic reaction to anesthetics Eczema of the hands Congenital urologic disorder Asthma Health care worker
a. b. c. d. e.
ANS: A, B, C, E
Prevention of anaphylactic shock is one of the primary responsibilities of nurses in critical care areas. Preventive measures include the identification of patients at risk and cautious assessment of each patient’s response to the administration of medications, blood, and blood products. A complete and accurate history of each patient’s allergies is an essential component of preventive nursing care. In addition to a list of the allergies, a detailed description of the type of response for each one should be obtained. 3. Evidence-based guidelines for the treatment of septic shock include which of the following?
(Select all that apply.) Fluid resuscitation to maintain central venous pressure at 8 mm Hg or greater Low-dose dopamine for renal protection High-dose corticosteroids Administration of activated protein C Achieve central venous oxygen saturation of 70% or more
a. b. c. d. e.
ANS: A, D, E
There is no evidence to support the use of dopamine; low-dose steroids are part of the sepsis management bundle.
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