Womens Health Nursing Exam Review
Course Introduction
Womens Health Nursing is a specialized course that explores the unique physiological, psychological, and social factors influencing womens health throughout the lifespan. The course emphasizes evidence-based nursing care in the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of womens health, with a special focus on reproductive health, pregnancy, gynecological conditions, and preventative health measures. Students will examine current issues affecting women's health globally and locally, integrating ethical, cultural, and legal perspectives while developing skills needed to advocate for women in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient could safely be cared for by a certified nurse-midwife?
A) Gravida 3, para 2, with no complications
B) Gravida 1, para 0, with mild hypertension
C) Gravida 2, para 1, with insulin-dependent diabetes
D) Gravida 1, para 0, with borderline pelvic measurements
Answer: A
Q2) In consideration of the historic evolution of maternity care, which treatment options were used over the past century? (Select all that apply.)
A) During the nineteenth century, women of privilege were delivered by midwives in a hospital setting.
B) Granny midwives received their training through a period of apprenticeship.
C) The recognition of improved obstetric outcomes was related to increased usage of hygienic practices.
D) A shift to hospital-based births occurred as a result of medical equipment designed to facilitate birth.
E) The use of chloroform by midwives led to decreased pain during birth.
Answer: B, C, D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2150
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse who works in the emergency department (ED) is assigned to a patient who is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding at 12 weeks' gestation. An ultrasound has confirmed the absence of a fetal heart rate, and the patient is scheduled for a dilation and evacuation of the pregnancy. The nurse refuses to provide any further care for this patient based on moral principles. What is the nurse manager's initial response to the nurse?
A) "I recall you sharing that information in your interview. I will arrange for another nurse to take report on this patient."
B) "Because we are shorthanded today, you have to continue to provide care. There is no one else available to provide care for this patient."
C) "I understand your point of view. You were hired to work here in the ED so you had to know this situation was possible."
D) "Abandonment is a serious issue. I have to advise you to continue to provide care for this patient."
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2151
Sample Questions
Q1) The middle school nurse is reviewing the phases of the endometrial cycle with a group of female students. Which statement by a student will the nurse need to correct?
A) "The proliferative phase occurs when the ovum is maturing."
B) "The expulsion phase occurs when the ovum is discharged from the ovary."
C) "The secretory phase occurs during the second half of the menstrual cycle."
D) "The menstrual phase occurs after the levels of estrogen and progesterone fall."
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is explaining the function of the male's cremaster muscle to a group of nursing students. Which statement accurately describes the function of the cremaster muscle?
A) Assists with transporting sperm
B) Aids in temperature control of the testicles
C) Aids in voluntary control of excretion of urine
D) Entraps blood in the penis to produce an erection
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While obtaining a genetic history from a female patient, you note that there is a family history of a genetic disease on the maternal side; however, no evidence of symptomatology in the patient or the patient's children, two girls. Which observation can you make related to genetic expression?
A) Autosomal dominant expression is observed.
B) X-linked dominant trait is observed.
C) More information is needed to determine the answer.
D) Autosomal recessive expression is observed and both the children will be carriers of the disease process.
Q2) Which statement regarding multifactorial disorders is correct?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining fetal circulation to a group of nursing students. Which information should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) After birth the ductus venosus remains open, but the other shunts close.
B) The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium.
C) The ductus venosus shunts blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava.
D) The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle.
Q2) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation best describes a man trying on fathering behaviors?
A) Reading books on newborn care
B) Spending more time with his siblings
C) Coaching a little league baseball team
D) Exhibiting physical symptoms related to pregnancy
Q2) An expected change during pregnancy is a darkly pigmented vertical midabdominal line. The nurse recognizes this alteration as A) epulis.
B) linea nigra.
C) melasma.
D) striae gravidarum.
Q3) Which physiologic findings related to gallbladder function may lead to the development of gallstones during pregnancy?
A) Decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels compared with nonpregnant women
B) Increase in albumin and total protein as a result of hemodilution
C) Hypertonicity of gallbladder tissue
D) Prolonged emptying time
Q4) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gravida 1 patient at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
Q2) You are performing assessments for an obstetric patient who is 5 months pregnant with her third child. Which finding would cause you to suspect that the patient was at risk?
A) Patient states that she doesn't feel any Braxton Hicks contractions like she had in her prior pregnancies.
B) Fundal height is below the umbilicus.
C) Cervical changes, such as Goodell's sign and Chadwick's sign, are present.
D) She has increased vaginal secretions.
Q3) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient's diet may not meet her need for folate. Which food choice is an excellent source of this nutrient?
A) Chicken
B) Cheese
C) Potatoes
D) Green leafy vegetables
Q2) When planning a healthy diet with a pregnant patient, what should the nurse's first action be?
A) Teach the patient about MyPlate.
B) Review the patient's current dietary intake.
C) Instruct the patient to limit the intake of fatty foods.
D) Caution the patient to avoid large doses of vitamins, especially those that are fat-soluble.
Q3) A pregnant patient has lactose intolerance. Which recommendation will the nurse provide to best help the patient meet dietary needs for calcium?
A) Add foods such as nuts, dried fruit, and broccoli to the diet.
B) Consume dairy products but take an over-the-counter anti-gas product.
C) Increase the intake of dark leafy vegetables, such as spinach and chard.
D) Use powdered milk instead of liquid forms of milk.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant patient. The following assessments are noted: nonreactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal breathing movements (FBMs), limited gross movements, opening and closing of hang indicating the presence of fetal tone, and adequate amniotic fluid index (AFI) meeting criteria. Which answer would be the correct interpretation of this test result?
A) A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal.
B) A score of 8 would indicate normal results.
C) A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment option.
D) A score of 9 would indicate reassurance.
Q2) The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following?
A) Advice to the couple
B) Information about the tests
C) Reassurance about fetal safety
D) Assistance with decision making
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Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
A) Rubella
B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C) Syphilis
D) HIV
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks' gestation for a glucose challenge test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?
A) "I have to fast the night before the test."
B) "I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose."
C) "I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution."
D) "I should keep track of my baby's movements between now and the test."
Q3) What is the value of the main line fluid rate for your patient, whose total fluid intake is ordered at 150 mL/hour and who is also being given magnesium sulfate at 1 g/hour (1 g = 25 mL/hour) IV piggyback and pitocin at 15 mU/minute (l mU/minute = 1 mL/hour) IV piggyback. ______
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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2159
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior puts her at a greater risk for
A) postmature birth.
B) sexually transmitted diseases.
C) hypotension and vasodilation.
D) depression of the central nervous system.
Q2) Which nursing diagnoses may apply to the childbearing family with special needs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Risk for spiritual distress
B) Risk for injury
C) Readiness for enhanced nutrition
D) Ineffective breathing pattern
E) Situational low self-esteem
Q3) Which action should the nurse take when counseling a teenaged patient who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?
A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2160
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is
A) total duration of labor.
B) level of pain experienced.
C) amount of cervical dilation.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
Q2) The nurse is explaining the physiology of uterine contractions to a group of nursing students. Which statement best explains the maternal-fetal exchange of oxygen and waste products during a contraction?
A) Little to no affect
B) Increases as blood pressure decreases
C) Diminishes as the spiral arteries are compressed
D) Continues except when placental functions are reduced
Q3) A patient whose cervix is dilated to 6 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor?
A) Latent phase
B) Active phase
C) Second stage
D) Third stage
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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring patient who imagines her body opening to let the baby out is using a mental technique called
A) imagery.
B) effleurage.
C) distraction.
D) dissociation.
Q2) Which method of pain management would be safest for a gravida 3, para 2, admitted at 8 cm cervical dilation?
A) Narcotics
B) Spinal block
C) Epidural anesthesia
D) Breathing and relaxation techniques
Q3) The best time to teach nonpharmacologic pain control methods to an unprepared laboring patient is during which stage?
A) Latent phase
B) Active phase
C) Second stage
D) Transition phase
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse documents that the fetal heart rate variability is marked. This indicates that the range is greater than how many beats per minute? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ bpm
Q2) Observation of a fetal heart rate pattern indicates an increase in heart rate from the prior baseline rate of 152 bpm. Which physiologic mechanisms would account for this situation?
A) Inhibition of epinephrine
B) Inhibition of norepinephrine
C) Stimulation of the vagus nerve
D) Sympathetic stimulation
Q3) The patient presenting at 38 weeks' gestation, gravida 1, para 0, vaginal exam 4 cm, 100% effaced, +1 station vertex. What is the most likely intervention for this fetal heart rate pattern?
A) Continue oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion.
B) Contact the anesthesia department for epidural administration.
C) Change maternal position.
D) Administer Narcan to patient and prepare for immediate vaginal delivery.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal prostaglandin preparation to ripen the cervix of her patient. With which patient should the nurse question the use of vaginal prostaglandin as a cervical ripening agent?
A) The patient who has a Bishop's score of 5
B) The patient who is at 42 weeks of gestation
C) The patient who had a previous low transverse cesarean birth
D) The patient who had previous surgery in the upper uterus
Q2) The labor nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient admitted in active labor with spontaneous rupture of the membranes 6 hours prior to admission with clear fluid. On admission, vital signs were as follows: maternal heart rate (HR) 92 bpm; fetal rate (FHR) baseline, 150 to 160 bpm; blood pressure, 124/76 mm Hg; temperature
F). What is the priority nursing action for this patient?
A) Fetal acoustic stimulation
B) Assess temperature every 2 hours
C) Change absorption pads under her hips every 2 hours
D) Review white blood cell count (WBC) drawn at admission
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C (99°
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention should be incorporated in the plan of care for a labor patient who is experiencing hypertonic labor? Vaginal exam is unchanged from prior exam-3 cm, 80% effaced, and 0 station presenting part vertex.
A) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) AROM
C) Performing a vaginal exam to denote progress
D) Preparing the patient for epidural administration as ordered by the physician
Q2) After a birth complicated by a shoulder dystocia, the infant's Apgar scores were 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. The infant is now crying vigorously. The nurse in the birthing room should
A) palpate the infant's clavicles.
B) encourage the parents to hold the infant.
C) perform a complete newborn assessment.
D) give supplemental oxygen with a small face mask.
Q3) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical finding should the nurse suspect if the fundus is palpated on the right side of the abdomen above the expected level?
A) Distended bladder
B) Normal involution
C) Been lying on her right side too long
D) Stretched ligaments that are unable to support the uterus
Q2) Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complication?
A) Fever and increased blood pressure
B) Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia
C) Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture
D) Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection
Q3) The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient who delivered by the vaginal route 12 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the health care provider?
A) Pulse rate of 50
B) Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F)
C) Firm fundus, but excessive lochia
D) Lightheaded when moving from a lying to standing position
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the nurse suspects a complication of a low forceps birth labor, she should immediately
A) administer a strong oral analgesic.
B) assess the perineal and vaginal areas.
C) assess the position of the uterine fundus.
D) review the labor record for duration of second stage.
Q2) A white blood cell (WBC) count of 35,000 cells/mm³ on the morning of the first postpartum day indicates
A) possible infection.
B) normal WBC limit.
C) serious infection.
D) suspicion of a sexually transmitted disease.
Q3) Nursing measures that help prevent postpartum urinary tract infection include
A) forcing fluids to at least 3000 mL/day.
B) promoting bed rest for 12 hours after birth.
C) encouraging the intake of grapefruit juice and carbonated beverages.
D) discouraging voiding until the sensation of a full bladder is present.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning to conduct the initial assessment of a full-term newborn. Included in the plan is providing a neutral thermal environment. To accomplish this plan, what is the desired environmental temperature to conduct the assessment?
A) 24 to 27°C (75.2 to 80.6°F)
B) 28 to 31.5°C (82.4 to 88.7°F)
C) 32 to 33.5°C (89.6 to 92.3°F)
D) 34 to 37.5°C (93.2 to 99.5°F)
Q2) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
Q3) Which infant has the lowest risk of developing high levels of bilirubin?
A) The infant who developed a cephalohematoma
B) The infant who was bruised during a difficult birth
C) The infant who uses brown fat to maintain temperature
D) The infant who is breastfed during the first hour of life
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a body system assessment of the newborn. Which are abnormal findings that the nurse should report? (Select all that apply.)
A) Low-set ears
B) Yellow sclera
C) A doll's eye sign
D) Edema of the eyelids
E) Absence of the grasp reflex
Q3) A new patient asks, "Why are you doing a gestational age assessment on my baby?"
The nurse's best response is
A) "It was ordered by your physician."
B) "This must be done to meet insurance requirements."
C) "It helps us identify infants who are at risk for any problems."
D) "The gestational age determines how long the infant will be hospitalized."
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching new parents how to avoid and treat newborn diaper rash. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Keep the diaper area clean and dry.
B) Do not use talc-based powders in the diaper area.
C) Cleanse the diaper area with a scrubbing motion.
D) Apply a thick layer of zinc oxide to prevent further outbreaks.
E) Remove the diaper and expose the perineum to warm air if a rash develops.
Q2) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.8°F)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths per minute
Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother conveys concern over the fact that she is not certain if her newborn is receiving enough nutrients from breastfeeding. This is the baby's first clinic visit after birth. What information can you provide that will help alleviate her fears regarding nutrient status for her newborn?
A) Monitor the infant's output; as long as at least six or more diapers are changed in a 24-hour period, the baby is receiving sufficient intake.
B) Tell the mother that if a baby is satisfied with feeding, she or he will be content and not fussy.
C) Tell the mother that breast milk contains everything required for the infant and not to worry about nutrition.
D) Provide nutrition information in the form of pamphlets for the mother to take home with her so that she uses them as a point of reference.
Q2) Which type of formula should not be diluted before being administered to an infant?
A) Powdered
B) Concentrated
C) Ready to use
D) Modified cow's milk
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Page 24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis would be considered a priority for a newborn infant who is receiving phototherapy in an isolette?
A) Hypothermia because of phototherapy treatment
B) Impaired skin integrity related to diarrhea as a result of phototherapy
C) Fluid volume deficit related to phototherapy treatment
D) Knowledge deficit (parents) related to initiation of medical therapy
Q3) Which statement regarding newborns classified as small for gestational age (SGA) is accurate?
A) They weigh less than 2500 G
B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.
C) They are below the tenth percentile on gestational growth charts.
D) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. If breastfeeding must be supplemented, formula should be used instead of water. The purpose of this plan is to A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
Q2) Infection can be transmitted to the neonate from mother during the pregnancy or birth or from the mother, family members, visitors, or agency staff after birth. Which viral infections are most likely to be transmitted during the birth process? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hepatitis B
B) Rubella
C) Herpes
D) Varicella Zoster
E) Cytomegalovirus
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is leading a discussion regarding options for birth control. Which of the following methods is considered the most reliable?
A) Coitus interruptus
B) Breastfeeding
C) Natural family planning
D) Intrauterine device
Q2) Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important since some of the methods
A) may not be reliable.
B) require a surgical procedure to insert.
C) have potentially dangerous side effects.
D) are invasive procedures that require hospitalization.
Q3) Which patient is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis.
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor.
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant.
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
Q2) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal bloating
B) Diarrhea
C) Oliguria
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Abnormal uterine bleeding
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28
Chapter 27: Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old patient. You expect the initial treatment to include
A) initiating hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the patient after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
Q2) Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a patient with breast cancer?
A) Radical mastectomy procedure
B) Radiation therapy
C) Sentinel lymph node mapping
D) Ultrasound
Q3) Which are the most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?
A) Kidneys
B) Bones and liver
C) Heart and blood vessels
D) Skin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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