World Regional Geography
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Course Introduction
World Regional Geography explores the spatial patterns and processes that shape the human and physical landscapes of the worlds regions. This course examines the unique characteristics of different regions including their climate, landforms, culture, economy, and political systems while highlighting how historical and contemporary forces influence these areas. Students will analyze global issues such as development, migration, urbanization, and environmental challenges by comparing regions in Africa, the Americas, Asia, Europe, and Oceania. Through maps, case studies, and current events, learners gain a deeper understanding of the interconnectedness and diversity of places across the globe.
Recommended Textbook
The Changing Earth Exploring Geology and Evolution 6th Edition by James S. Monroe
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Chapter 1: Understanding Earth: A Dynamic and Evolving Planet
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Q1) Earth's solid portion is divided into concentric layers of rock and other materials that may be solid,liquid,or partially molten.From the center to the surface,these are known as the inner ____________________,outer ____________________,lower ____________________,upper ____________________,and
Answer: core,core,mantle,mantle,crust
Q2) What is the sequence of steps in the formation of sedimentary rocks?
Answer: weathering,erosion,transportation,deposition,and consolidation/lithification
Q3) What are the characteristics of the Jovian planets?
Answer: The Jovian planets Jupiter,Saturn,Uranus,and Neptune are all large,gaseous bodies with rings and heavy atmospheres.
Q4) How is a theory formulated?
Answer: Theories are formulated using scientific method.Observations and data are gathered to test the problem.Tentative explanations,also called hypotheses,are then formulated to explain the observations and data.More tests are done and the data are analyzed.If the data show that the hypothesis is not correct,it is tossed out.If the data support the hypothesis,there are no significant data refuting it,and it is accepted by scientists,it becomes a theory.
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Plate Tectonics: A Unifying Theory
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Q1) The seafloor spreading hypothesis indicates what as the primary cause of continental movement?
A) volcanism in the ocean crust
B) convergence of tectonic plates
C) the formation and destruction of ocean basins
D) the convection of mantle heat
E) the decay of radioactive isotopes
Answer: C
Q2) What are four of the many things that plate tectonics theory explains?
Answer: Plate tectonics explains,at least to some extent,all of the following phenomena: the distribution of earthquakes and volcanoes,the locations of ore deposits and mountain systems,climate and ocean circulation patterns,and the geographic distribution,evolution,and extinction of life forms.
Q3) The three types of convergent plate boundaries are
Answer: oceanic-oceanic,oceanic-continental,continental-continental
Q4) At a convergent plate boundary,oceanic crust is ____________________.
Answer: destroyed
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Minerals The Building Blocks of Rocks
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Q1) The chemical formula of halite is NaCl.In simple terms,state how these atoms come together to form a solid mineral.
Answer: Sodium has only one electron in its outer shell,whereas chlorine has seven.Atoms want to have a full outer shell so sodium gives its extra electron to chlorine creating two ions; sodium now has a positive charge and is Na ,and chlorine has a negative charge and is Cl¯.This is called ionic bonding.
Q2) What is a mineral?
Answer: A mineral is a naturally-occurring,inorganic,crystalline solid with a definite chemical composition and characteristic physical properties.
Q3) The silicon atom of the silica tetrahedron has a (+/-)____________________ charge of ____ (number),and the oxygen atoms have a (+/-)____________________ charge of ____ (number).Therefore,the ion group has an overall (+/-)____________________ charge of ____ (number).
Answer: positive,four,negative,two,negative,four positive,4,negative,2,negative,4
Q4) The two basic types of luster are ____________________ and ____________________.
Answer: metallic,nonmetallic nonmetallic,metallic
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Chapter 4: Igneous Rocks and Plutons
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Q1) The most widely accepted explanation for chains of volcanoes in the oceans and lines of volcanoes on land is that they formed at ____.
A) divergent plate boundaries
B) normal faults
C) hot spots
D) convergent plate boundaries
E) transform faults
Q2) When magma cools slowly,crystal growth proceeds at a relatively ____________________ speed,and the resultant rock is ____________________ in texture.
Q3) Any individual volcano always erupts magmas of the same type.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Igneous rocks with a two-stage intrusive-extrusive origin are recognized by a texture which is ____.
A) aphanitic
B) porphyritic
C) glassy
D) phaneritic
E) pyroclastic
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Chapter 5: Volcanoes and Volcanism
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Q1) Crater Lake in Oregon is an example of a caldera.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is the correct ranking of regions with the most active volcanoes and volcanic activity?
1)Circum-Pacific belt
2)Mid-oceanic ridges
3)Mediterranean Belt
4)isolated sites like the Hawaiian Islands
A) 2, 1, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4, 1
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
E) 3, 2, 1, 4
Q3) Which type of volcano is Mt.St.Helens?
Q4) The chemical composition of all lavas is the same.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Besides monitoring,what other knowledge helps geologists determine what to expect for eruptions from a given volcano?
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Chapter 6: Weathering, Erosion, and Soil
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Q1) Explain why the ferromagnesian minerals most susceptible to chemical weathering are those formed early in the continuous branch of Bowen's reaction series.
Q2) A rock may be subjected to either mechanical or chemical weathering but never both at the same time.
A)True B)False
Q3) Thermal expansion and contraction occur because rock is an excellent conductor of heat.
A)True B)False
Q4) The process that decomposes rocks and minerals by altering the makeup of the parent material is called _______ _______.
Q5) How does loss of soil fertility exacerbate soil erosion?
Q6) How do soils that form in semi-arid to arid regions differ in their basic characteristics from soils that form in humid regions?
Q7) Explain why,and give two examples of how,climate is more effective in determining soil type than parent rock type.
Q8) Briefly explain how exfoliation domes form.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Sediment and Sedimentary Rocks
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Q1) Chert is hard rock consisting of microscopic crystals of silica that was shaped into sharp cutting tools by early humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly explain how dolostone is formed.
Q3) How does graded bedding form?
Q4) What is the most common and effective agent for transporting sediment?
A) wind
B) waves and currents
C) glaciers
D) storms
E) running water
Q5) The two major types of sediments that may become sedimentary rocks are ____________________ and ____________________.
Q6) Under what conditions do carbonates form?
Q7) Graded beds refer to sedimentary beds that show an increase in grain size from bottom to top.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Metamorphism and Metamorphic Rocks
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Q1) Name five of the more than 3,000 uses for asbestos.
Q2) An example of a region where mylonites are formed is ____.
A) the Cascade Range
B) the mid-oceanic ridges
C) the San Andreas Fault Zone
D) the Valles Marianas Rift Zone
E) the Mendocino Fracture Zone
Q3) Metamorphic rocks are very common in the crystalline basement rocks of shields.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Divergent plate boundaries are characterized by ____.
A) hydrothermal alteration and contact metamorphism
B) regional and contact metamorphism
C) regional and dynamic metamorphism
D) dynamic and contact metamorphism
E) hydrothermal alteration and dynamic metamorphism
Q5) Why is time important in metamorphism?
Q6) Metamorphism can be caused by increased temperatures.How can temperatures be raised,geologically,to bring about metamorphism?
Page 10
Q7) Metamorphism is most common along ____________________ plate boundaries.
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Chapter 9: Earthquakes and Earth's Interior
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Q1) Explain the differences between the magnitude and the intensity of an earthquake,in terms of how many intensities and magnitudes a single earthquake can have.
Q2) The temperature range at the core-mantle boundary is estimated to be between
A) 2,500 to 5,000 C
B) 5,000 to 6,500 C
C) 7,000 to 8,500 C
D) 8,500 to 10,000 C
E) 10,000 to 11,500 C
Q3) The focus of the most destructive earthquakes is almost always ____.
A) shallow
B) intermediate
C) deep
D) intermediate and deep
E) none of these
Q4) What is the evidence that Seattle is prone to earthquakes since there have been no quakes in historic times?
Q5) The study of earthquakes is called ____________________.
Q6) How does elastic rebound theory explain when earthquakes occur?
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Chapter 10: Deformation,Mountain Building,and Earth's
Crust
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Q1) When an isolated mountain range occurs in the interior of a continent,one may infer that the range formed by what?
A) the collision of two continental plates
B) compressive forces acting on the opposing margins of a single plate
C) the rifting of the continent
D) the growth of a volcanic arc
E) the collision of two continental plates AND the growth of a volcanic arc
Q2) A fault with both dip-slip and strike-slip movement is classified as a(n)____________________-____________________ fault.
Q3) What are uplifted blocks called?
A) tensional blocks
B) grabens
C) horsts
D) fault blocks
E) graves
Q4) What are some geologic processes which accompany orogenesis at oceanic-oceanic plate boundaries?
Q5) What is the dip of an inclined layer of rock?
Q6) How do geologists stabilize a slope for highway construction?
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Chapter 11: Mass Wasting
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Q1) In what ways are slope stability maps useful to planners and developers?
Q2) Mass movement in which material move as a viscous fluid or plastically is termed _______.
Q3) Why is the Uniform Building Code important for reducing mass wasting losses?
Q4) _______ adds weight to the slope material,decreases inter-grain friction,and lubricates the base of an unstable slope.
Q5) Slumps occur most commonly in well-consolidated material.
A)True B)False
Q6) A flow that is up to 30 percent water and at least 50 percent clay-sized particles is a _______.A flow with less water but larger particles is a _______.
Q7) Briefly explain why a region that is tectonically active may be particularly vulnerable to mass wasting.
Q8) How can vegetation affect the likelihood of mass wasting?
Q9) Landslide is
A) a general term for mass movements of earth materials.
B) a specific term for a mass movement of a defined type and speed.
C) a specific term used for mass movements on a volcano.
D) a specific term for the rapid movement of snow and ice downslope.
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Chapter 12: Running Water Streams and Rivers
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Q1) Distinguish sheet flow from channel flow.
Q2) A stream erodes material from its banks and bed by ____.
A) suspension
B) hydraulic action
C) abrasion
D) suspension and hydraulic action
E) hydraulic action and abrasion
Q3) A stream's velocity varies only along its length.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Meandering streams have semi-circular cross-sections along most of their length.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain the trade-offs that accompany any flood control project.
Q6) What evidence is there that reveals that water may once have been abundant on Mars?
Q7) Lateral erosion creates conditions along a stream valley that promotes movement of material by another geologic process known as ____________________.
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Q8) The two types of flow are ____________________ flow and ____________________ flow.
Chapter 13: Groundwater
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Q1) Caves do not form in marble because it is a dense and hard rock.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most detrital rocks are neither porous nor permeable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a natural fountain that intermittently ejects hot water and steam into the air?
A) hot spring
B) volcano
C) hydrothermal vent
D) geyser
E) aquiclude
Q4) The water stored in the open spaces within underground rocks and unconsolidated material is called ____________________.
Q5) The capacity of a material for transmitting fluids is known as its ____________________.
Q6) During times of drought,the water table ____________________.
Q7) The percentage of open space within a rock or sediment is known as its
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Chapter 14: Glaciers and Glaciation
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Q1) Earth's orbit varies from nearly circular to more elliptical in a roughly 100,000-year cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are eskers and how do they form?
Q3) How does the water bound in glaciers eventually re-enter the hydrologic cycle?
Q4) What are dropstones,and what do they indicate?
Q5) The Little Ice Age ended in the mid to late 1800s.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The distal end or edge of the glacier is called its ____________________.
Q7) An ice mass of compacted and recrystallized snow that flows under its own weight on land is called a(n)____________________.
Q8) Straight scratches on rock surfaces created by glacial abrasion are known as what?
A) rock flour
B) glacial striations
C) glacial till
D) varves
E) moraines
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Chapter 15: The Work of Wind and Deserts
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Q1) Wind is as effective an agent of landform creation,as is water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What factors enhance water erosion in deserts?
Q3) Stones whose polished,pitted,faceted surfaces have been produced by wind erosion are called ____________________.
Q4) The deflection of a moving mass from a straight line is known as ____________________.
Q5) Air flows from ____________________ pressure regions to ____________________ pressure regions.
Q6) The drainage characteristic of most deserts,in which streams dry up and do not have enough water to become integrated and reach outside their drainage areas,is called ____________________ drainage.
Q7) Why are large alluvial fan deposits of importance to human residents of deserts?
Q8) Equatorial regions receive the most heat,while polar regions receive the least.Therefore,what air pressures would you expect to be characteristic of these regions?
17
Q9) Why are flash floods and sheet flows common in deserts?
Q10) Briefly explain how mesas and buttes form.
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Chapter 16: Oceans, Shorelines, and Shoreline Processes
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Q1) By definition,beaches are composed of sand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regularly-sized waves with long,rounded crests are known as ____________________.
Q3) What are two ways (one natural and one human-induced)in which the sediment budget of a coastline can become negative?
Q4) How does the budget or volume of sand on a given beach change through the year?
Q5) Explain how a seismic profile is created and what types of information it provides.
Q6) Salinity of seawater is a measure of
A) the total sodium and chloride.
B) the total quantity of dissolved solids.
C) the trace elements.
D) the sodium and chlorine.
Q7) What are the most important reasons for changes in beach profiles?
Q8) Briefly explain what the effects of rising sea level are on the barrier islands along the United States coastlines,and why coastal communities are concerned.
Page 18
Q9) What path do water particles in a wave ideally follow?
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Chapter 17: Geologic Time: Concepts and Principles
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Q1) Time-stratigraphic units are units of rock sharing a specific lithology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which principle states that fossil assemblages succeed one another through time in a regular and predictable order?
A) principle of cross-cutting relationships
B) principle of inclusions
C) principle of fossil succession
D) principle of uniformitarianism
E) principle of superposition
Q3) What is the principle of superposition,and what is its importance? Who is credited with discovering it?
Q4) How are marker beds used to determine the age of strata in a region that has no marker beds but does contain strata with the same fossil assemblage zone?
Q5) What is the goal of subsurface correlation techniques that is used in the search for oil and gas?
Q6) Why was Lord Kelvin's argument for the age of Earth fundamentally in error?
Q7) What criteria are used to correlate rock units in different areas?
Q8) How does relative dating differ from absolute dating?
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Chapter 18: Organic Evolution The Theory and Its Supporting Evidence
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Q1) Briefly explain why critics did not readily accept the Darwin-Wallace theory of natural selection.What possibilities did they ignore?
Q2) What are body fossils?
Q3) Whether a mutation is harmful or beneficial can only be judged in respect to the conditions in which the organism lives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process that involves changes in the genetic makeup of a population is
Q5) If Parent 1 has the genetic makeup AA,meaning that he carries the dominant gene for trait A twice,and parent 2 has the genetic makeup aa,meaning that she carries the recessive gene for trait A twice,what is the chance that the offspring of these two parents will have the recessive form of trait A? Explain.
Q6) Lysenko's research was endorsed by the Soviet government because it seemed compatible with Marxist-Leninist philosophy.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is punctuated equilibrium?
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Chapter 19: Precambrian Earth and Life History
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Q1) What are prokaryotic organisms?
Q2) The Grenville orogeny occurred between ______ to ______ billion years ago
Q3) What is symbiosis?
Q4) Proterozoic layered igneous intrusions are the world's major source of chrome and platinum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The presence of thick sections of carbonate and sandstone indicates that Archean continents had well-developed shelf environments.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is an anaerobic organism?
Q7) Evidence for oxygen deficient atmosphere during the Archean includes the presence of detrital ____________________ and ____________________ in ____________________ rocks.
Q8) Banded iron formations,although rich in iron,are not economical to mine because of the chert.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paleozoic Earth History
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Q1) Rocks of the shield are primarily ____.
A) igneous
B) metamorphic
C) sedimentary
D) igneous and metamorphic
E) igneous and sedimentary
Q2) What is the name of the first major transgression onto the North American craton,and when did it begin?
Q3) Mobile belts form when convergent plate margins develop.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The clastic wedge that formed off of the uplifted Caledonian Highlands is known as what?
A) Old Caledonian Sandstone
B) Old Catskill Sandstone
C) Oriskany Sandstone
D) St. Peters Sandstone
E) Old Red Sandstone
Q5) The assemblage of the Late Paleozoic supercontinent concluded during the ____________________ Period.
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Chapter 21: Paleozoic Life History
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Q1) The factors which lead to the success of the reptiles on land include all except which of the following?
A) rapid locomotion
B) advanced jaws and teeth
C) method of reproduction
D) herbivorous feeding
E) none of these
Q2) The Carboniferous flora in coal-forming swamps was dominated by ____________________ plants.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of an exoskeleton?
A) protection against ultraviolet light
B) protection against predators
C) increased efficiency in reproduction
D) protection from drying out
E) support the organism to allow for increased size
Q4) Briefly discuss how the evolution of jawed fishes and other predatory creatures affected the marine ecosystem.
Q5) What selective advantages did an exoskeleton or shell provide?
Q6) ____________________ in jawless fish eventually developed into jaws.
Q7) What characterized the sphenopsid plant group?
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Chapter 22: Mesozoic Earth and Life History
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Q1) The effect of the meteorite impact at the end of the Cretaceous is thought to have been ____.
A) great input of particulate matter into the atmosphere
B) blocking of the incoming solar radiation
C) cessation of photosynthesis
D) collapse of the food chains
E) all of these
Q2) Diamonds
A) form at great depth where temperature and pressure are high.
B) are brought to the surface by explosive volcanism.
C) were formed intensely during the Cretaceous Period in South Africa.
D) all of these.
Q3) Ammonites were one of three major groups of Mesozoic marine fauna to go extinct at the end of the Cretaceous.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How distinct were Mesozoic mammals from their reptile neighbors?
Q5) What are terranes? How are they recognized? What role did accretion of terranes play in the growth of western North America?
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Chapter 23: Cenozoic Earth and Life History
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Q1) Briefly state the arguments against the human cause for extinction of large mammals at the end of the Pleistocene.
Q2) Which of the following cephalopods did not survive the Cretaceous extinction?
A) nautiloids
B) octopus
C) squids
D) ammonites
E) pleisiosaurs
Q3) During the Neanderthal era,what was climate characterized by?
A) balmy pleasant weather year-round
B) stifling hot summers and mild winters
C) long, frigid winters and short summers
D) temperatures extremes, frigid winters and hot summers
E) the same types of temperatures in the same places seen today
Q4) ____________________ was a robust creature with a developed social structure.
Q5) The oldest hominids belong to the genus ____________________.
Q6) The United States ranks first in global petroleum production.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Homo sapiens clearly evolved from ____________________.
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Chapter 24: Geology in Perspective
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Q1) What activities do humans engage in that make them geologic agents,and how effective are human activities at being geologic agents?
Q2) What will the effects of an additional 3 billion people by the end of the 21st century be on environmental issues? How will these people secure the things that they need?
Q3) Ask the students: Has learning the scientific basis of many issues caused you to change your mind or formulate an opinion on a topic? For example,do you now have a better sense about issues such as evolution,global warming,ozone depletion,etc.?
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