Workforce Planning Test Bank
Course Introduction
Workforce Planning is a strategic course that equips students with the tools and techniques necessary to anticipate and meet organizational staffing needs. The curriculum emphasizes analyzing current workforce capabilities, forecasting future requirements, and aligning talent management with business objectives. Students study labor market trends, succession planning, and workforce analytics, while exploring methods for addressing skill gaps and optimizing employee development. Real-world case studies and practical applications help students develop the ability to create comprehensive workforce plans that support organizational growth and adaptability in a dynamic business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 15th Edition by Gary Dessler
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18 Chapters
1980 Verified Questions
1980 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Resource Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Will works at a position in his organization where he maintain contacts within the local community and travels to search for qualified job applicants. Will's position is best described as:
A)recruiter
B)manager
C)labor relations specialist
D)job analyst
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are major areas in which an HR manager assists and advises line managers EXCEPT ________.
A)recruiting
B)hiring
C)strategic business planning
D)compensation
Answer: C
Q3) Human resource managers are generally staff managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Equal Opportunity and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the methods an applicant or employee can use to show that an employer's procedures (such as a selection test)have an adverse impact on a protected group?
Answer: In practice, an applicant or employee can use one of these methods to show that one of an employer's procedures has an adverse impact on a protected group: 1)disparate rejection rate, which is a method that compares the rejection rates for a minority group and another group (usually the remaining nonminority applicants). Federal agencies use a 4/5ths rule to assess disparate rejection rates. 2)The standard deviation rule, which is a statistical measure of variability that helps to describe the difference between the numbers of minority candidates who were expected to be hired and who were actually hired and should be less than two standard deviations. 3)Restricted policy is a method that demonstrates that the employer's policy intentionally or unintentionally excluded members of a protected group. 4)Population comparisons method, which compares the percentage of minority/protected group and white workers in the organization with the percentage of the corresponding group in the labor market.
Q2) Being disabled qualifies an individual for a job.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Human Resource Management Strategy and Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reese Enterprises seeks to fill upper-level positions internally whenever possible and uses validated selection tests when considering external hires. This most likely suggests the company is developing a ________.
A)high-performance work system
B)scorecard management system
C)benchmark and metric analysis
D)management by objectives strategy
Answer: A
Q2) High-performance work organizations are most likely characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)using more selection tests
B)empowered front-line workers
C)extensive training
D)commitment to high production rates
Answer: D
Q3) Strategy is a course of action.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Job Analysis and the Talent Management Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connor, a manager at a boat manufacturing firm, takes a talent management approach to his duties. Which of the following would Connor most likely do?
A)coordinate recruitment and compensation activities
B)use different competencies for recruitment and development
C)rely primarily on applicant testing results for hiring decisions
D)manage employees based on their experience with the organization
Q2) What is the final step in conducting a job analysis?
A)writing a job description and job specifications
B)validating all of the collected job data
C)collecting data on specific job activities
D)reviewing relevant background information
Q3) Competencies are observable and measurable behaviors, and organizations are required to define competencies based on quantifiable standards developed by the Department of Labor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
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Q5) In a brief essay, compare and contrast job descriptions and job specifications.
Chapter 5: Personnel Planning and Recruiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the pros and cons associated with using internal sources of job candidates? What are the pros and cons of using Internet recruiting to locate external sources of job candidates?
Q2) Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently?
A)low cost when hired through agencies
B)workers' desires for flexible schedules
C)high cost of workers' compensation insurance
D)weak economic confidence among employers
Q3) When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same.
A)staffing levels
B)currency rates
C)productivity levels
D)recruitment plans
Q4) All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________.
A)listing the job's attributes
B)providing the job's pay rate
C)publicizing the open job to employees
D)indicating the preferred number of applicants
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Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Content validity is based on showing that the scores on the test are related to job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of people in various occupations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n)________ test.
A)motor ability
B)personality
C)cognitive
D)interest
Q4) Organization-person fit is the primary concern of most employers during the selection process.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: Interviewing Candidates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Candidates who make an initial bad impression on an interviewer are typically able to reverse the situation if they close the interview in a strong manner.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are some common errors that managers make during interviews and what impact can they have?
Q3) The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A total selection program has the goal of selecting candidates whose totality of attributes best fits the employer's requirements.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following traits is most likely to be assessed accurately during an interview?
A)intelligence
B)agreeableness
C)conscientiousness
D)emotional stability
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Chapter 8: Training and Developing Employees
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Sample
Questions
Q1) ________ means collecting data about a group, department, or organization, and feeding the information back to the employees so they can analyze it and develop hypotheses about what the problems might be.
A)Laboratory training
B)Action research
C)Group therapy
D)Diversity training
Q2) Which of the following will most likely NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training?
A)confirming an employee's claims of skill and experience
B)providing extensive and appropriate training
C)evaluating the effectiveness of the training
D)paying employees for their training time
Q3) What is the second step in the ADDIE training process?
A)developing training aids
B)defining the training objectives
C)designing the overall training program
D)designating employees who need training
Q4) What is programmed learning and why is it used in organizations?
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Chapter 9: Performance Management and Appraisal
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an exit interview, a supervisor and a subordinate review the appraisal and make plans to correct deficiencies and reinforce strengths.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made?
A)behaviorally anchored rating scale
B)management by objective
C)mixed standard scales
D)forced distribution
Q3) The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to ________.
A)rank employees
B)use graphic rating scales
C)limit the number of appraisals
D)appraise personal characteristics
Q4) In a brief essay, discuss the components necessary for an effective performance management process.
Q5) What are the essential steps of the performance appraisal process?
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Chapter 10: Employee Retention, Engagement, and Careers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is primarily the role of the manager in an employee's career development?
A)providing career information
B)seeking development opportunities
C)providing academic assistance programs
D)providing accurate performance feedback
Q2) All of the following methods are used by firms to recruit and retain retirement-age workers EXCEPT ________.
A)implementing phased retirement programs
B)offering them flexible work arrangements
C)using psychometric selection tests
D)offering them part-time positions
Q3) Apex Carpet has a very high voluntary turnover rate, which executives at the firm want reduced. What is the most effective way to retain top-performing employees at Apex?
A)conducting more performance reviews
B)developing new recruitment strategies
C)establishing a talent management program
D)revising the organization's mission statement
Q4) What are the characteristics of an effective mentor?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Establishing Strategic Pay Plans
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the court system, the test that distinguishes an independent contractor from an employee is whether or not the firm provides the worker with health insurance benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Financial benefits like employer-paid insurance and vacations are not a part of employee compensation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which law makes it illegal to discriminate against any individual with respect to compensation because of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?
A)Fair Labor Standards Act
B)Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
C)Equal Pay Act
D)Taft-Hartley Act
Q4) Job evaluations are used to determine the pay scale of all employees in an organization from hourly workers to the CEO.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Pay for Performance and Financial Incentives
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are the CEO of Blue Bay Motor Boat Company, a mid-size firm that manufactures speed boats. What incentive plan would you implement for the firm's engineers? What incentive plan would you implement for the firm's managers? Explain why.
Q2) In order for a firm to have an effective incentive plan, there should be a clear relationship between employee effort and quantity or quality of output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are disadvantages associated with piecework plans EXCEPT that workers ________.
A)resist attempts to modify production standards
B)focus on production quantity instead of quality
C)view the plans as unfair and complicated
D)dislike new technology or processes
Q4) Robert Katz popularized the use of financial incentives for workers whose production exceeds some predetermined standard.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe what a Scanlon Plan is and its 5 major elements.
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Chapter 13: Benefits and Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sets minimum mental health care benefits?
A)Civil Rights Act
B)Employee Mental Health Act
C)Americans with Disabilities Act
D)Mental Health Parity Act
Q2) For individuals born in 1960 or later, the full retirement age for non-discounted Social Security benefits is ________.
A)62
B)65
C)67
D)70
Q3) Legally required benefits, such as unemployment insurance, are more costly to employers than health insurance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In addition to the funds contributed by employers, each state also contributes to funds for workers' compensation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Building Positive Employee Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three factors that combine to determine the ethical choices we make are called "Bad Apples," "Bad Behaviors," and "Bad Barrels."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an effect of an abusive supervisor?
A)more likely to stay with the company
B)higher stress
C)low job satisfaction
D)more likely to quit
Q3) According to surveys, at work, fair treatment reflects concrete actions such as, "Employees are treated with respect and ________."
A)properly served
B)treated fairly
C)terminated
D)not abused
Q4) Shared perceptions that organizational members have about the firm's psychological environment are called organizational climate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Labor Relations and Collective Bargaining
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the process of legally terminating a union's right to represent employees.
A)Union salting
B)Featherbedding
C)Decertification
D)Collective bargaining
Q2) Union pressure on a company's shareholders, directors, and customers is known as a corporate campaign.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Taft-Hartley Act prohibits all of the following union labor practices EXCEPT
A)forcing an employer to fire a worker for failing to attend union meetings
B)refusing to bargain in good faith with an employer about wages and hours
C)restraining or coercing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights
D)demanding an employer fire a worker who fails to pay union dues in a closed shop
Q4) What are the ways that an employer can lose an NLRB election?
Q5) What is union security? Explain the five types of union security.
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Chapter 16: Safety, Health, and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers are responsible for
A)transferring workers who are cited for OSHA violations
B)examining workplace conditions for OSHA compliance
C)scheduling annual consultations with OSHA representatives
D)replacing old equipment on an annual basis to comply with OSHA
Q2) Repetitive motion disorders include disorders such as carpal tunnel syndrome and tendonitis, and result from too many uninterrupted repetitions of an activity or motion, or from unnatural motions such as twisting the arm or wrist.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be considered OSHA's lowest priority for inspection?
A)conducting a follow-up inspection
B)investigating an employee complaint
C)investigating the occurrence of a fatality
D)performing a high-hazard industry inspection
Q4) What steps can employers take to prevent the entry or spread of infectious diseases in the workplace?
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Chapter 17: Managing Global Human Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the countries listed below, in which one do production workers receive the lowest hourly wage?
A)United States
B)Philippines
C)Germany
D)Taiwan
Q2) What are some reasons for firms bringing expatriates home early? How can firms ease the transition during repatriation?
Q3) In a polycentric corporation, the prevailing belief is that home country attitudes, management style, knowledge, and managers are superior to anything the host country might offer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As in the U.S., collective bargaining in Western Europe typically occurs at the plant level rather than at the industry level.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What staffing options do multinational firms have when filling positions in foreign subsidiaries?
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Chapter 18: Managing Human Resources in Small and Entrepreneurial Firms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to an outside vendor that manages HR functions for small businesses?
A)professional employer organization
B)human resource outsourcer
C)employee leasing firm
D)all of the above
Q2) All of the following are recommended activities for small business managers who are in the process of selecting a professional employer organization EXCEPT ________.
A)analyzing how the employee benefits are funded
B)checking the professional rating assigned to the PEO
C)assessing the PEO's staff for experience and depth
D)asking how the PEO will provide its services
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding SIMPLE IRAs?
A)SIMPLE IRAS require employees to make contributions each month.
B)Employer contributions to SIMPLE IRAS are not tax deductible.
C)Employers usually handle the IRS paperwork for SIMPLE IRAs.
D)SIMPLE IRAs have low administrative costs.
Q4) What are the strengths of small businesses? How can small businesses use these strengths to improve their HRM practices?
Page 20
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