Writing for the Sciences Question Bank
Course Introduction
Writing for the Sciences is designed to develop students' ability to communicate scientific ideas clearly and effectively to a range of audiences. The course covers key principles of scientific writing, including clarity, conciseness, organization, and the use of evidence-based arguments. Students will practice writing lab reports, research papers, abstracts, and literature reviews, while also learning how to interpret and critique scientific texts. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, proper citation practices, and adapting style and tone for both specialist and non-specialist readers. The course prepares students to contribute meaningfully to scientific discourse in both academic and professional settings.
Recommended Textbook
Technical Communication with 2016 MLA Update 11th Edition by Mike Markel
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837 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Technical Communication
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Q1) Chapter 1 defines technical communication as a process encompassing which of the following?
A) documents and activities
B) documentation and analysis
C) process and analysis
D) diagramming and activities
Answer: A
Q2) To make it easy for readers to find the information they need, many technical documents are made up of small, independent sections.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Chapter 1 identifies correctness as a characteristic of good technical communication. In this context, correctness refers to the proper use of grammar and punctuation to accurately convey the intended meaning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Understanding Ethical and Legal Considerations
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Q1) ethicists such as Manuel Velasquez (2011) argue that whistle-blowing is justified if three conditions are satisfied. One condition is that there is strong evidence that the organization is doing something that is hurting or will hurt other parties. What are the other two conditions?
A) The employee has made a serious but unsuccessful attempt to resolve the problem through internal channels.
B) Whistle-blowing is reasonably certain to prevent or stop the wrongdoing.
C) The employee has suffered personal harm as a result of the wrongdoing, such as the loss of a promotion, a substantial decrease in salary, or physical injury.
D) The wrongdoing involves members of a minority group or affects individuals granted specific rights under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
Answer: A, B
Q2) When warning users about the dangers of products, writers should avoid using mandatory language such as must and shall.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Writing Technical Documents
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Q1) Which of these questions is NOT likely to help you revise your document?
A) Have I included all the elements my readers expect to see?
B) Have I left out anything in turning my outline into a draft?
C) Have I kept the project within the available budget?
D) Is the document persuasive?
Answer: C
Q2) Chapter 3 discusses three questions to ask about your audience during the planning stage of the writing process. One is "Why and how will the reader use your document?" What is another question to consider during planning?
A) What are your reader's attitudes and expectations?
B) How much time do you have to write the document?
C) Are your readers male or female?
D) Do you have enough money in the budget that you can afford usability testing?
Answer: A
Q3) today's composition tools cannot help you do which of the following?
A) convert text into infographics
B) cite and keep track of numerous research sources
C) translate text
D) convert handwriting into text
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Writing Collaboratively
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Q1) Chapter 4 offers six suggestions for participating in a videoconference. Which of these is NOT a suggestion from the chapter?
A) Practice using the videoconferencing system.
B) Dress as you would for a face-to-face meeting.
C) Arrange for technical support for all participants.
D) Speak louder than usual.
Q2) What two technologies make the collaborative writing process more efficient?
Q3) Companies sometimes use virtual worlds, such as Second Life, to conduct meetings and conferences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is one of the disadvantages of collaboration mentioned in Chapter 4?
Q5) Chapter 4 discusses five aspects of conducting meetings, one of which is setting your team's agenda. What are two of the other aspects?
A) minimizing scheduling conflicts
B) creating a style sheet
C) defining tasks for each member
D) none of the above
Q6) Is email a synchronous or an asynchronous medium of communication?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Analyzing Your Audience and Purpose
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Q1) As you complete assignments, why should you consider not only your instructor's expectations but also the audience and purpose specified in those assignments?
Q2) Chapter 5 discusses certain variables that lead to differences among cultures. Which of these statements about cultural variables is true?
A) Different organizations within the same culture can vary greatly.
B) Cultural variables line up in clear, predictable patterns.
C) Each variable represents a small number of attitudes.
D) An organization's cultural attitudes tend to be static over time.
Q3) Chapter 5 identifies seven categories of cultural variables "on the surface." One category is political. Which of these is NOT a category of surface cultural variables?
A) economic
B) social
C) religious
D) philosophical
E) technological
Q4) What mistake did McDonald's make when it printed takeout bags decorated with flags from around the world?
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Chapter 6: Researching Your Subject
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Q1) What kind of information is found in a periodical index?
Q2) Primary research is the set of sources that you consult while you are in the document-planning stage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With which research method does the researcher have the least amount of control?
A) field research
B) interviews
C) experiments
D) inquiries
Q4) Which of the following types of research is least like field research?
A) observations
B) inquiries
C) demonstrations
D) inspections
Q5) One stage of conducting an experiment is to establish a hypothesis. What is the next stage?
Q6) Chapter 6 lists five characteristics to consider when evaluating print and online sources. Name two of them.
Q7) What is the function of an RSS feed?
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Chapter 7: Organizing Your Information
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Q1) Your supervisor has asked you to write a completion report about a project you completed to improve the employee onboarding program at your company. Of the organizational patterns discussed in Chapter 7, which would be most logical and effective for describing the project?
Q2) one benefit of using a conventional pattern to organize technical information is that the pattern serves as a template or checklist, helping you remember which information to include where. According to the chapter, what is one benefit for your readers?
Q3) long, complex arguments can most often be organized according to one pattern. A)True
B)False
Q4) Of the options listed below, which is the most effective way to organize a document explaining which of three different trucks your company ought to buy for its fleet? A) classification
B) comparison and contrast
C) spatial
D) chronological
Q5) Which organizational pattern works best when readers want to get to key information as soon as possible?
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Chapter 8: Communicating Persuasively
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Q1) Which of these statements is true?
A) Writers who appeal to an audience's sense of reason never use graphics.
B) Writers who appeal to an audience's emotions usually do so dramatically.
C) Writers who appeal to an audience's emotions usually do not appeal to their sense of reason as well.
D) Writers who appeal to an audience's emotions usually appeal to their sense of reason as well.
Q2) A commonsense argument is usually more persuasive than numerical data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which three of the following are elements of an argument?
A) claim
B) persona
C) conclusion
D) evidence
E) reasoning
Q4) A post hoc argument claims that because A preceded B, A must have caused B.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Emphasizing Important Information
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Q1) Why should you avoid back-to-back headings, such as the following?
6. Approaches to Neighborhood Policing
6.1 Community Policing
Q2) Which of these statements does NOT identify a benefit of turning a paragraph into a list?
A) It forces you to reorder the sequence.
B) It forces you to look at the bigger picture.
C) It forces you to create a helpful lead-in.
D) It forces you to write more precisely and more clearly.
Q3) Whenever possible, you should combine two or more ideas into one paragraph to create a paragraph of 75 to 125 words-the ideal paragraph length.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An effective topic sentence will reflect which of the following?
A) the character of the writer
B) the title of the document
C) the coherence devices used in the document
D) the organizational structure of the document
Q5) Where should you place a transitional word or phrase?
Q6) Identify two coherence devices discussed in Chapter 9.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Writing Correct and Effective Sentences
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Q1) What is Simplified English?
Q2) Which sentence below shows a comma splice?
A) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular model, and it offers an unequaled blend of comfort and durability.
B) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular, comfortable, attractive, durable, and cost-effective model.
C) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular model, because it offers an unequaled blend of comfort and durability.
D) The 728B polo shirt is our most popular model, it offers an unequaled blend of comfort and durability.
Q3) Sentences are often easier to understand and more emphatic if new information appears in which position?
A) at the beginning of the sentence
B) in the middle of the sentence
C) after a semicolon
D) at the end of the sentence
Q4) What is a euphemism?
Q5) Chapter 10 describes six techniques for avoiding sexist language. What are two of them?
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Chapter 11: Designing Print and Online Documents
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Q1) Which principle states that the human eye is drawn to-and that the brain interprets-differences in appearance between two items?
Q2) You are writing a report using a template provided by your supervisor. If you increase the margins around your pages by 30 percent and do not change anything else, which aspect of the overall design will change the most?
A) proximity
B) alignment
C) contrast
D) repetition
Q3) A technical writer is designing a manual to be used by technicians repairing stereo systems. Repair technicians will be seated at workbenches with bright lighting overhead. They will need both hands to work on the equipment while reading manual instructions. Which of the following design decisions is inappropriate?
A) using perfect binding
B) choosing a size of 6 x 9 inches for the manual
C) printing on nonglare, tinted paper
D) making the manual as concise as possible
Q4) What is queuing?
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Chapter 12: Creating Graphics
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Q1) A writer is creating a table that has 22 rows and 6 columns of data, all of which must appear on one page. To prevent readers from misinterpreting the data, which of the following techniques should the writer apply to the table?
A) drawing a horizontal rule after each row of data
B) using thick grid lines to help readers distinguish information in adjoining cells
C) grouping rows together in a logical order to help readers make comparisons
D) italicizing column heads
Q2) Graphics typically increase the costs of translating documents intended for international readers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chapter 12 discusses five principles for making a graphic clear and understandable. One principle is that the graphic should have a purpose. What is another principle for making an effective graphic?
Q4) Many Western hand gestures, such as the "okay" sign, are considered obscene in other cultures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Reviewing, Evaluating, and Testing Documents and Web Sites
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Q1) which type of person is NOT typically involved in a usability evaluation?
A) subject-matter expert (SME)
B) user of the item being evaluated
C) informed-consent coordinator
D) usability expert
Q2) What is an SME?
Q3) One factor affecting your decision about whether to review, evaluate, or test a document is that document's relative importance. What are two other factors?
A) subjective satisfaction
B) time
C) money
D) whether the document or website is written in English
Q4) Proofreading is the process of looking again at your draft to see if your initial assumptions about your audience, purpose, and subject still pertain, then making any necessary changes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) what is a prototype?
Q6) In usability testing, what is informed consent?
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Chapter 14: Writing Correspondence
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Q1) What does it mean to "link generously" when posting to a microblog at work?
A) Post links to websites and articles that are relevant to a subject you are discussing online.
B) Post links to as many online articles about your company as possible.
C) Post links for opportunities to give to charities.
D) Post links to a competitor's website after each link to your own company's information.
Q2) A salutation is a greeting at the beginning of a letter, traditionally consisting of the word "Dear," the reader's courtesy title and last name, and a colon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Clichés make your writing shorter and more efficient.
B) Clichés are a good way to write with the "you attitude."
C) Clichés give your writing a stilted tone.
D) Clichés give your writing a contemporary touch.
Q4) Provide an example of a letter cliché.
Q5) Chapter 14 describes two common letter formats. One is modified block. What is the other format described in the chapter?
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Chapter 15: Writing Job-Application Materials
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Q1) which of these is a guideline for preparing for a job interview?
A) Study organizations that are similar to the one that will interview you.
B) Study lists of common interview questions.
C) If you get to ask questions, focus yours on company salary and benefit policies.
D) Avoid mock interviews or any type of rehearsing.
Q2) Which of these statements best explains how your use of social media affects your professional brand?
A) Potential employers will review your social-media use as one way to judge how well you would succeed at marketing.
B) Potential employers will review your social-media use to see if you are a fun person to be around.
C) Potential employers will review your social-media use as one way to assess how you would behave on the job.
D) Potential employers will review your social-media use to see if you take good pictures.
Q3) Chapter 15 lists six guidelines for building the foundation of your professional brand. One is to research what others have done. Name two other guidelines.
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Chapter 16: Writing Proposals
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Q1) which of these is NOT a useful guideline for creating a proposal for an audience in a different culture?
A) Budget time for translation.
B) Understand that what makes an argument persuasive can differ from one culture to another.
C) Focus on costs.
D) Ask if the prospective customer will do a read-through.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a quality-control measure?
A) a formative evaluation conducted by members of the project team
B) a performance test conducted by a third party
C) a list of all the heavy equipment used in a construction project
D) an on-site evaluation conducted by the customer
Q3) What do the initials RFP stand for?
Q4) In which situation might you present your proposal as a memo?
A) when your proposal is lengthy-more than 10 pages
B) when your audience is external
C) when your audience is internal
D) None of the responses are correct.
Q5) In the sample internal proposal presented at the end of Chapter 16, what are the authors proposing to do?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Writing Informational Reports
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Q1) field reports "explain problems, methods, results, and conclusions, but they deemphasize methods and can include recommendations." What does it mean to deemphasize methods?
A) Spend less effort describing how you did the research and more effort on what you learned from it.
B) Write fewer words describing how you did the research and more words on what you learned from it.
C) Always make sure that your methods section is not the first section.
D) None of the responses are correct.
Q2) Which of these is NOT an important question to answer when writing an incident report?
A) What happened?
B) Whose camera recorded the incident?
C) Why did the incident happen?
D) What should be done in response to this incident?
Q3) A status report is usually organized according to task.
A)True
B)False
Q4) what are the two organizational patterns frequently used in progress reports?
Q5) what is the primary purpose of a field report?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Writing Recommendation Reports
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Q1) the results section of a recommendation report answers the question "What did you see?"
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these questions does NOT need to be answered in the footnotes or discussion following a decision matrix?
A) Why did you assign that particular weight to each criterion?
B) What are the most significant findings?
C) Why did you choose each criterion-or omit one the reader might have expected to see?
D) Why did you assign that particular rating to each option?
Q3) A feasibility report is an argument that answers three kinds of questions. One kind is questions of possibility. What is one other kind of question?
Q4) What fundamental question does the conclusions section of a recommendation report answer?
Q5) a report does not need a letter of transmittal if the writer and the reader work in the same organization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Writing Lab Reports
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Q1) The introduction to a lab report should accomplish which of the following tasks?
A) Describe the hypothesis or question that your study attempted to answer and why this hypothesis or question is important.
B) Provide an extensive, detailed review of previous research relevant to your study.
C) Describe in detail the methods you used to find an answer to your research question.
D) Define the important terms and present the theoretical background concepts you expect your readers will need to know.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of a descriptive abstract?
A) It contains a list of topics covered in the report.
B) It does not include the important results of the study.
C) It does not include the conclusions of the study.
D) All responses are correct.
Q3) The discussion section of a lab report is the appropriate section in which to interpret or explain your findings to readers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are author guidelines?
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Chapter 20: Writing Definitions, Descriptions, and Instructions
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Q1) what is the primary way to indicate the nature and the scope of a description?
A) writing an effective title or section heading to precede the description
B) using color cues and formatting changes
C) describing the nature and scope in the introduction to the report
D) creating a sentence definition that mentions the nature and the scope of the description
Q2) Which of the following is an effective sentence definition?
A) Cardiovascular exercise equipment is used by people to exercise their cardiovascular system.
B) A canteen is a clear Nalgene bottle used to hold liquids such as water, lemonade, soda, and sometimes hot beverages.
C) Velo binding is when two plastic strips are placed on either side of the document and bound together with heat.
D) Thermography is a printing process in which a special powder is added to the wet ink on the surface of the paper and then heated.
Q3) In what way is the definition "Booting a computer is when you turn it on" flawed?
Q4) What is the function of a conventions section?
Q5) What are the three types of descriptions discussed in Chapter 20?
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Chapter 21: Making Oral Presentations
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Q1) One technique a presenter can use to make his or her language more memorable is to involve the audience.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you are presenting to nonnative speakers of English, which of the following should you do?
A) Survey your audience for the most frequently spoken languages and arrange for translations of your slides into those languages.
B) Offer to provide free translations of the slides to any interested audience members following the presentation.
C) Include, directly on your slides, brief translations of the most essential content in the most commonly spoken languages.
D) Use simple vocabulary and slow down the pace of your delivery.
Q3) Inexperienced speakers encounter problems with five aspects of vocalizing. One aspect is volume. Name two other aspects of vocalizing that can be a source of problems.
Q4) Chapter 21 describes four types of oral presentations, including impromptu presentations. What are two of the other three?
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