World History I Practice Questions
Course Introduction
World History I provides an expansive survey of human society from ancient times through the early modern era, exploring the development of civilizations across Africa, Asia, Europe, and the Americas. This course examines key political, economic, religious, and cultural transformations, as well as the interactions between societies through trade, conquest, and migration. Emphasis is placed on the rise and fall of empires, the development of major world religions, and the enduring impact of social structures and technological innovations on the shaping of the global community.
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Western Civilization 10th Edition by Jackson J. Spielvogel
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Ancient Near East: The First Civilizations
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Q1) The Sumerian government
A)came to view kings as agents of their gods.
B)saw the various city-states erect different types of governments.
C)was a theocracy in which the priest ruled.
D)was a type of aristocracy where nobles were appointed by an assembly.
E)was controlled by the merchant and artisan class.
Answer: A
Q2) The Egyptian pyramids were
A)built during the period of the New Kingdom.
B)part of a large spiritual complex near Alexandria.
C)conceived and built as tombs for a city of the dead.
D)all dedicated to the god Aten.
E)the final resting places of the pharaohs of the New Kingdom.
Answer: C
Q3) The earliest of the Mesopotamian empires was founded by Gilgamesh.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Ancient Near East: Peoples and Empires
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Q1) The covenant
A)acted as a contract between God and the tribes of Israel.
B)identified the Hebrews as God's chosen people.
C)could only be fulfilled by the Hebrews' obedience to the law of God.
D)was formed during the period of the Exodus
E)All of these are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) The principal economic basis of Assyrian society was
A)heavily irrigation-based farming.
B)agriculture based on farming villages.
C)international trade.
D)sea-based commerce.
E)manufacturing of luxury items.
Answer: B
Q3) Most biblical scholars claim that most of the early books of the Hebrew Bible accurately reflect the historical events of the Israelites.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Civilization of the Greeks
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Q1) The Battle of Marathon was a victory for A)the Athenian navy.
B)the Athenian hoplites.
C)the Corinthian archers.
D)the Spartan equals.
E)the Persian cavalry.
Answer: B
Q2) The term wanax refers to Mycenaean A)priests.
B)temples.
C)women.
D)slaves.
E)kings.
Answer: E
Q3) The vast majority of scholars do believe that Homer's Iliad has a basis in fact. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Hellenistic World
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Q1) How did Greek religious practices in the Hellenistic era differ from those in the classical era?
Q2) Who maintained that the only things that exist are atoms moving through the void?
A)Isocrates
B)Plato
C)Epicurus
D)Zeno
E)Isis
Q3) Who of the following led a revolt against Seleucid monarchy in Judea in the 160s B.C.E.?
A)Isaiah
B)Antiochus IV
C)Judas Iscariot
D)Jesus of Nazareth
E)Judas Maccabaeus
Q4) Why did Alexander of Macedonia's empire not last beyond his lifetime?
Q5) What made Alexander such a successful general? Give examples from his military campaigns.
Q6) Did women's lives improve during the Hellenistic Era? Why or why not?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Roman Republic
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Q1) What was the significance of Scipio Africanus in the Second Punic War?
A)He impeded Hannibal's advance in Italy through delaying tactics.
B)He expelled the Carthaginians from Spain and later won the decisive Battle of Zama.
C)He engineered a valuable alliance with the Gauls.
D)He first utilized elephants as "living tanks."
E)He saved Rome by leaving his farm, assuming military leadership, and then returning to his land.
Q2) The Struggle of the Orders
A)was a violent conflict between Rome's citizens and their slaves.
B)was a violent struggle between the patricians and plebeians.
C)was a peaceful struggle between the patricians and plebeians, won completely by the patricians.
D)was a peaceful revolution in which the plebeians were completely victorious.
E)was a peaceful struggle which resulted in political compromise.
Q3) For the Romans, ius gentium was that part of the law that applied to both Romans and foreigners, or was the law of nations and not just for the Romans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Roman Empire
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Q1) The early values of Christianity, as exemplified in Jesus' "sermon on the mount," A)emphasized devotion to the values of humility, charity, and true brotherly love. B)were similar to those of Greco-Roman civilization.
C)emphasized the equality between the earthly and spiritual kingdoms.
D)were dependent on the ethical tenets of Mithraism.
E)All of these are correct.
Q2) In the city of Rome, the poor were housed in massive apartment blocks known as "villas."
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Senate granted Octavian the titles Augustus and imperator (emperor), but he preferred to be addressed as A)pontifex.
B)dominus.
C)overlord.
D)senator.
E)princeps.
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Chapter 7: Late Antiquity and the Emergence of the Medieval World
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Q1) Augustine wrote which one of the following books?
A)Gospel of Truth
B)Consolation of Philosophy
C)Meditations
D)The City of God
E)Latin Vulgate Bible
Q2) What were the major contributions of Islam and Islamic civilization to the early medieval West? Be specific.
Q3) Muhammad was born in A)Jerusalem.
B)Rome.
C)Yathrib.
D)Constantinople.
E)Mecca.
Q4) Irish monasticism from the sixth through eighth centuries tended to be highly
A)ascetic.
B)isolationist.
C)scornful of pagan practices.
D)scornful of classical education.
E)anti-monastic.
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Chapter 8: European Civilization in the Early Middle Ages,
750-1000
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Q1) In Western Europe, the chief political repercussion of frequent Viking raids was A)the strengthening of centralized royal authority.
B)an increase in the power of the church.
C)an increase in the power of local aristocrats to whom threatened populations turned for effective protection.
D)a decline in the power of local aristocrats whose inability to stop the raids drove ordinary people into royal cities.
E)an increase in monasticism.
Q2) The German monarchy was restored in 919 when the German dukes elected Henry the Fowler, Duke of A)Bavaria.
B)Swabia.
C)Franconia.
D)Naples.
E)Saxony.
Q3) A vassal's primary loyalty was to the local church bishop rather than his secular lord.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Recovery and Growth of European Society
in the High Middle Ages
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Q1) The church figure who tried to reconcile faith with reason in his Summa Theologica was
A)Peter Abelard.
B)Saint Augustine.
C)Boethius.
D)Thomas Aquinas.
E)Peter Lombard.
Q2) In which of the following places was significant land "reclaimed" from the sea?
A)Ireland
B)Genoa
C)Netherlands
D)Spain
E)Russia
Q3) The curriculum of the medieval university
A)consisted of the trivium and quadrivium.
B)allowed for a wide degree of student choice.
C)was determined by the professors of the universities.
D)was based on the classics of Rome.
E)was based upon the Bible and the writings of the church fathers.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Rise of Kingdoms and the Growth of Church Power
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Q1) In general, monasteries performed all the following EXCEPT
A)prayed for themselves and others.
B)copied manuscripts.
C)provided food and clothing for the poor.
D)formed clerical guilds for priests and nuns.
E)took care of the sick and ran hospitals.
Q2) The founder of the Mongol Empire was
A)Alexander Nevsky.
B)Kublai Khan.
C)Genghis Khan.
D)Khanbaliq.
E)Vladimir of Kiev.
Q3) Second Crusade
Q4) What were the chief spiritual aims of the Catholic mendicant orders? How did the means they chose to reach these spiritual goals affect European society and politics, especially in cities?
Q5) It was to the advantage of the great lords of Germany to elect a strong king.
A)True
B)False
Q6) William of Normandy and the Norman Conquest Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Later Middle Ages: Crisis and Disintegration in
the Fourteenth Century
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Q1) During the reign of Edward III of England, the Great Council of the barons
A)became the chief advisory body of the king.
B)relinquished most of its main powers.
C)became the House of Lords, forming a hereditary body of peers in Parliament.
D)became subservient to the House of Commons.
E)was abolished in favor of a unitary parliament.
Q2) The term ars moriendi means
A)the art of dying.
B)the beauty of death.
C)the triumph of life.
D)the art of living well
E)the divine artist
Q3) Compare and contrast the Jacquerie with the English Peasants' Revolt.What accounts for the differences?
Q4) What were the main causes of the Great Schism? What were the major results of this political and religious conflict?
Q5) What were the major themes of the vernacular literature of Dante, Petrarch, Boccaccio, and Chaucer? How did the work of Christine de Pizan indicate both similar and different concerns?
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Chapter 12: Recovery and Rebirth: the Age of the Renaissance
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Q1) Propertyless workers and the unemployed constituted what percentage of the population living in cities?
A)10 to 20 percent.
B)30 to 40 percent.
C)50 to 70 percent.
D)70 to 90 percent.
E)greater than 90 percent.
Q2) What were the distinctive characteristics of the Renaissance artists? How does their art reflect the political and social events of the period?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of industries in fifteenth-century Italy?
A)Italian cities expanded luxury industries involving precious stones and glassware.
B)New techniques for digging deeper mines helped spur the development of larger mining operations.
C)The Florentine woolen industry never recovered from the economic depression of the fourteenth century.
D)New skills in metalworking contributed to the development of more effective firearms.
E)Printing was among the new industries that grew dramatically in importance.
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Chapter 13: Reformation and Religious Warfare in the
Sixteenth Century
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Q1) What was Christian humanism, and how did it help prepare the way for the Protestant Reformation? Did Erasmus' works pave the way for Luther's break with Rome and Catholicism? How?
Q2) In the eastern part of his empire, Charles V faced a threat to his power from A)France.
B)the Austrian empire.
C)the League of Cambrai.
D)Muscovy.
E)the Ottoman empire.
Q3) The Anabaptist leader who spread peaceful, evangelical Anabaptism that emphasized separation from the world as a means of better emulating Christ was Menno Simmons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Luther's ideas were most readily accepted in A)England.
B)France.
C)Italy.
D)Spain.
E)Scandinavia.
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1500-1800
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Q1) India's Mughal dynasty was
A)Hindu in religion.
B)Buddhist in religion.
C)Mongol in origin.
D)successful in expelling the British East India Company.
E)long native to the Indian subcontinent.
Q2) The Aztec empire, which Cortéz conquered in 1519, was located
A)in the Peruvian Andes.
B)on Cuba.
C)in central Mexico.
D)in southern Florida.
E)on the Yucatan Peninsula.
Q3) The first European nation to establish formal diplomatic relations with China was
A)England.
B)Russia.
C)the Dutch.
D)Venice.
E)Portugal.
Q4) What was "exchanged" in the Columbian exchange, and who gained the most?
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Chapter 15: State Building and the Search for Order in the
Seventeenth Century
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Q1) Louis XIV used his palace at Versailles to
A)dominate the nobility and display his grandeur.
B)pursue his interest in scientific experimentation.
C)cultivate luxury crops and enhance royal revenue.
D)get away from politics and spend time with his family.
E)provide a spiritual sanctuary from a troubled world.
Q2) Frederick William the Great Elector built Brandenburg-Prussia into a significant European power by
A)establishing religious uniformity in his kingdom, as evidenced in his eviction of the Huguenots.
B)freeing the peasants from the dominion of the nobles.
C)using his army whenever possible to gain his ends.
D)making the General War Commissariat the bureaucratic machine of his state.
E)allying Prussia with England and Russia against France and the Holy Roman Empire.
Q3) Why were women the prevalent victims of Europe's witch craze?
Q4) Define absolutism.To what extent can France's government in the seventeenth century be labeled an absolute monarchy?
Q5) What role did the nobility play in politics and government in Poland and England?
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Q1) The Inquisition found Galileo guilty of teaching condemned ideas and sentenced him
A)to be burned at the stake.
B)to serve as a galley slave on a Mediterranean shipping vessel.
C)to five years of hard labor in prison.
D)to write a tract in support of the Ptolemaic conception of the universe.
E)to house arrest.
Q2) What did Paracelsus, Vesalius, and Harvey contribute to a scientific view of medicine? Be specific and give examples.
Q3) On the Fabric of the Human Body
A)was Andreas Vesalius's masterpiece on anatomical structure.
B)contained William Harvey's theories on blood circulation.
C)contained theories on a macrocosm-microcosm universe advanced by Paracelsus.
D)was da Vinci's masterpiece that influenced so many doctors during the Renaissance.
E)was Cavendish's theory of human dissection.
Q4) Tycho Brahe agreed with Copernicus that the earth does indeed move.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How was the new scientific knowledge spread in the seventeenth century?
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Chapter 17: The Eighteenth Century: An Age of Enlightenment
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Q1) The Baroque-Rococo artistic style of the eighteenth century was
A)confined to France.
B)expressed in the architectural works of Baron d'Holbach.
C)evident in the masterpieces of Balthasar Neumann.
D)characterized by strict geometric patterns and an emphasis on power.
E)more severe and mathematical than the Baroque.
Q2) The punishment of crime in the eighteenth century was often
A)carried out by mobs after the criminals were charged in court.
B)less severe than the crime would merit.
C)the responsibility of the army.
D)public and very gruesome.
E)carried out privately so as not to inflame the general populace.
Q3) The works of Fontenelle
A)popularize a growing skepticism toward the claims of religion.
B)portray churches as allies of scientific progress.
C)discourage amateur conversations about scientific matters.
D)question the capacity of women to comprehend scientific discourse.
E)advocated the replacement of Catholicism with Protestantism because the latter was more liberal.
Q4) John Wesley and Methodism
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Chapter 18: The Eighteenth Century: European States, International Wars, and Social Change
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Q1) What were the characteristics of enlightened absolutism, and to what extent did the monarchies of eighteenth-century Prussia, Austria, and Russia meet the aims of enlightened absolutism? How did they fall short of employing enlightened ideals?
Q2) New European attitudes toward children are made visible in all of the following EXCEPT
A)changes in the ordinary clothing of children.
B)the production of more games and toys for children.
C)a reinforcement of the custom of primogeniture.
D)the great interest of lower-class mothers in breast-feeding infants.
E)childhood being viewed more and more as a special phase in human development.
Q3) The special legal privileges of the European nobility included all of the following EXCEPT:
A)judgment by peers.
B)immunity from severe punishment.
C)exemptions from most forms of taxation.
D)guarantees against becoming poor.
E)access to military and civil offices.
Q4) Did family life experience significant change during the eighteenth century? Why or why not?
Page 21
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Chapter 19: A Revolution in Politics: The Era of the French
Revolution and Napoleon
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Q1) The French revolutionary slogan neatly evoking the ideals of the rebellion was
A)"Down with the aristocracy!"
B)"Liberty, Equality, Fraternity!"
C)"Death to the king and queen!"
D)"Kill all priests and burn all churches!"
E)"The bourgeoisie will triumph!"
Q2) Just prior to the Revolution in France, the number of the poor in France
A)declined significantly.
B)went up significantly.
C)increased very slowly.
D)remained fairly constant.
E)decreased very slowly.
Q3) The Third Estate was composed of all of the following EXCEPT
A)shopkeepers.
B)peasants.
C)the unemployed.
D)skilled craftsmen.
E)the lower aristocrats.
Q4) Napoleon said that perhaps the world would have been better off if neither he nor Rousseau had ever lived.What did he mean?
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Chapter 20: The Industrial Revolution and Its Impact on European Society
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Q1) Compare and contrast the patterns of industrialization in Continental Europe and the United States with those of Great Britain.
Q2) Many of the exhibits shown in Britain's Great Exhibition were housed in the Houses of Parliament, to show the connection between industrial might and political power.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a reason owners of cotton factories employed children?
A)The small size of children facilitated their movement around machines.
B)Children represented a cheap supply of labor.
C)Children made up an abundant supply of labor.
D)Children were more easily broken to the discipline of factory work than adults.
E)Compulsory education from ages five to eight meant they could follow written instructions from factory supervisors.
Q4) How are changes in population growth and the development of urbanization related to the Industrial Revolution?
Q5) Why did the Industrial Revolution begin in Great Britain?
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Chapter 21: Reaction, Revolution, and Romanticism,
1815-1850
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Q1) Romanticism as an ideology and a mood embraced emotionality but avoided individualism, emphasizing notions of collectivity instead.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Louis-Philippe became known as the
A)"bourgeois monarch."
B)"the man of the people."
C)"the nobles' champion."
D)"diplomat king."
E)"utopian king."
Q3) At its most elementary Burkean level, conservatism
A)sought to preserve the achievements of previous generations by subordinating individual rights to communal welfare.
B)became the most popular political philosophy in Russia.
C)sought above all else the achievement of individual rights.
D)was never popular among the political elite of Europe.
E)championed individual rights and laissez-faire government.
Q4) Why was Britain able to avoid the upheavals of revolution in the 1830s and 1840s?
Page 24
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Chapter 22: An Age of Nationalism and Realism, 1850-1871
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Q1) The prime minister of Piedmont who organized the Italian unification movement was
A)Giuseppe Mazzini.
B)Giuseppe Garibaldi.
C)Camillo di Cavour.
D)Victor Emmanuel.
E)the Duke of Alba.
Q2) As a statesman, Bismarck can best be appreciated as
A)a determined nationalist who planned every move toward German unification.
B)a conservative but a traitor to his aristocratic class.
C)a consummate politician and opportunist capitalizing on unexpected events and manipulating affairs to his favor.
D)a narrow-minded tyrant incapable of mastering the art of negotiation vital to modern European diplomacy.
E)an enlightened despot.
Q3) How did the expansion of scientific knowledge affect the Western worldview and the everyday lives of Europeans during the mid-nineteenth century? How does this expansion of scientific knowledge differ from that in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
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Chapter 23: Mass Society in an Age of Progress, 1871-1894
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Q1) Early anarchists believed all of the following EXCEPT
A)people were inherently good.
B)state and society were responsible for corrupting people.
C)violence was the best means of achieving true freedom.
D)the state and all existing social institutions should be abolished.
E)All of these are correct.
Q2) Although the German Reichstag was elected on the basis of universal male suffrage, it had little power because government ministers were responsible to the emperor rather than the parliament.
A)True
B)False
Q3) France's defeat by Prussia in 1870 ended the Third Republic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In 1898, Spain defeated the United States in the Spanish-American War, hence breaking Cuba free from the United States.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
24: An Age of Modernity, Anxiety, and Imperialism, 1894-1914
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Q1) The artist whose work garnered the highest price at the first Impressionist auction was
A)Claude Monet.
B)Berthe Morisot.
C)Éduoard Manet.
D)Pierre-Auguste Renoir.
E)Vincent Van Gogh.
Q2) Inquiry into the disintegrative processes within atoms became a central theme in the new physics in part due to the experimental work of
A)Einstein on cosmic rays and gravity.
B)Marie and Pierre Curie on radium and radiation.
C)Planck on quanta.
D)Pasteur on microbes and infection.
E)Bergson on time and the "life force."
Q3) What did the New Physics and concepts of psychoanalysis contribute to Modernism?
Q4) By the end of the nineteenth century, the United States had become the world's third richest nation and greatest industrial power, behind Great Britain and Imperial Germany.
A)True
B)False
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War and Revolution
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Q1) In World War I, the participating states gave industrialists and businessmen greater freedom and independence from government regulations under the assumption that laissez-faire capitalism would be more efficient and productive in achieving the hoped-for victory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What caused the Russian Revolution? How did Lenin and the Bolsheviks manage to seize and hold power despite their small numbers? How did the Bolsheviks secure their power during the civil war?
Q3) The collapse of Russia's tsarist regime in March 1917 was aided by all of the following except
A)the leadership of the Mensheviks in forming the new Provisional Government.
B)a general strike in Petrograd.
C)the wartime casualties due to incompetent military leadership and poor equipment. D)strife in the ruling dynasty as evidenced by the influence of Rasputin, "the mad monk."
E)the incompetent political leadership of Nicholas II.
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Chapter 26: The Futile Search for Stability: Europe Between
the Wars 1919-1939
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Q1) One significant effect of the Great Depression in Europe was
A)the complete destruction of Communist parties.
B)huge unemployment rates in all nations but Great Britain.
C)the strengthening of liberal, democratic movements in the 1930s.
D)the rise of dictatorial movements in many areas of Europe.
E)the growth of free trade in order to spur economic recovery.
Q2) What were the causes of the Great Depression? How did the European states respond to the Great Depression?
Q3) Other than the Great War having ended, about what was there to be hopeful as the 1920s dawned?
Q4) The only eastern European nation to maintain political democracy throughout the 1930s was
A)Bulgaria.
B)Yugoslavia.
C)Poland.
D)Hungary.
E)Czechoslovakia.
Q5) Compare and contrast the Stalinist with the Bolshevik state established after the Russian Revolution in 1917.How and why did economic, social, and political policies change over time?
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Chapter 27: The Deepening of the European Crisis: World
War II
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Q1) When and why did the initiative in World War II pass out of Germany's hands?
Q2) Hitler's plan for defeating Britain relied on
A)the support of Soviet troops in a massive amphibious invasion.
B)Germany's Luftwaffe gaining control of the skies.
C)V-2 rockets to destroy British industrial power.
D)a submarine assault in the English Channel.
E)the support of Irish fifth-columnists.
Q3) Immediately following the fall of Poland
A)France and Britain declared war and started an offensive against Germany.
B)France and Britain decided to continue to appease Hitler.
C)France and Britain declared war, but remained relatively inactive militarily.
D)Germany turned on its Russian allies.
E)France was invaded by Franco's Spain.
Q4) The policy adopted by Neville Chamberlain at Munich in 1938 in response to Hitler's demand for Czechoslovakia's Sudetenland is known as "appeasement."
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Anti-Comintern Pact of 1936 included the Soviet Union, Germany, and Italy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What were the major political developments in the history of the Soviet Union from 1945 to 1970? How did Soviet policies affect the history of Eastern Europe?
Q2) What were the major developments in domestic politics in Western Europe, and how were they expressed in France, West Germany, and Great Britain? What efforts toward unity were made by Western European states?
Q3) In the postwar world, Canada
A)experienced many of the same developments as the United States.
B)saw much of the economic growth financed by European investors.
C)refused to join NATO.
D)did not become a member of the North American Air Defense Command (NORAD).
E)because of fear of being dominated by the United States, refused to have any relations with its more powerful neighbor.
Q4) The one issue on which the Arab states were united was
A)the Suez Canal.
B)equal sharing in oil revenues.
C)Palestine.
D)a sympathy for Communism.
E)the worship of Allah.
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Chapter 29: Protest and Stagnation: The Western World
1965-1985
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Q1) After the construction of the Berlin Wall, East Germany developed the strongest economy among the Soviet Union's Eastern European satellites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wars like the ones in Vietnam and Afghanistan demonstrated that
A)the superpowers could never be at peace.
B)there would always be sphere of influence in the world where the superpowers would be at conflict.
C)there would be wars that the superpowers could not win against a strong nationalist and guerrilla-type opposition.
D)warfare in the world would be incessant.
E)there could never be a military conflict between the superpowers.
Q3) What are the ideas associated with Marshall McLuhan's 1960s concept of the "global village"? Has he been an accurate forecaster of events from the vantage point of the early twenty-first century?
Q4) In what ways does the feminist movement between 1965 and 1985 resemble the feminist movement of the nineteenth century? How did the two differ in their goals and methods?
Page 32
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Chapter 30: After the Fall: The Western World in a Global
Age Since 1985
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Q1) How do the problems and antagonisms among the other countries of the former Yugoslavia exemplify the continuing force of nationalism in contemporary Europe?
Q2) The United States is home to 6 percent of the planet's people but consumes 50 percent of its resources.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first opportunity for testing the new relationship between the United States and the Soviet Union in the post-Cold War era was the
A)Chinese-Vietnamese War.
B)Arab-Israeli War.
C)war in Angola.
D)Persian Gulf War.
E)Iraq War.
Q4) The collapse of the Soviet Union took place in A)1989.
B)1991.
C)1993.
D)1994.
E)1995.
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