Womens Health Nurse Practitioner Test Questions
Course Introduction
The Womens Health Nurse Practitioner course prepares advanced practice nursing students to deliver comprehensive primary care to women across the lifespan. Emphasizing both the promotion of health and the management of common and complex gynecologic and reproductive health issues, the course covers topics such as contraceptive management, prenatal and postpartum care, menopause, and the diagnosis and treatment of sexually transmitted infections. Students will learn to apply evidence-based practices in preventive care, screening, and counseling, with a focus on cultural competence, patient education, and collaboration within interdisciplinary healthcare teams. The course integrates theoretical knowledge with clinical experiences to ensure graduates are equipped to address the unique and diverse healthcare needs of women in various settings.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy
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21 Chapters
549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 3: Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency?
A)Calcium supplementation
B)Testicular self-examination
C)Bone density test
D)Digital rectal examination
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention in a 50-year-old woman?
A)Yearly mammogram
B)Low animal fat diet
C)Use of seat belt
D)Daily application of sunscreen
Answer: A
Q3) Prevalence is the number of new cases of a particular disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
A)Creating a physician expert panel
B)Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
C)Conducting an external review of a guideline
D)Developing evidence-based tables
Q2) Practice guidelines are designed to:
A)Be inflexible
B)Be utilized in every circumstance
C)Provide a reference point for decision making
D)Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession
Q3) Nursing research should be utilized by:
A)Nurses at the bedside
B)Advanced practice nurses
C)Nurse researchers
D)Nurses at all levels of practice
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4
Chapter 6: Neurological Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
A)No activity at all
B)A blank stare
C)Urine is usually voided involuntarily
D)The attack usually lasts several minutes
Q2) Which drug for Alzheimer's disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
A)Cholinesterase inhibitors
B)Anxiolytics
C)Antidepressants
D)Atypical antipsychotics
Q3) Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
A)It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
B)A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
C)A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
D)The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
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Chapter 7: Skin Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bulla is:
A)A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter
B)An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular
C)A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid
D)Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent
Q2) Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor.Which description is the most likely for this condition?
A)There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.
B)Josh has red papules on his face.
C)There are crusted plaques in Josh's groin area.
D)There are white streaks on his neck.
Q3) Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?
A)Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.
B)Pinch the skin taut together.
C)Use gel foam to control bleeding.
D)This should be performed by a dermatologist only.
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Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss.The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient's mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus.The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away.This is an example of which type of test?
A)Weber test
B)Schwabach test
C)Rinne test
D)Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
Q2) Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens?
A)Coxsackievirus
B)Cytomegalovirus
C)Francisella tularensis
D)Group A streptococcus
Q3) Severe pain associated with acute otitis media signifies perforation of the tympanic membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:
A)Fungi
B)Viruses
C)Gram-negative bacteria
D)Pneumococcal pneumonia
Q2) Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma.You want to maintain his serum levels between:
A)0 to 5 mcg/mL
B)5 to 10 mcg/mL
C)5 to 15 mcg/mL
D)10 to 20 mcg/mL
Q3) The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:
A)Chronic coughing
B)Hyperinflation
C)Polycythemia
D)Pulmonary hypertension
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Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?
A)It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.
B)Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.
C)It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.
D)None of the statements are true.
Q2) What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?
A)Less than 0.25
B)Less than 0.50
C)Less than 0.90
D)Greater than 1
Q3) In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?
A)First-degree AV block
B)Second-degree Mobitz I AV block
C)Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
D)Third-degree AV block
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9
Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer.Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?
A)Use of NSAIDs
B)Cigarette smoker
C)Ethanol consumption
D)All of the above
Q2) On further questioning, the 21-year-old patient with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose explains that she is sexually active only with her boyfriend, does not use injectable drugs, and works as an aide in a day-care center.Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming your diagnosis?
A)Hepatitis A virus (HAV) IgM
B)HAV IgG
C)Anti-HAcAg
D)Anti-HAsAg
Q3) Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?
A)Malabsorption
B)Constipation
C)Rectal bleeding
D)Esophageal ulceration
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Page 10
Chapter 12: Renal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means.Which is the best response?
A)"There is no such thing as Stage D cancer."
B)"You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue."
C)"Your cancer has spread to other organs."
D)"Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder."
Q2) The urine osmolality is greater than 500 mOsm/L in patients with postrenal ARF.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for CRF.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient presents with CVA tenderness and a several-day history of high fever, chills, and dysuria.Which of the following diagnoses is most likely given the above information?
A)Pyelonephritis
B)Cystitis
C)Renal calculi
D)Bladder tumor
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Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
A)Radical orchidectomy
B)Lumpectomy
C)Radiation implants
D)All of the above
Q2) A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain.He has no history of UTI.Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made.Which is the appropriate treatment?
A)Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day
B)Ice pack to the scrotal area
C)Saw palmetto 320 mg per day
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Hypertension
C)Atherosclerosis
D)All of the above
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12
Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old woman is seen because of irregular menstrual periods.Her follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level is 48 mIU/mL, and her luteinizing hormone (LH) level is elevated.She asks the clinician what this means.Which would be the best response?
A)"You are approaching menopause."
B)"You have a hormonal imbalance."
C)"Your FSH is normal, but your pituitary is making too much LH."
D)"There is an imbalance between your ovaries and pituitary."
Q2) When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
A)Analysis of partner's sperm
B)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C)Hysterosalpingogram
D)Estrogen level
Q3) Most breast cancer cases are in women with a family history of breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A woman taking estradiol is at risk for developing endometrial cancer.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women.Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?
A)By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts
B)By promoting osteoclastogenesis
C)By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis
D)All of the above
Q2) You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint.Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement.These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
A)Articular
B)Inflammatory
C)Nonarticular
D)A and B
Q3) Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is essential for diagnosing thyroid cancer?
A)Fine needle aspiration
B)Thyroid ultrasound
C)CT scan
D)Magnetic resonance imaging
Q3) A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months.On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
A)Serum calcium
B)TSH
C)Electrolytes
D)Urine specific gravity
Q4) Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV?
A)100% bleach
B)50% bleach and 50% vinegar
C)Nine parts H<sub>2</sub>O to one part bleach
D)The friend must have his or her own bathroom.
Q2) Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
A)Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B)White blood cell count
C)Polymorphonuclear cells
D)C-reactive protein (CRP)
Q3) Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
A)Autogenic
B)Autologous
C)Allogeneic
D)Syngeneic
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Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to K bler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
A)Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
B)Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
C)Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
D)Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Q2) Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?
A)Benzodiazepines
B)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
C)Tricyclic antidepressants
D)Cognitive behavioral therapy
Q3) The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana.The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life.What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?
A)Memory impairment
B)Sexual dysfunction
C)Dry mouth
D)There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.
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Chapter 19: Emergency Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the epithelialization phase of wound healing, the wound will have only what percent of its normal tensile strength at 3 weeks?
A)Less than 15%
B)15% to 20%
C)25% to 40%
D)Greater than 50%
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may leak through the cribriform plate region of the skull following a head injury and cause which of the following?
A)Ear CSF otorrhea
B)Leakage of CSF from the eye
C)Nasal CSF rhinorrhea
D)Leakage of CSF from the mouth
Q3) Hepatic necrosis with jaundice may occur after ingesting massive doses of which medication?
A)Phenobarbital
B)Diazepam
C)Ritalin
D)Acetaminophen
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18
Chapter 20: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are receiving life-prolonging therapies do not qualify for palliative care.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oxygen has shown no benefit in alleviating dyspnea in patients without hypoxemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient had a transdermal fentanyl patch placed 2 hours ago and is not getting any pain relief.What would be the most appropriate intervention?
A)Remove the current patch and replace with a new fentanyl patch at a higher dose.
B)Prescribe a short-acting opioid for breakthrough pain.
C)Remove the patch and switch to a different intravenous opioid.
D)Tell the patient not to worry, as it takes about 12 hours for the patch's effects to be felt, and he will have relief at that time.
Q4) Some anticonvulsant drugs can be used as an adjuvant treatment for mild pain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which insurance plan was the first to allow members to choose nurse practitioners as their primary care provider and pay them the same rate as physicians for the same care?
A)Blue Cross/Blue Shield
B)Medicare/Medicaid
C)The Oxford Health Plan
D)United Health Insurance
Q2) Deontology is:
A)The greatest amount of happiness or the least amount of harm for the greatest number
B)The consideration of consequences and the calculation of benefits
C)The belief that the ends justify the means
D)The principle of universalizability
Q3) The Institute of Medicine stresses interprofessional collaboration between physicians and APRNs.Which statement supports this?
A)The physician supervises the APRN.
B)The physician sponsors the APRN.
C)There is a collegial relationship between the two providers.
D)The physician pays the APRN's salary..
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Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accounting keeps track of the financial state of a business.The accounting report that demonstrates the growth in assets is:
A)Net income statement
B)Balance sheet
C)Cash flow statement
D)Operating statement
Q2) Medicare benefits were offered to U.S.beneficiaries beginning in 1965.What was the service added with the Medicare D plan in 2006?
A)Health-care screening
B)Health-care education
C)Pharmaceutical coverage
D)Durable medical equipment coverage
Q3) Patients require insurance counseling prior to accessing health-care services for the following reason:
A)Many patients do not understand policy benefits and payment responsibility.
B)Services may change across the beneficiary year.
C)Copayments and deductibles may have already been met by the patient.
D)Coding may need to be adjusted to meet the terms of the patient's benefits.
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Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary purpose of the "Positive BATHE" is intended to help patients by:
A)Focusing on autonomy and accomplishment
B)Creating a stronger therapeutic alliance
C)Helping the patient change negative behaviors
D)Engaging the patient during the psychosocial assessment .
Q2) Commonalities among psychotherapeutic techniques include the following:
A)Dream therapy, listening, and reflection
B)Psychodrama, group psychotherapy, and 12-step programs
C)Self-help groups
D)Obtaining external perspective and participation in a helping relationship
Q3) According to World Health Organization data on 1,500 patients in 15 separate world sites, how many patients presenting with medical/somatic complaint had a psychiatric problem?
A)Fully one-third of all patients
B)One-quarter of all patients
C)One-half of all patients
D)60% of all patients
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Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-care and personal development are built into the standards of practice of:
A)The American Holistic Nurses Association
B)The American Nurses Association
C)The American Association of Nurse Practitioners
D)The American Academy of Nursing
Q2) Qualities associated with resilience include:
A)Hope, self-efficacy, and optimism
B)Stick-to-it-ness, belief in a higher power
C)Education, self-regulation, and use of activity to decrease stress
D)Ability to take vacations and the availability of support systems and a secure work environment
Q3) Self-compassion is the ability to be compassionate to one's self and is positively correlated with emotional intelligence.Emotional intelligence is defined as:
A)Being highly attuned to the needs of others
B)The ability to engage in self-care
C)Being aware of self, having the capacity to self-regulate, possessing motivation, empathy, and social skills
D)The holistic integration of self-care and self-development practices
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