

Women's Health Nursing Test Bank
Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing focuses on the unique health care needs of women throughout the lifespan, encompassing reproductive health, gynecological disorders, prenatal and postnatal care, menopause, and common chronic conditions affecting women. This course emphasizes evidence-based nursing practices, health promotion, disease prevention, and the provision of culturally competent, patient-centered care. Students will explore topics such as sexual and reproductive health, family planning, breast health, maternal nutrition, and psychosocial issues including abuse and gender-based violence. Emphasis is placed on effective communication, advocacy, and empowerment of women in various health care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 5th Edition by Perry
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
49 Chapters
1995 Verified Questions
1995 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1278

Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25287
Sample Questions
Q1) Culture measurement,feedback,and intervention
A)Ask the patient to "teach back."
B)Comply with CDC guidelines.
C)Ensure that information is documented in a timely manner.
D)Promote interventions that will reduce patient risk.
E)Reduce exposure to radiation.
Answer: D
Q2) While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia,the nurse realizes that the client has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM).The nurse's best response to this patient is:
A)"This is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States."
B)"Do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?"
C)"We will be able to restore your circumcision fully after delivery."
D)"The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications."
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Community Care: the Family and Culture
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25288
Sample Questions
Q1) When attempting to communicate with a patient who speaks a different language,the nurse should:
A)Respond promptly and positively to project authority.
B)Never use a family member as an interpreter.
C)Talk to the interpreter to avoid confusing the patient.
D)Provide as much privacy as possible.
Answer: D
Q2) Step Four
A)Introduce yourself to the interpreter and converse informally.
B)Outline your statements and questions, listing the key pieces of information you need to know.
C)Make sure the interpreter is comfortable with technical terms.
D)Learn something about the culture of the patient.
E)Make notes on what you learned for future reference.
F)Stop every now and then and ask the interpreter "How is it going?"
Answer: C
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4

Chapter 3: Assessment and Health Promotion
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25289
Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful?
A)Battering phase
B)Honeymoon phase
C)Tension-building phase
D)Increased drug-taking phase
Answer: B
Q2) The most dangerous effect on the fetus of a mother who smokes cigarettes while pregnant is:
A)Genetic changes and anomalies
B)Extensive central nervous system damage
C)Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
D)Intrauterine growth restriction
Answer: D
Q3) A common effect of both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant woman is:
A)Vasoconstriction
B)Increased appetite
C)Changes in insulin metabolism
D)Increased metabolism
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Reproductive System Concerns
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25290
Sample Questions
Q1) There is little consensus on the management of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD).However,nurses can advise women on several self-help modalities that often improve symptoms.The nurse knows that health teaching has been effective when the client reports that she has adopted a number of lifestyle changes,including (Select all that apply):
A)Regular exercise.
B)Improved nutrition.
C)A daily glass of wine.
D)Smoking cessation.
E)Oil of evening primrose.
Q2) Chaste tree fruit
A)Uterine antispasmodic
B)Uterotonic
C)Antiinflammatory
D)Estrogen-like luteinizing hormone suppressant
E)Decreases prolactin levels
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6

Chapter 5: Infertility,contraception,and Abortion
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25291
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control.During the assessment process,it is most important that the nurse:
A)Obtain a history of menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months.
B)Determine the client's weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year.
C)Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes.
D)Explore the client's previous experiences with conception control.
Q2) A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy.The nurse knows that the most common technique used for medical termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester is:
A)Dilation and evacuation (D&E).
B)Instillation of hypertonic saline into the uterine cavity.
C)Intravenous administration of Pitocin.
D)Vacuum aspiration.
Q3) A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs).The nurse's most appropriate reply is:
A)"They're not very effective, and it's very likely you'll get pregnant."
B)"They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation."
C)"These methods have a few advantages and several health risks."
D)"You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25292
Sample Questions
Q1) The most basic information a maternity nurse should have concerning conception is that:
A)Ova are considered fertile 48 to 72 hours after ovulation.
B)Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive system for an average of 12 to 24 hours.
C)Conception is achieved when a sperm successfully penetrates the membrane surrounding the ovum.
D)Implantation in the endometrium occurs 6 to 10 days after conception.
Q2) The nurse is providing genetic counseling for an expectant couple who already have a child with trisomy 18.The nurse should:
A)Tell the couple they need to have an abortion within 2 to 3 weeks.
B)Explain that the fetus has a 50% chance of having the disorder.
C)Discuss options with the couple, including amniocentesis to determine whether the fetus is affected.
D)Refer the couple to a psychologist for emotional support.
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8
Chapter 7: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25293
Sample Questions
Q1) To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their cardiovascular system,maternity nurses should be aware that:
A)A pregnant woman experiencing disturbed cardiac rhythm, such as sinus arrhythmia requires close medical and obstetric observation, no matter how healthy she otherwise may appear.
B)Changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term.
C)Palpitations are twice as likely to occur in twin gestations.
D)All of the above changes likely will occur.
Q2) To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their breasts,nurses should be aware that:
A)The visibility of blood vessels that form an intertwining blue network indicates full function of Montgomery's tubercles and possibly infection of the tubercles.
B)The mammary glands do not develop until 2 weeks before labor.
C)Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth.
D)Colostrum is the yellowish oily substance used to lubricate the nipples for breastfeeding.
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Page 9

Chapter 8: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25294
Sample Questions
Q1) Kidney infection or stones
A)Severe vomiting in early pregnancy
B)Epigastric pain in late pregnancy
C)Severe backache and flank pain
D)Decreased fetal movement
E)Glycosuria
Q2) Prenatal testing for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is recommended for:
A)All women, regardless of risk factors.
B)A woman who has had more than one sexual partner.
C)A woman who has had a sexually transmitted infection.
D)A woman who is monogamous with her partner.
Q3) Hypertension,preeclampsia
A)Severe vomiting in early pregnancy
B)Epigastric pain in late pregnancy
C)Severe backache and flank pain
D)Decreased fetal movement
E)Glycosuria
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Chapter 9: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25295
Sample Questions
Q1) The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a bariatric patient for an elective cesarean birth.Which piece of "specialized" equipment is unnecessary when providing care for this pregnant woman.
A)Extra long surgical instruments
B)Wide surgical table
C)Temporal thermometer
D)Increased diameter blood pressure cuff
Q2) If a patient's normal prepregnancy diet contains 45 g of protein daily,how many more grams of protein should she consume per day during pregnancy?
A)5
B)10
C)25
D)30
Q3) To determine the cultural influence on a patient's diet,the nurse should first:
A)Evaluate the patient's weight gain during pregnancy
B)Assess the socioeconomic status of the patient
C)Discuss the four food groups with the patient
D)Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to that culture
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Page 11

Chapter 10: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25296
Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with contraction stress test (CST),nonstress test (NST)for antepartum fetal assessment:
A)Has no known contraindications.
B)Has fewer false-positive results.
C)Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.
D)Is slightly more expensive.
Q2) In the past,factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high risk pregnancy were evaluated primarily from a medical point of view.A broader,more comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been adopted today.There are now four categories based on threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy.Which of the following is not one of these categories?
A)Biophysical
B)Psychosocial
C)Geographic
D)Environmental
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Chapter 11: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25297
Sample Questions
Q1) In planning for the care of a 30-year-old woman with pregestational diabetes,the nurse recognizes that the most important factor affecting pregnancy outcome is the:
A)Mother's age.
B)Number of years since diabetes was diagnosed.
C)Amount of insulin required prenatally.
D)Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy.
Q2) A new mother with which of these thyroid disorders would be strongly discouraged from breastfeeding?
A)Hyperthyroidism
B)Phenylketonuria (PKU)
C)Hypothyroidism
D)Thyroid storm
Q3) When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems,the nurse must be alert for signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation,which include:
A)A regular heart rate and hypertension.
B)An increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
C)Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
D)Dyspnea; crackles; and an irregular, weak pulse.
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13
Chapter 12: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25298
Sample Questions
Q1) The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced.Before initiating the Pitocin infusion,the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings,which reveal a platelet count of 90,000,an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST)level,and a falling hematocrit.The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of:
A)Eclampsia.
B)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C)HELLP syndrome.
D)Idiopathic thrombocytopenia.
Q2) A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache,visual changes,and epigastric pain.Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs are an indication of:
A)Anxiety due to hospitalization.
B)Worsening disease and impending convulsion.
C)Effects of magnesium sulfate.
D)Gastrointestinal upset.
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14

Chapter 13: Labor and Birth Processes
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25299
Sample Questions
Q1) To care for a laboring woman adequately,the nurse understands that the __________ stage of labor varies the most in length?
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
Q2) Six
A)Flexion
B)Internal rotation
C)External rotation
D)Expulsion
E)Engagement
F)Descent
G)Extension
Q3) The nurse would expect which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor?
A)Increased cardiac output
B)Decreased pulse rate
C)Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
D)Decreased blood pressure
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Pain Management
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25300
Sample Questions
Q1) After change-of-shift report the nurse assumes care of a multiparous client in labor.The woman is complaining of pain that radiates to her abdominal wall,lower back,and buttocks and down her thighs.Before implementing a plan of care,the nurse should understand that this type of pain is:
A)Visceral.
B)Referred.
C)Somatic.
D)Afterpain.
Q2) Reduced length of labor,increased satisfaction of pain relief
A)Yoga
B)Massage
C)Acupuncture
D)Water immersion
E)Aromatherapy
Q3) Less pain intensity,decreased use of analgesia,fewer instrumental births
A)Yoga
B)Massage
C)Acupuncture
D)Water immersion
E)Aromatherapy
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Chapter 15: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25301
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by:
A)Change in position.
B)Oxytocin administration.
C)Regional anesthesia.
D)Intravenous analgesic.
Q2) The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR)decelerations are the result of:
A)Altered cerebral blood flow.
B)Umbilical cord compression.
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency.
D)Meconium fluid.
Q3) The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR)decelerations are caused by:
A)Altered fetal cerebral blood flow.
B)Umbilical cord compression.
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency.
D)Fetal hypoxemia.
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25302
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labor contractions.The nurse evaluates the woman's understanding of the instructions when she states,"True labor contractions will:
A)Subside when I walk around."
B)Cause discomfort over the top of my uterus."
C)Continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower."
D)Remain irregular but become stronger."
Q2) A means of controlling the birth of the fetal head with a vertex presentation is:
A)The Ritgen maneuver.
B)Fundal pressure.
C)The lithotomy position.
D)The De Lee apparatus.
Q3) A patient whose cervix is dilated to 5 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor?
A)Latent phase
B)Active phase
C)Second stage
D)Third stage
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Labor and Birth Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25303
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor who is receiving terbutaline would include which intervention to identify side effects of the drug?
A)Assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
B)Assessing for chest discomfort and palpitations
C)Assessing for bradycardia
D)Assessing for hypoglycemia
Q2) The least common cause of long,difficult,or abnormal labor (dystocia)is:
A)Midplane contracture of the pelvis.
B)Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication.
C)Disproportion of the pelvis.
D)Low-lying placenta.
Q3) In evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin induction,the nurse would expect:
A)Contractions lasting 40 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart.
B)The intensity of contractions to be at least 110 to 130 mm Hg.
C)Labor to progress at least 2 cm/hr dilation.
D)At least 30 mU/min of oxytocin will be needed to achieve cervical dilation.
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Chapter 18: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25304
Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive use of oxytocin
A)Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours
B)Rapid pulse
C)Elevated temperature at 36 hours postpartum
D)Hypertension
E)Hypoventilation
Q2) A woman gave birth to a 7-pound,6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago.The birth was vaginal,and the estimated blood loss (EBL)was approximately 1500 mL.When assessing the woman's vital signs,the nurse would be concerned to see:
A)Temperature 37.9° C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50.
B)Temperature 37.4° C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68.
C)Temperature 38° C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80.
D)Temperature 36.8° C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90.
Q3) Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
A)A woman who experienced oligohydramnios
B)A woman who is a gravida 4, para 4-0-0-4
C)A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant
D)A woman whose infant weighed 5 pounds, 3 ounces
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25305
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by:
A)Overproduction of colostrum.
B)Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts and glands.
C)Hyperplasia of mammary tissue.
D)Congestion of veins and lymphatics.
Q2) Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; the most common is:
A)Vaginal or vulvar hematomas.
B)Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix.
C)Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly.
D)Retained placental fragments.
Q3) Rh? immune globulin will be ordered postpartum if which situation occurs?
A)Mother Rh<sub>2</sub>-, baby Rh+
B)Mother Rh<sub>2</sub>-, baby Rh<sup>2</sup>-
C)Mother Rh+, baby Rh+
D)Mother Rh+, baby Rh2-
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Chapter 20: Transition to Parenthood
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25306
Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States the en face position is preferred immediately after birth.Nurses can facilitate this process by all of these actions except:
A)Washing both the infant's face and the mother's face.
B)Placing the infant on the mother's abdomen or breast with their heads on the same plane.
C)Dimming the lights.
D)Delaying the instillation of prophylactic antibiotic ointment in the infant's eyes.
Q2) During which phase of maternal adjustment will the mother relinquish the baby of her fantasies and accept the real baby?
A)Letting go
B)Taking hold
C)Taking in
D)Taking on
Q3) The nurse can help a father in his transition to parenthood by:
A)Pointing out that the infant turned at the sound of his voice.
B)Encouraging him to go home to get some sleep.
C)Telling him to tape the infant's diaper a different way.
D)Suggesting that he let the infant sleep in the bassinet.
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Chapter 21: Postpartum Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25307
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the first symptoms of puerperal infection to assess for in the postpartum woman is:
A)Fatigue continuing for longer than 1 week.
B)Pain with voiding.
C)Profuse vaginal bleeding with ambulation.
D)Temperature of 38° C (100.4° F) or higher on 2 successive days starting 24 hours after birth.
Q2) A woman delivered a 9-lb,10-oz baby 1 hour ago.When you arrive to perform her 15-minute assessment,she tells you that she "feels all wet underneath." You discover that both pads are completely saturated and that she is lying in a 6-inch-diameter puddle of blood.What is your first action?
A)Call for help.
B)Assess the fundus for firmness.
C)Take her blood pressure.
D)Check the perineum for lacerations.
Q3) Complicated bereavement:
A)Occurs when, in multiple births, one child dies, and the other or others live.
B)Is a state in which the parents are ambivalent, as with an abortion.
C)Is an extremely intense grief reaction that persists for a long time.
D)Is felt by the family of adolescent mothers who lose their babies.
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Chapter 22: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25308
Sample Questions
Q1) As related to the normal functioning of the renal system in newborns,nurses should be aware that:
A)The pediatrician should be notified if the newborn has not voided in 24 hours.
B)Breastfed infants likely will void more often during the first days after birth.
C)"Brick dust" or blood on a diaper is always cause to notify the physician.
D)Weight loss from fluid loss and other normal factors should be made up in 4 to 7 days.
Q2) Which statement describing physiologic jaundice is incorrect?
A)Neonatal jaundice is common, but kernicterus is rare.
B)The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours or beyond day 7 indicates a pathologic process.
C)Because jaundice may not appear before discharge, parents need instruction on how to assess it and when to call for medical help.
D)Breastfed babies have a lower incidence of jaundice.
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Chapter 23: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25309
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3.8-kg infant was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks after a 30-minute second stage.There was a nuchal cord.After birth the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back.Information given to the infant's parents should be based on the knowledge that petechiae:
A)Are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of birth.
B)Result from increased blood volume.
C)Should always be further investigated.
D)Usually occur with forceps delivery.
Q2) An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago.The nurse is conducting the initial assessment.Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score.The Apgar assessment is performed:
A)Only if the newborn is in obvious distress.
B)Once by the obstetrician, just after the birth.
C)At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D)Every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.
Q3) At 1 minute after birth,the nurse assesses the infant and notes a heart rate of 80 beats/minute,some flexion of the extremities,a weak cry,grimacing,and a pink body with blue extremities.The nurse would calculate an Apgar score of: ________
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25

Chapter 24: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25310
Sample Questions
Q1) A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible.The nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant:
A)With his arms folded together over his chest.
B)Curled up in a fetal position.
C)With his head cupped in her hand.
D)With his head and body in alignment.
Q2) A new mother recalls from prenatal class that she should try to feed her newborn daughter when she exhibits feeding readiness cues rather than waiting until her infant is crying frantically.On the basis of this information,this woman should feed her infant about every 2.5 to 3 hours when she:
A)Waves her arms in the air.
B)Makes sucking motions.
C)Has hiccups.
D)Stretches her legs out straight.
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Chapter 25: The High Risk Newborn
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25311
Sample Questions
Q1) As a result of large body surface in relation to weight,the preterm infant is at high risk for heat loss and cold stress.By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection,conduction,radiation,and evaporation),the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability.While evaluating the plan that has been implemented,the nurse knows that the infant is experiencing cold stress when he or she exhibits:
A)Decreased respiratory rate.
B)Bradycardia followed by an increased heart rate.
C)Mottled skin with acrocyanosis.
D)Increased physical activity.
Q2) Step 1
A)Secure the infant in the car seat per guidelines using blanket rolls on the side.
B)Leave the infant undisturbed for 90 to 120 minutes.
C)Set the heart rate alarm at 80 bpm and the apnea alarm at 20 seconds.
D)Document the infant's tolerance to the test.
E)Perform the evaluation 1 to 7 days before discharge.
F)Use the parent's car seat.
G)Set the pulse oximeter low alarm at 88%.
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Chapter 26: 21st Century Pediatric Nursing
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25312
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing staff in-service education about atraumatic care for pediatric patients.Which intervention should the nurse include?
A)Prepare the child for separation from parents during hospitalization by reviewing a video.
B)Prepare the child before any unfamiliar treatment or procedure by demonstrating on a stuffed animal.
C)Help the child accept the loss of control associated with hospitalization.
D)Help the child accept pain that is connected with a treatment or procedure.
Q2) The nursing process is a method of problem identification and problem solving that describes what the nurse actually does.The five steps include (Select all that apply):
A)Assessment.
B)Diagnosis.
C)Planning.
D)Documentation
E)Implementation.
F)Evaluation
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Chapter 27: Family, social, cultural, and Religious Influences on Child Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25313
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working in a clinic that serves a culturally diverse population of children.The nurse should plan care,understanding that the following complementary and alternative practices may be used by this patient population (Select all that apply):
A)Seeking another doctor's opinion
B)Seeking advice from a curandero or curandera
C)Using acupuncture or acupressure as a therapy
D)Consulting an herbalist
E)Consulting a kahuna
Q2) Which term best describes a group of people who share a set of values,beliefs,practices,social relationships,law,politics,economics,and norms of behavior?
A)Race
B)Culture
C)Ethnicity
D)Social group
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Chapter 28: Developmental and Genetic Influences on
Child Health Promotion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25314
Sample Questions
Q1) Step 1
A)Crawl
B)Sit unsupported
C)Lift head when prone
D)Gain complete head control
E)Walk
Q2) Which statement is true about the basal metabolic rate (BMR)in children?
A)It is reduced by fever.
B)It is slightly higher in boys than in girls at all ages.
C)It increases with the age of child.
D)It decreases as proportion of surface area to body mass increases.
Q3) What factors indicate that parents should seek genetic counseling for their child
(Select all that apply)?
A)Abnormal newborn screen
B)Family history of a hereditary disease
C)History of hypertension in the family
D)Severe colic as an infant
E)Metabolic disorder
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Chapter 29: Communication, history, and Physical Assessment
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25315
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must assess 10-month-old infant.The infant is sitting on the father's lap and appears to be afraid of the nurse and of what may happen next.Which initial action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A)Initiate a game of peek-a-boo.
B)Ask the father to place the infant on the examination table.
C)Undress the infant while he is still sitting on his father's lap.
D)Talk softly to the infant while taking him from his father.
Q2) Step 1
A)Auscultation
B)Palpation
C)Inspection
D)Percussion
Q3) The nurse is taking a sexual history on an adolescent girl.The best way to determine whether she is sexually active is to:
A)Ask her, "Are you sexually active?"
B)Ask her, "Are you having sex with anyone?"
C)Ask her, "Are you having sex with a boyfriend?"
D)Ask both the girl and her parent if she is sexually active.
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Chapter 30: Pain Assessment and Management in Children
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25316
Sample Questions
Q1) What medication is the most effective choice for treating pain associated with sickle cell crisis in a newly admitted 5-year-old child?
A)Morphine
B)Acetaminophen
C)Ibuprofen
D)Midazolam
Q2) Which myth may interfere with the treatment of pain in infants and children?
A)Infants may have sleep difficulties after a painful event.
B)Children and infants are more susceptible to respiratory depression from narcotics.
C)Pain in children is multidimensional and subjective.
D)A child's cognitive level does not influence the pain experience.
Q3) The nurse is using the FLACC scale to evaluate pain in a preverbal child.The nurse makes the following assessment: Face: occasional grimace; Leg: relaxed; Activity: squirming,tense; Cry: no cry; Consolability: content,relaxed.The nurse records the FLACC assessment as ________.(Record your answer as a whole number.)
Q4) A dose of oxycodone (OxyContin)2 mg/kg has been ordered for a child weighing 33 lb.The nurse should administer ______ milligrams of OxyContin.(Record your answer as a whole number.)
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Page 32

Chapter 31: The Infant and Family
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25317
Sample Questions
Q1) Pacifiers can be extremely dangerous because of the frequency of use and the intensity of the infant's suck.In teaching parents about appropriate pacifier selection,the nurse should explain that a pacifier should have which characteristics (select all that apply)?
A)Easily grasped handle
B)One-piece construction
C)Ribbon or string to secure to clothing
D)Soft, pliable material
E)Sturdy, flexible material
Q2) At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli?
A)1 month
B)2 months
C)3 months
D)4 months
Q3) Which statement best describes the infant's physical development?
A)Anterior fontanel closes by age 6 to 10 months.
B)Binocularity is well established by age 8 months.
C)Birth weight doubles by age 5 months and triples by age 1 year.
D)Maternal iron stores persist during the first 12 months of life.
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Chapter 32: The Toddler and Family
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25318
Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective way to clean a toddler's teeth is for the:
A)Child to brush regularly with toothpaste of his or her choice.
B)Parent to stabilize the chin with one hand and brush with the other.
C)Parent to brush the mandibular occlusive surfaces, leaving the rest for the child.
D)Parent to brush the front labial surfaces, leaving the rest for the child.
Q2) A parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no" to everything and has rapid mood swings.If he is scolded,he shows anger and then immediately wants to be held.The nurse's best interpretation of this behavior is that:
A)This is normal behavior for his age.
B)This is unusual behavior for his age.
C)He is not effectively coping with stress.
D)He is showing he needs more attention.
Q3) The most fatal type of burn in the toddler age-group is:
A)Flame burn from playing with matches.
B)Scald burn from high-temperature tap water.
C)Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons.
D)Electric burn from electrical outlets.
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Chapter 33: The Preschooler and Family
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25319
Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of language and cognitive development,a 4-year-old child would be expected to:
A)Think in abstract terms.
B)Follow simple commands.
C)Understand conservation of matter.
D)Comprehend another person's perspective.
Q2) Strict isolation is required for a child who is hospitalized with (select all that apply):
A)Mumps.
B)Chickenpox.
C)Exanthema subitum (roseola).
D)Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease).
E)Parvovirus B19.
Q3) Which medication may be given to high risk children after exposure to chickenpox to prevent varicella?
A)Acyclovir
B)Vitamin A
C)Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
D)Varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)
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Chapter 34: The School-Age Child and Family
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25320
Sample Questions
Q1) A school nurse is teaching dental health practices to a group of sixth-grade children.How often should the nurse recommend the children brush their teeth?
A)Twice a day
B)Three times a day
C)After meals
D)After meals and snacks, and at bedtime
Q2) Which statement best describes fear in school-age children?
A)They are increasingly fearful for body safety.
B)Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.
C)They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers.
D)Those who have numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.
Q3) A child has an evulsed (knocked-out)tooth.In which medium should the nurse instruct the parents to place the tooth for transport to the dentist?
A)Cold milk
B)Cold water
C)Warm salt water
D)A dry, clean jar
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Chapter 35: The Adolescent and Family
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25321
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an adolescent hospitalized for cellulitis.The nurse notes that the adolescent experiences many "mood swings" throughout the day.The nurse interprets this behavior as:
A)Requiring a referral to a mental health counselor.
B)Requiring some further lab testing.
C)Normal behavior.
D)Related to feelings of depression.
Q2) An adolescent boy tells the nurse that he has recently had homosexual feelings.The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that:
A)This indicates that the adolescent is homosexual.
B)This indicates that the adolescent will become homosexual as an adult.
C)The adolescent should be referred for psychotherapy.
D)The adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings and experiences.
Q3) Which is the most significant factor in distinguishing those who commit suicide from those who make suicidal attempts or threats?
A)Social isolation
B)Level of stress
C)Degree of depression
D)Desire to punish others
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Page 37

Chapter 36: Chronic Illness, disability, and End-Of-Life Care
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25322
Sample Questions
Q1) Families progress through various stages of reactions when a child is diagnosed with a chronic illness or disability.After the shock phase,a period of adjustment usually follows.This is often characterized by:
A)Denial.
B)Guilt and anger.
C)Social reintegration.
D)Acceptance of child's limitations.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child who has just died.The parents ask to be left alone so that they can rock their child one more time.The nurse should:
A)Grant their request.
B)Assess why they feel that this is necessary.
C)Discourage this because it will only prolong their grief.
D)Kindly explain that they need to say good-bye to their child now and leave.
Q3) Which intervention will encourage a sense of autonomy in a toddler with disabilities?
A)Avoiding separation from family during hospitalizations
B)Encouraging independence in as many areas as possible
C)Exposing child to pleasurable experiences as much as possible
D)Helping parents learn special care needs of their child
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Page 38

Chapter 37: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child and Family
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25323
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse keep in mind when planning to communicate with a child who has autism?
A)The child has normal verbal communication.
B)The child is expected to use sign language.
C)The child may exhibit monotone speech and echolalia.
D)The child is not listening if she is not looking at the nurse.
Q2) A nurse is providing a parent information regarding autism.Which statement made by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A)"Autism is characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation."
B)"The onset of autism usually occurs before 3 years of age."
C)"Children with autism have imitation and gesturing skills."
D)"Autism can be treated effectively with medication."
Q3) A nurse is preparing to perform a dressing change on a 6-year-old child with mild cognitive impairment (CI)who sustained a minor burn.Which strategy should the nurse use to prepare the child for this procedure?
A)Verbally explain what will be done.
B)Have the child watch a video on dressing changes.
C)Demonstrate a dressing change on a doll.
D)Explain the importance of keeping the burn area clean.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Family-Centered Care of the Child During
Illness and Hospitalization
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25324
Sample Questions
Q1) What represents the major stressor of hospitalization for children from middle infancy throughout the preschool years?
A)Separation anxiety
B)Loss of control
C)Fear of bodily injury
D)Fear of pain
Q2) What is an age-appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate psychologic adjustment for an adolescent expected to have a prolonged hospitalization (select all that apply)?
A)Encourage parents to bring in homework and schedule study times.
B)Allow the adolescent to wear street clothes.
C)Involve the parents in care.
D)Follow home routines.
E)Encourage parents to bring in favorite foods.
Q3) What is the primary disadvantage associated with outpatient and day facility care?
A)Increased cost
B)Increased risk of infection
C)Lack of physical connection to the hospital
D)Longer separation of the child from family

40
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Chapter 39: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25325
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action is the most appropriate when applying a face mask to a child for oxygen therapy?
A)Set the oxygen flow rate at less than 6 L/min.
B)Make sure the mask fits properly.
C)Keep the child warm.
D)Remove the mask for 5 minutes every hour.
Q2) A critically ill child has hyperthermia.The parents ask the nurse to give an antipyretic such as acetaminophen (Tylenol).The nurse should explain that antipyretics:
A)May cause malignant hyperthermia.
B)May cause febrile seizures.
C)Are of no value in treating hyperthermia.
D)Are of limited value in treating hyperthermia.
Q3) A venipuncture will be performed on a 7-year-old girl.She wants her mother to hold her during the procedure.The nurse should recognize that this:
A)Is unsafe.
B)May help the child relax.
C)Is against hospital policy.
D)Is unnecessary because of the child's age.
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Chapter 40: Respiratory Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25326
Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin supplements are necessary for children with cystic fibrosis?
A)Vitamin C and calcium
B)Vitamins B6 and B12
C)Magnesium
D)Vitamins A, D, E, and K
Q2) Which statement best describes why children have fewer respiratory tract infections as they grow older?
A)The amount of lymphoid tissue decreases.
B)Repeated exposure to organisms causes increased immunity.
C)Viral organisms are less prevalent in the population.
D)Secondary infections rarely occur after viral illnesses.
Q3) Which information should the nurse teach families about reducing exposure to pollens and dust (Select all that apply)?
A)Replace wall-to-wall carpeting with wood and tile floors.
B)Use an air conditioner.
C)Put dust-proof covers on pillows and mattresses.
D)Keep humidity in the house above 60%.
E)Keep pets outside.
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Chapter 41: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25327
Sample Questions
Q1) Acute diarrhea is often caused by:
A)Hirschsprung's disease.
B)Antibiotic therapy.
C)Hypothyroidism.
D)Meconium ileus.
Q2) What is the most important information to be included in the discharge planning for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux?
A)Teach parents to position the infant on the left side.
B)Reinforce the parents' knowledge of the infant's developmental needs.
C)Teach the parents how to do infant cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
D)Have the parents keep an accurate record of intake and output.
Q3) Second priority
A)Call Jason's parents and notify them of the situation.
B)Call Jason's family practitioner to obtain further orders for medication.
C)Promptly administer an intramuscular (IM) dose of epinephrine.
D)Call 911 and wait for the emergency response personnel to arrive.
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43
Chapter 42: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25328
Sample Questions
Q1) What is best described as the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures?
A)Pulmonary congestion
B)Congenital heart defect
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Systemic venous congestion
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child after heart surgery.What should she or he do if evidence is found of cardiac tamponade?
A)Increase analgesia.
B)Apply warming blankets.
C)Immediately report this to the physician.
D)Encourage the child to cough, turn, and breathe deeply.
Q3) One of the most frequent causes of hypovolemic shock in children is:
A)Myocardial infarction.
B)Blood loss.
C)Anaphylaxis.
D)Congenital heart disease.
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44
Chapter 43: Hematologic and Immunologic Dysfunction
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25329
Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect when a child with sickle cell anemia experiences an acute vaso-occlusive crisis?
A)Circulatory collapse
B)Cardiomegaly, systolic murmurs
C)Hepatomegaly, intrahepatic cholestasis
D)Painful swelling of hands and feet, painful joints
Q2) The nurse is recommending how to prevent iron deficiency anemia in a healthy,term,breastfed infant.What should she or he suggest?
A)Iron (ferrous sulfate) drops after age 1 month.
B)Iron-fortified commercial formula can be used by ages 4 to 6 months.
C)Iron-fortified infant cereal can be introduced at age 2 months.
D)Iron-fortified infant cereal can be introduced at approximately 6 months of age.
Q3) The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with anemia is:
A)Activity Intolerance related to generalized weakness.
B)Decreased Cardiac Output related to abnormal hemoglobin.
C)Risk for Injury related to depressed sensorium.
D)Risk for Injury related to dehydration and abnormal hemoglobin.
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45

Chapter 44: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25330
Sample Questions
Q1) A preschool child is being admitted to the hospital with dehydration and a urinary tract infection (UTI).Which urinalysis result should the nurse expect with these conditions?
A)WBC <1; specific gravity 1.008
B)WBC <2; specific gravity 1.025
C)WBC >2; specific gravity 1.016
D)WBC >2; specific gravity 1.030
Q2) A major complication in a child with chronic renal failure is:
A)Hypokalemia.
B)Metabolic alkalosis.
C)Water and sodium retention.
D)Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen.
Q3) The primary clinical manifestations of acute renal failure are:
A)Oliguria and hypertension.
B)Hematuria and pallor.
C)Proteinuria and muscle cramps.
D)Bacteriuria and facial edema.
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Chapter 45: Cerebral Dysfunction
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25331
Sample Questions
Q1) What action may be beneficial in reducing the risk of Reye's syndrome?
A)Immunization against the disease
B)Medical attention for all head injuries
C)Prompt treatment of bacterial meningitis
D)Avoidance of aspirin and ibuprofen for children with varicella or those suspected of having influenza
Q2) A child has been seizure-free for 2 years.A father asks the nurse how much longer the child will need to take the antiseizure medications.The nurse includes which intervention in the response?
A)Medications can be discontinued at this time.
B)The child will need to take the drugs for 5 years after the last seizure.
C)A stepwise approach will be used to reduce the dosage gradually.
D)Seizure disorders are a lifelong problem. Medications cannot be discontinued.
Q3) Which neurologic diagnostic test gives a visualized horizontal and vertical cross section of the brain at any axis?
A)Nuclear brain scan
B)Echoencephalography
C)Computed tomography (CT) scan
D)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
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Page 47

Chapter 46: Endocrine Dysfunction
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25332
Sample Questions
Q1) What should a nurse advise the parents of a child with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is not eating as a result of a minor illness?
A)Give the child half his regular morning dose of insulin.
B)Substitute simple carbohydrates or calorie-containing liquids for solid foods.
C)Give the child plenty of unsweetened, clear liquids to prevent dehydration.
D)Take the child directly to the emergency department.
Q2) What is the priority nursing goal for a 14-year-old with Graves' disease?
A)Relieving constipation
B)Allowing the adolescent to make decisions about whether or not to take medication
C)Verbalizing the importance of adherence to the medication regimen
D)Developing alternative educational goals
Q3) A child eats some sugar cubes after experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia.This rapid-releasing sugar should be followed by:
A)Saturated and unsaturated fat.
B)Fruit juice.
C)Several glasses of water.
D)Complex carbohydrate and protein.
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Chapter 47: Integumentary Dysfunction
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25333
Sample Questions
Q1) The management of a child who has just been stung by a bee or wasp should include the application of:
A)Cool compresses.
B)Warm compresses.
C)Antibiotic cream.
D)Corticosteroid cream.
Q2) Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for:
A)Sympathetic nerve fibers.
B)Parasympathetic nerve fibers.
C)Posterior root ganglia and the posterior horn of the spinal cord.
D)Lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord.
Q3) Which of the following best describes a full-thickness (third-degree)burn?
A)Erythema and pain
B)Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
C)Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
D)Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone
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Chapter 48: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25334
Sample Questions
Q1) A school-age child is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).The nurse should plan to implement which interventions for this child (Select all that apply)?
A)Instructions to avoid exposure to sunlight
B)Teaching about body changes associated with SLE
C)Preparation for home schooling
D)Restricted activity
Q2) What is most descriptive of the therapeutic management of osteosarcoma?
A)Treatment usually consists of surgery and chemotherapy.
B)Amputation of the affected extremity is rarely necessary.
C)Intensive irradiation is the primary treatment.
D)Bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of long-term survival.
Q3) What would cause a nurse to suspect that an infection has developed under a cast?
A)Complaint of paresthesia
B)Cold toes
C)Increased respirations
D)"Hot spots" felt on cast surface
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Chapter 49: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25335
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is admitting a school-age child with suspected Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS).Which nursing intervention is a priority in the care for this child?
A)Monitoring intake and output
B)Assessing respiratory efforts
C)Placing on a telemetry monitor
D)Obtaining laboratory studies
Q2) A toddler is admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of tetanus.The health care provider has prescribed lorazepam (Ativan)intravenously 0.05 mg/kg/dose every 6 hours prn as a muscle relaxant.The child weighs 22 lbs.How many milligrams of Ativan should the nurse administer per dose? _____ Record your answer using one decimal place.
Q3) Therapeutic management of a child with tetanus includes the administration of:
A)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation.
B)Muscle stimulants to counteract muscle weakness.
C)Bronchodilators to prevent respiratory complications.
D)Antibiotics to control bacterial proliferation at the site of injury.
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