Women's Health Nursing Exam
Answer Key
Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing focuses on the specialized healthcare needs and issues pertaining to women throughout their lifespan, from adolescence through older adulthood. This course explores the physiological, psychological, and sociocultural factors influencing women's health, including reproductive health, maternity care, menstrual disorders, menopause, and common gynecological conditions. Emphasis is placed on health promotion, disease prevention, and patient education, as well as collaborative and evidence-based nursing interventions to support women in various healthcare settings. Students will also examine ethical and legal considerations, cultural competence, and advocacy in women's health, preparing them to deliver holistic, patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single client who has just delivered a baby asks the nurse where she can receive help in getting formula for her baby. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) Medicaid can help with buying formula.
B) Head Start is a program that helps provide formula.
C) The Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) program can assist you in getting formula.
D) The National Center for Family Planning has a program that helps with obtaining formula.
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement explains why below poverty level African-Americans have the highest infant mortality rate in the United States?
A) Their diets are deficient in protein.
B) Infectious diseases are more prevalent.
C) More African-American infants are born with congenital anomalies.
D) Inadequate prenatal care is associated with low-birth-weight infants.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is writing an expected outcome for the nursing diagnosis-acute pain related to trauma of tissue, secondary to vaginal birth, as evidenced by client stating pain of 8 on a scale of 10. Which is a correctly stated expected outcome for this problem?
A) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10.
B) Client will have a reduction in pain after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
C) Client will state an absence of pain 1 hour after administration of the prescribed analgesic.
D) Client will state that pain is a 2 on a scale of 10, 1 hour after the administration of the prescribed analgesic.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse states to the newly pregnant patient, "Tell me how you feel about being pregnant." Which communication technique is the nurse using with this patient?
A) Clarifying
B) Paraphrasing
C) Reflection
D) Structuring
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which actions by the nurse indicate compliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? (Select all that apply.)
A) The nurse posts an update about a client on Facebook.
B) The nurse gives the report to the oncoming nurse in a private area.
C) The nurse gives information about the client's status over the phone to the client's friend.
D) The nurse logs off any computer screen showing client data before leaving the computer unattended.
E) The nurse puts any documentation with the client's information in the shred bin at the hospital before leaving for the day.
Answer: B, D, E
Q2) The nurse is teaching a homeless pregnant teenager about prenatal care. Which should the nurse emphasize in the teaching session?
A) The importance of naming the baby
B) Risk factors associated with pregnancy
C) Information about employment opportunities
D) Eating habits that will provide adequate nutrition
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which 16-year-old girl may experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) Jackie, 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) Karen, 5 ft 9 in, 150 lb
C) Carol, 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) Linda, 5 ft 4 in, 120 lb
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to reproductive anatomy and physiology?
A) Female clients who are past puberty and sexually active can become pregnant even if they have not had a menstrual cycle.
B) Puberty symptoms are more prominent in males than females.
C) Females enter puberty earlier than their male counterparts.
D) Secondary sexual characteristics develop during puberty.
Q3) A postpartum client who had a vaginal birth asks the nurse, "Will my cervix return to its previous shape before I had my baby?" Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) The cervix will now have a slitlike shape.
B) The cervix will be round and smooth after healing occurs.
C) The cervix will remain 50% effaced now that you have had a baby.
D) The cervix will be slightly dilated to 2 cm for about 6 months.
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6
Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client tells the nurse at a prenatal interview that she has quit smoking, only has a glass of wine with dinner, and has cut down on coffee to four cups a day. Which response by the nurse will be most helpful in promoting a lifestyle change?
A) "Those few things won't cause any trouble. Good for you."
B) "You need to do a lot better than that. You are still hurting your baby."
C) "Here are some pamphlets for you to study. They will help you to find more ways to improve."
D) "You have made some good progress toward having a healthy baby. Let's talk about the changes you have made."
Q2) A client presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with:
A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) dominant alleles.
D) recessive traits.
Q3) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the embryo's intestines remain within the umbilical cord during the embryonic period because the:
A) intestines need this time to grow until week 15.
B) nutrient content of the blood is higher in this location.
C) abdomen is too small to contain all the organs while they are developing.
D) umbilical cord is much larger at this time than it will be at the end of pregnancy.
Q2) A pregnant client asks the nurse how her baby gets oxygen to breathe. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Oxygen-rich blood is delivered through the umbilical vein to the baby."
B) "Take lots of deep breaths because the baby gets all of its oxygen from you."
C) "You don't need to be concerned about your baby getting enough oxygen."
D) "The baby's lungs are not mature enough to actually breathe, so don't worry."
Q3) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client notices that the health care provider writes "positive Chadwick's sign" on her chart. She asks the nurse what this means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "It means the cervix is softening."
B) "That refers to a positive sign of pregnancy."
C) "It refers to the bluish color of the cervix in pregnancy."
D) "The doctor was able to flex the uterus against the cervix."
Q2) Which of these findings would indicate a potential complication related to renal function during pregnancy?
A) Increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
B) Increase in serum creatinine level
C) Decrease in blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Mild proteinuria
Q3) A gravida client at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant couple asks the nurse about intercourse during pregnancy and whether it is safe for the baby. What should the nurse tell the couple?
A) Intercourse is safe until the third trimester.
B) Safer sex practices should be used once the membranes rupture.
C) Intercourse should be avoided if any spotting from the vagina occurs afterward.
D) Intercourse and orgasm are often contraindicated if a history of or signs of preterm labor are present.
Q2) An expectant client in her third trimester reports that she developed a strong tie to her baby from the beginning and now is really in tune to her baby's temperament. The nurse interprets this as the development of which maternal task of pregnancy?
A) Learning to give of herself
B) Developing attachment with the baby
C) Securing acceptance of the baby by others
D) Seeking safe passage for herself and her baby
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should iron supplementation during a normal pregnancy begin?
A) Before pregnancy
B) In the first trimester
C) In the third trimester
D) In the second trimester
Q2) The nurse is teaching a client taking prenatal vitamins how to avoid constipation. Which should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Advise taking a daily laxative for constipation.
B) Recommend a diet high in fruits and vegetables.
C) Encourage an increase in fluid consumption during the day.
D) Increase the intake of whole grains and whole grain products.
E) Suggest increasing the intake of dairy products, especially cheeses.
Q3) Which pregnant adolescent is most at risk for a nutritional deficit during pregnancy?
A) A 16-year-old who is 10 lb overweight
B) A 17-year-old who is 10 lb underweight
C) A 15-year-old of normal height and weight
D) A 16-year-old of normal height and weight
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11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing a pregnant client for a non-stress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
A) Have the client void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with results.
B) Maintain NPO status prior to testing.
C) Position the client for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate.
D) Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation.
Q2) Which nursing intervention is necessary prior to a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound?
A) Perform an abdominal prep.
B) Administer a soap suds enema.
C) Ensure the client is NPO for 12 hours.
D) Instruct the client to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.
Q3) When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) No difference in accuracy among the trimesters
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing breathing techniques with a primipara admitted for induction of labor. When is the best time to encourage the laboring patient to use slow, deep chest breathing with contractions?
A) During labor, when she can no longer talk through contractions
B) During the first stage of labor, when the contractions are 3 to 4 minutes apart
C) Between contractions, during the transitional phase of the first stage of labor
D) Between her efforts to push to facilitate relaxation between contractions
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the option of childbirth classes with a patient in her second trimester. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has understood the teaching?
A) "My labor will likely be shorter if I go to classes."
B) "I will likely perceive less pain during labor if I go to classes."
C) "I will likely be more satisfied with my labor if I go to classes."
D) "I will likely use fewer medications during labor if I go to classes."
Q3) Lamaze childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Position
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
Q2) Pregnant clients can usually tolerate the normal blood loss associated with childbirth because they have:
A) a higher hematocrit.
B) increased leukocytes.
C) increased blood volume.
D) a lower fibrinogen level.
Q3) Which factor ensures that the smallest anterior-posterior diameter of the fetal head enters the pelvis?
A) Station
B) Flexion
C) Descent
D) Engagement
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a low-risk client in the active phase of labor. At which interval should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every 45 minutes
D) Every 1 hour
Q2) The nurse is monitoring a client in the active stage of labor. Which conditions associated with fetal compromise should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Maternal hypotension
B) Fetal heart rate of 140 to 150 bpm
C) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
D) Maternal fever-38° C (100.4° F) or higher
E) Complete uterine relaxation of more than 30 seconds between contractions
Q3) Which comfort measure should a nurse use to assist a laboring woman to relax?
A) Recommend frequent position changes.
B) Palpate her filling bladder every 15 minutes.
C) Offer warm wet cloths to use on the client's face and neck.
D) Keep the room lights lit so the client and her coach can see everything.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse admits a laboring patient at term. On review of the prenatal record, the patient's pregnancy has been unremarkable and she is considered low risk. In planning the patient's care, at what interval will the nurse intermittently auscultate (IA) the fetal heart rate during the first stage of labor?
A) Every 10 minutes
B) Every 15 minutes
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Every 60 minutes
Q2) Which statement correctly describes the nurse's responsibility related to electronic monitoring?
A) Report abnormal findings to the physician before initiating corrective actions.
B) Teach the woman and her support person about the monitoring equipment and discuss any of their questions.
C) Document the frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions measured by the external device.
D) Inform the support person that the nurse will be responsible for all comfort measures when the electronic equipment is in place.
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16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Focal point
A)Pressure applied to specific pressure points using hands, rollers, balls, or other equipment
B)Contraction and then release of specific muscle groups until all muscles are relaxed
C)Concentrating on something outside the body
Q2) A pregnant woman in labor is quite anxious and has been breathing rapidly during contractions. She now complains of a tingling sensation in her fingers. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Perform a vaginal exam to denote progress.
B) Reposition the client to a side lying position.
C) Instruct the client to breathe into her cupped hands.
D) Notify the physician about current findings.
Q3) Childbirth preparation can be considered successful if the outcome is described as which of the following?
A) Labor was pain-free.
B) The birth experiences of friends and families were ignored.
C) Only nonpharmacologic methods for pain control were used.
D) The client rehearsed labor and practiced skills to master pain.
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17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vaginal exam for a laboring multipara client who is 42 weeks' gestation reveals the following information: 4 cm, minimal effacement, -2 station. Which clinical factors would affect the clinical management decision not to rupture membranes with an AmniHook?
A) Vaginal dilation
B) Client is a multipara
C) Presenting part is at -2 station
D) Gestational age
Q2) Which breech presentation should the nurse recognize as being favorable for an external cephalic version?
A) 36-week gestation with low-lying placenta
B) 38-week gestation with one previous cesarean
C) 37-week gestation with fetal weight of 7 pounds
D) 40-week gestation with several uterine fibroids
Q3) The greatest risk to the newborn after an elective cesarean birth is:
A) tachypnea because of maternal anesthesia.
B) tachycardia because of maternal narcotics.
C) trauma because of manipulation during birth.
D) prematurity because of miscalculation of gestation.
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum client overhears the nurse tell the health care provider that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "You have pitting edema in your ankles."
B) "You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+."
C) "You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot."
D) "You have a 'fleshy' odor to your vaginal drainage."
Q2) The postpartum nurse is administering ibuprofen (Advil) to a client with episiotomy discomfort. The prescribed order is 400 mg of Advil by mouth every 6 to 8 hours PRN for discomfort. The Advil sent by the pharmacy is 200 mg/tablet. How many tablet(s) should the nurse administer to the client? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ tab(s)
Q3) To assess fundal contraction 6 hours after cesarean birth, which action should the nurse perform?
A) Assess lochial flow rather than palpating the fundus.
B) Palpate forcefully through the abdominal dressing.
C) Place hands on both sides of the abdomen and press downward.
D) Gently palpate, applying the same technique used for vaginal deliveries.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum client who continually repeats the story of her labor, birth, and recovery experiences is doing which?
A) Making the birth experience "real"
B) Accepting her response to labor and birth
C) Providing others with her knowledge of events
D) Taking hold of the events leading to her labor and birth
Q2) A 25-year-old gravida 1, para 1, who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As you prepare her for discharge, she begins to cry. Which should be your initial action?
A) Assess her for pain.
B) Allow her time to express her feelings.
C) Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby.
D) Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues.
Q3) Which anticipatory guidance action by the nurse makes role transition to parenthood easier?
A) Helps the new parents identify resources
B) Recommends employing babysitters frequently
C) Tells the parents about the realities of parenthood
D) Offers a home phone number and tells parents to call if they have a question
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining how a newly delivered baby initiates respirations. Which statement explains this process?
A) Drying off the infant
B) Chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors
C) An increase in the POS1U1B12S1U1B0 and a decrease in the PCOS1U1B12S1U1B0
D) The continued functioning of the foramen ovale
Q2) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
Q3) The nurse is explaining the risk of hypothermia in the newborn to a group of nursing students. Which should the nurse include as an explanation of hypothermia in the newborn?
A) Newborns shiver to generate heat.
B) Newborns have decreased oxygen demands.
C) Newborns have increased glucose demands.
D) Newborns have a decreased metabolic rate.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
Q2) Which explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Which newborn testing must be performed prior to discharge from the hospital? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Hearing
C) Guthrie
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Galactosemia
Q2) What should the nurse teach to parents about using a bulb syringe?
A) Use it only once a day.
B) Suction the back of the throat vigorously.
C) Insert the syringe into the sides of the mouth.
D) Always suction the mouth before suctioning the nose.
Q3) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take an action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37° C (98.6° F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
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23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) A breastfeeding mother asks the postpartum nurse if any supplementation is necessary once her breast milk comes in. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Are you concerned about your ability to adequately nurse your baby?"
B) "Do you eat a well-balanced diet, high in protein and carbohydrates?"
C) "Breast milk is low in vitamin D and supplementation with 400 IU is recommended."
D) "Your breast milk has all the vitamins and will adequately meet your baby's needs."
Q2) The client should be taught that when her infant falls asleep after feeding for only a few minutes, she should do which of the following?
A) Unwrap and gently arouse the infant.
B) Wait an hour and attempt to feed again.
C) Try offering a bottle at the next feeding.
D) Put the infant in the crib and try again later.
Q3) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further education with regard to pacifier use?
A) "We will discard the pacifier if it becomes torn."
B) "We will replace the pacifier every 1 to 2 months."
C) "We will be sure to cleanse the pacifier frequently."
D) "We will keep track of the pacifier by tying it to a string around the baby's neck."
Q2) A new client asks what she can do to help her infant sleep through the night. Which should the nurse instruct?
A) Bring the infant into a well-lit room for the feeding.
B) Avoid talking to the infant and keep the room quiet during night feedings.
C) Play with the infant after the feeding before putting the infant back into the crib.
D) Change the infant's diaper after the feeding to prevent waking the infant later in the night.
Q3) Which is a sign of illness in the newborn?
A) A yellow scaly lesion on the scalp
B) More than two soft stools per day
C) Regurgitating a small amount of feeding
D) An axillary temperature greater than 100.4° F (38° C)
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25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) Cocaine
A)A powerful short-acting CNS stimulant
B)CNS depressants that produce a feeling of mental dullness, drowsiness, and finally stupor
C)Active constituent is tetrahydrocannabinol, which crosses the placenta and accumulates in the fetus
Q2) A client has delivered twins. The first twin was stillborn, and the second is in the intensive care nursery, recovering quickly from respiratory distress. The client is crying softly and says, "I wish my baby could have lived." Which is the most therapeutic response?
A) "How soon do you plan to have another baby?"
B) "Don't be sad. At least you have one healthy baby."
C) "I have a friend who lost a twin and she's doing just fine now."
D) "I am so sorry about your loss. Would you like to talk about it?"
Q3) A client who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy because:
A) prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.
B) personal risk behaviors influence fertility.
C) she has used contraceptives for an extended time.
D) her ovaries may be affected by the aging process.
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) Which intervention would be the most effective if your client who is on magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min?
A) Give oxygen by mask at 8-10 L/min.
B) Administer calcium gluconate via IV pyelogram (IVP).
C) Arouse client with tactile stimulation.
D) Continually assess pulse oximeter levels.
Q2) A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient's magnesium level is 7.6 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Stop the infusion of magnesium.
B) Assess the patient's respiratory rate.
C) Assess the patient's deep tendon reflexes.
D) Notify the health care provider of the magnesium level.
Q3) In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
A) Complete abortion at 8 weeks
B) Incomplete abortion at 16 weeks
C) Threatened abortion at 6 weeks
D) Incomplete abortion at 10 weeks
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which postpartum client requires further assessment?
A) G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
B) G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
C) G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
D) G3 P2 postcesarean client who has active herpes lesions on the labia
Q2) A client, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
A) Her two children should be treated with acyclovir before she goes home from the hospital.
B) The baby will acquire immunity from her and will not be susceptible to chickenpox.
C) The children can visit their mother and baby in the hospital as planned but must wear gowns and masks.
D) She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
Q2) Which presentation is most likely to occur with a hypertonic labor pattern? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased risk for placenta previa
B) Painful uterine contractions
C) Increased resting tone
D) Uterine vasodilation
E) Increased uterine pressure
F) Effective uterine contraction
Q3) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
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29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should the nurse recognize as contributing to mastitis in the breastfeeding mother? (Select all that apply.)
A) Insufficient emptying
B) Feeding every 2 hours
C) Supplementing feedings
D) Blisters on both nipples
E) Alternating breastfeeding positions
Q2) Following a vaginal birth, a client has lost a significant amount of blood and is starting to experience signs of hypovolemic shock. Which clinical signs would be consistent with this clinical diagnosis?
A) Decrease in blood pressure, with an increase in pulse pressure
B) Compensatory response of tachycardia and decreased pulse pressure
C) Decrease in heart rate and an increase in respiratory effort
D) Flushed skin
Q3) Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss greater than:
A) 500 mL within 24 hours after a vaginal birth.
B) 750 mL within 24 hours after a vaginal birth.
C) 1000 mL within 48 hours after a cesarean birth.
D) 1500 mL within 48 hours after a cesarean birth.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which data should alert the nurse caring for an SGA infant that additional calories may be needed?
A) The latest hematocrit was 53%.
B) The infant's weight gain is 40 g/day.
C) The infant is taking 120 mL/kg every 24 hours.
D) Three successive temperature measurements were 97°, 96°, and 97° F.
Q2) A preterm infant is on a respirator, with intravenous lines and much equipment. When the parents come to visit for the first time, which is an important response by the nurse?
A) Encourage the parents to touch their infant.
B) Reassure the parents that the infant is progressing well.
C) Discuss the care they will give their infant when the infant goes home.
D) Suggest that the parents visit for only a short time to reduce their anxiety.
Q3) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-pound infant, the nurse should assess:
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between pathologic jaundice and physiologic jaundice is that pathologic jaundice:
A) usually results in kernicterus.
B) appears during the first 24 hours of life.
C) begins on the head and progresses down the body.
D) results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
Q2) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hb 18 g/dL, Hct 50%
B) Hb 25/dL, Hct 55%
C) Hb 20/dL, Hct 65%
D) Hb 30 g/dL, Hct 70%
Q3) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the statements is correct regarding use of contraception and the occurrence of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
A) As long as the oral contraception method is used correctly, there is no transmission of STDs during sexual activity.
B) Oral contraceptives provide the greatest protection against getting STDs.
C) Barrier methods, if used correctly, are more likely to protect individuals from STDs as compared with other contraceptive methods.
D) It is less likely to see transmission of STDs if clients engage in oral sex as opposed to vaginal penetration.
Q2) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time
Q2) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's best response is:
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
Q3) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of conization of the cervix
B) History of pelvic surgical procedures
C) Incompetent cervix
D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure
E) Endometriosis
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old client asks how often she should have a mammogram. The most appropriate answer is:
A) whenever she feels a lump.
B) every year beginning at age 40.
C) they are unnecessary until age 50.
D) every year if you have risk factors.
Q2) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old client presents to the clinic office complaining of increased bilateral tenderness of her breasts prior to the onset of menses. On questioning the client, this presentation has occurred off and on for several years, but the pain has increased. Physical examination reveals lumpy areas bilaterally on the upper outer quadrants of each breast tissue. The areas of concern are approximately 2 cm in size. Based on this assessment, what diagnostic testing would be required? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Open biopsy
C) Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy
D) CBC with differential
E) Mammogram
Q2) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is:
A) fibroadenoma.
B) ductal ectasia.
C) intraductal papilloma.
D) chronic cystic disease.
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