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World Regional Geography explores the diverse physical and human landscapes of the worlds major regions, including North America, Latin America, Europe, Africa, Asia, and Oceania. The course examines geographic patterns, environmental features, cultural traditions, economic systems, and political dynamics within and among regions. Emphasizing spatial thinking, students learn how geography shapes societies, influences global interactions, and contributes to contemporary issues such as migration, urbanization, and sustainable development. Through maps, case studies, and regional analysis, students gain a deeper understanding of the worlds complexity, interconnectedness, and ongoing change.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Geography A Landscape Appreciation 10th Edition by Darrel Hess
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20 Chapters
3397 Verified Questions
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198 Verified Questions
198 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The textbook asserts that human activities have accelerated global change.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) At the North Pole, the speed of rotation of the Earth is 0 kilometers per hour.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) How many degrees of latitude are there between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn?
A) 0
B) 23.5
C) 47
D) 90
E) 180
Answer: C
Q4) At one time, several nations had their own separate prime meridians.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Sample Questions
Q1) The first airborne platform for aerial photography was a ________.
A) balloon
B) airplane
C) kite
D) satellite
E) lighthouse
Answer: A
Q2) GPS was originally developed by the U.S. Department of Defense to guide missiles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is most closely identified with "multispectral remote sensing"?
A) radar imaging
B) color infrared photography
C) Landsat
D) microwave imaging
E) thermal infrared scanning
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The segment of the atmosphere which blends into interplanetary space is called the
A) troposphere
B) exosphere
C) stratosphere
D) mesosphere
E) thermosphere
Answer: B
Q2) The homosphere includes the lowest ________ kilometers of the atmosphere.
A) 0.8
B) 8
C) 80
D) 800
E) 8,000
Answer: C
Q3) Oceans heat and cool more slowly and to a lesser degree than do land masses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most oceanic gyres are centered at ________ latitude.
A) 3°
B) 30°
C) 53°
D) 66°
E) 90°
Q2) The circumpolar ocean current in the Southern Hemisphere is the ________.
A) Brazil current
B) Humboldt current
C) West Wind drift
D) Benguela current
E) Gulf Stream
Q3) Air is an excellent conductor of heat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using the global map supplied with this exam, sketch, label, and explain the main ocean currents associated with the gyres in the North Atlantic and the South Pacific Oceans.
Q5) ________ is an atmospheric substance which is one of the substances causing the greenhouse effect.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is the boundary between near-surface and cold, deep ocean waters.
A) Peru Current
B) Walker Circulation
C) tidal wave
D) Kelvin wave
E) thermocline
Q2) The intertropical convergence zone may be found as far as ________ north of the Equator in July.
A) 5°
B) 25°
C) 65°
D) 90°
E) 135°
Q3) A ________ is a seasonal reversal of wind.
A) sea breeze
B) taku
C) mistral
D) chinook
E) monsoon
Q4) The ________ is associated with Greenland and has a "warm" and a "cold" phase.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sky is covered with stratiform clouds. Without measuring, one could reliably guess the atmosphere is
A) stable.
B) unstable.
C) about to produce much rain.
D) metastable.
E) conditionally unstable.
Q2) Hail becomes larger because it collides with A) ice crystals.
B) raindrops.
C) sleet.
D) supercooled water.
E) water vapor.
Q3) The largest verified hailstone exceeded 5 kilograms (11 pounds).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Relative humidity is a measure of how close air is to saturation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Large raindrops, large snowflakes, or hail indicate ________ in the atmosphere.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cold fronts may advance faster than its parent middle latitude cyclone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most middle latitude cyclones occur ________.
A) in the trade wind flow
B) downstream of an upper level pressure trough
C) upstream of an upper level pressure trough
D) when the upper flow is zonal
E) only at night
Q3) A midlatitude cyclone is also properly termed ________.
A) a wave cyclone
B) a low
C) a depression
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Before occlusion, there are two fronts in a midlatitude cyclone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how tornadoes form.
Q6) Air masses rarely are generated in the ________ latitudes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the western United States has dramatically different climates from the eastern United States.
Q2) The difference between midlatitude and tropical deserts is the prevalence of lower winter temperatures in the midlatitude.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The three climate zones of the classical Greeks were "torrid", "temperate", and "________".
A) Arctic
B) cold
C) warm
D) equatorial
E) frigid
Q4) Oxygen isotope analysis is used when studying ________ and climate change.
A) ice cores
B) trees
C) dendrochronology
D) pollen
E) volcanoes
Q5) ________ is the climate of most of the southeastern United States.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of moisture in existence is finite and remains constant over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glaciers comprise about 2 percent of the total moisture on Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some underground ice forms in spaces between soil particles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water not in oceans accounts for ________ percent of the world's total water.
A) 2.8
B) 12.8
C) 28
D) 56
E) 74
Q5) As a landscape feature, natural lakes should be viewed as temporary in the context of Earth history.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Groundwater which comes to the surface without pumping is termed ________ water.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the form of nitrogen that is readily available for plants?
A) nitrates
B) nitrites
C) nitrous oxide
D) solid nitrogen
E) liquid nitrogen
Q2) Today, native plants are widespread in the parts of the world sparsely populated by humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Biological amplification is most closely associated with ________.
A) elephants
B) ozone
C) carbon dioxide
D) DDT
E) loud birds
Q4) The Linnaean system of classification is binomial.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A plant adapted to lack of moisture is a xerophyte.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a difference between plants and animals?
A) Animals need nutrients and plants do not.
B) Animals tend to be motile and plants are not.
C) Plants can fix solar energy into chemical form and animals cannot.
D) Plants are more prominent than animals on the landscape.
E) Plants have been more important to geographic study than have animals.
Q3) ________ is the arrangement in which two dissimilar organisms live together.
A) Symbiosis
B) Succession
C) Co-location
D) Cooperation
E) Paternalism
Q4) Compare/contrast the concept of the biome with that of the zoogeographic region.
Q5) One of humankind's most successful skills is eliminating other living things.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Birds are thought to have evolved from ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A soil with a high cation exchange would likely be
A) dark in color.
B) very sandy.
C) fertile.
D) impermeable.
E) thin.
Q2) The main "type" of water plants use is ________.
A) vadose
B) artesian
C) hydroscopic
D) capillary
E) aquiclude
Q3) On soils of the ________ soil order, the litter decomposes slowly and the upper part of the soil is so leached that it is light in color.
Q4) An Alfisol is most closely related to
A) an Andisol.
B) the tropical desert.
C) heavy weathering.
D) the tundra.
E) transitional environments.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A considerable body of knowledge concerning Earth's interior has been amassed through ________.
A) drilling wells
B) digging mines
C) studying seismic waves
D) studying Earth's magnetism
E) all of the above
Q2) ________ refers to the analytical element of landscape study which considers the actions that have combined to produce the landform.
Q3) In a Focus section in the "Introduction to Landform Chapter" the authors write about a hike in Horseshoe Park in the Colorado Rockies and looking back at North America from a spacecraft. The point of this Focus section is to understand more about ________ and the landscape.
A) local relief
B) rocks
C) folding
D) volcanoes
E) scale
Q4) Explain why geographers are as interested as geologists in geomorphology.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A volcanic mudflow is known as a(n) ________.
Q2) Which of the following concepts does not belong with the others?
A) plasticity
B) continental drift
C) midocean ridge
D) plate tectonics
E) a rigid crust with fixed continents
Q3) Which of the following are waves generated by earthquakes?
A) lahars
B) monoclines
C) plutons
D) pyroclastic flows
E) tsunamis
Q4) Using the idea of "mantle plumes," it is obvious that the crust associated with the Hawaiian Islands is moving from southwest to northeast.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Offset streams are caused by strike-slip faults.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ and amount of moisture present can be used to classify types of mass wasting.
A) Gravity
B) Temperature
C) Speed of movement
D) Amount of chemical weathering
E) Amount of mechanical weathering
Q2) In rock, ________ is another term for pressure release.
A) creep
B) slumping
C) unloading
D) rusting
E) oxidation
Q3) Soil creep, because it is so common, produces a rich array of landforms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clays are sometimes instrumental in mass movements because of their ability to ________.
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Q5) ________ are mass movement flows that occur on slopes in arid and semiarid regions.

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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a measure of the particle size a stream can transport.
A) Gradient
B) Equilibrium
C) Force
D) Competence
E) Capacity
Q2) In the system of stream orders, the smallest unit in the network is at the ________.
A) 1st order
B) 2nd order
C) 3rd order
D) 4th order
E) a variable number
Q3) The land separating adjoining valleys is known as a(n) ________.
A) levee
B) rill
C) interfluve
D) valley side
E) gulley
Q4) Explain what circumstances make streamflow so unsystematic and irregular.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pure water is an excellent solvent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tower karst forms spectacular scenery in which part of the world?
A) the Rocky Mountains near Denver
B) most of Alaska
C) Yellowstone National Park
D) the Alps of Europe
E) southeastern China
Q3) ________ is a term which refers to solution landscapes and literally means "barren land".
A) Dolomite
B) Doline
C) Karst
D) Speleothem
E) Fumarole
Q4) Limestone is so soluble that it usually produces very subdued karst topography-virtually flat surfaces.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A common characteristic of all the basins of interior drainage in the United States is that they ________.
A) are of very small size
B) are all in the western United States
C) all drain to the Pacific Ocean
D) are all drained by the Colorado River
E) are all in rugged mountain areas
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a specialized feature of desert environments?
A) Mechanical weathering dominates.
B) Soil creep determines slope development.
C) thin regolith
D) prevalence of impermeable surfaces
E) relatively intense precipitation
Q3) In the desert, lack of water causes thick coverings of regolith in most locations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Panamint and Armagosa Ranges are the mountains surrounding Death Valley.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The lower part of a glacier where there is a net annual loss of ice from melting and sublimation is the zone of ________.
A) evaporation
B) striation
C) ablation
D) till
E) névé
Q2) Which of the following does NOT belong with the following?
A) ablation
B) glacial growth
C) accumulation
D) equilibrium line
E) periglacial processes
Q3) Describe the similarities and differences between a valley glaciated by a continental ice sheet and one glaciated by a mountain glacier.
Q4) During the Pleistocene, glaciation extended across the North Sea to join Scandinavia and the British Isles.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) At one time, sea level was much higher than it is today.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most conspicuous geomorphic result of wave refraction is the focusing of wave energy on ________ with the result that they are worn back relatively quickly.
Q3) Waves become ________ when they travel beyond the influence of the wind that generates them.
A) higher
B) breakers
C) swell
D) forced
E) tsunamis
Q4) Global warming would cause
A) tectonic uplift.
B) inundation of coastal plains.
C) the seas to become less salty.
D) global eustatic fall of sea level.
E) the size of the world ocean to become slightly smaller.
Q5) An environmental concern of commercially developing tidal power is ________.
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