Women's Health Nursing Question Bank
Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the unique health care needs of women throughout their lifespan, including reproductive, gynecological, and menopausal health. The course emphasizes evidence-based practices in the assessment, diagnosis, and management of women's health conditions, with a strong foundation in health promotion, disease prevention, and patient education. Students explore topics such as prenatal and postnatal care, family planning, common gynecological disorders, and the influence of cultural, social, and ethical factors on women's health. Through theoretical instruction and practical learning, students develop the knowledge and skills necessary to provide holistic and compassionate nursing care to women in a variety of clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Maternity and Womens Health Care 11th Edition by Lowdermilk
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37 Chapters
1079 Verified Questions
1079 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/961
Page 2
Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity and Womens Health Nursing
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18940
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is unsure how to perform a client care procedure that is high risk and low volume,his or her best action in this situation would be what?
A) Ask another nurse.
B) Discuss the procedure with the client's physician.
C) Look up the procedure in a nursing textbook.
D) Consult the agency procedure manual, and follow the guidelines for the procedure.
Answer: D
Q2) To ensure client safety,the practicing nurse must have knowledge of The Joint Commission's current "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations.Which term is acceptable for use regarding medication administration?
A) q.o.d. or Q.O.D.
B) MSO4 or MgSO4
C) International Unit
D) Lack of a leading zero
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Community Care: The Family and Culture
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18941
Sample Questions
Q1) When attempting to communicate with a client who speaks a different language,which action is the most appropriate?
A) Promptly and positively respond to project authority.
B) Never use a family member as an interpreter.
C) Talk to the interpreter to avoid confusing the client.
D) Provide as much privacy as possible.
Answer: D
Q2) Which traditional family structure is decreasing in numbers and attributable to societal changes?
A) Extended family
B) Binuclear family
C) Nuclear family
D) Blended family
Answer: C
Q3) In what form do families tend to be the most socially vulnerable?
A) Married-blended family
B) Extended family
C) Nuclear family
D) Single-parent family
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Nursing and Genomics
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18942
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement most accurately describes dominant genetic disorders?
A) With a dominant disorder, the likelihood of the second child also having the condition is 100%.
B) An autosomal recessive disease carries a one-in-eight risk of the second child also having the disorder.
C) Disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs carry a one-in-four chance of being repeated in the second child.
D) The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family.
Answer: D
Q2) Cancer is now recognized as a genetic disorder that begins with one or more genetic mutations.Which type of cancer is specifically being investigated in this regard?
A) Lung cancer
B) Liver cancer
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Oral cancer
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Assessment and Health Promotion
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18943
Sample Questions
Q1) One dose after age 65 years
A)Tetanus-diphtheria-pertussis (Tdap)
B)Measles, mumps, rubella
C)Herpes zoster
D)Hepatitis B
E)Influenza
F)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Q2) Preconception and prenatal care have become important components of women's health.What is the guiding principal of preconception care?
A) Ensure that pregnancy complications do not occur.
B) Identify the woman who should not become pregnant.
C) Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy.
D) Ensure that women know about prenatal care.
Q3) The microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix,endocervix,or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells is called what?
A) Bimanual palpation
B) Rectovaginal palpation
C) Papanicolaou (Pap) test
D) Four As procedure
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Violence Against Women
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18944
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is the most comprehensive description of sexual violence?
A) Sexual violence is limited to rape.
B) Sexual violence is an act of force during which an unwanted and uncomfortable sexual act occurs.
C) Sexual violence encompasses a number of sexual acts.
D) Sexual violence includes degrading sexual comments and behaviors.
Q2) A thorough abuse assessment screen should be completed on all female clients.This screen should include which components?
(Select all that apply).
A) Asking the client if she has ever been slapped, kicked, punched, or physically hurt by her partner
B) Asking the client if she is afraid of her partner
C) Asking the client if she has been forced to perform sexual acts
D) Diagramming the client's current injuries on a body map
E) Asking the client what she did wrong to elicit the abuse
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Chapter 6: Reproductive System Concerns
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18945
Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination,the nurse collects data about the client's recent menstrual cycles.Which statement by the client should prompt the nurse to collect further information?
A) "My menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days."
B) "My flow is very heavy."
C) "I have had a small amount of spotting midway between my periods for the past 2 months."
D) "The length of my menstrual cycles varies from 26 to 29 days."
Q2) To assist a client in managing the symptoms of PMS,what should the nurse recommend based on current evidence?
A) Diet with more body-building and energy foods, such as carbohydrates
B) Herbal therapies, yoga, and massage
C) Antidepressants for symptom control
D) Discouraging the use of diuretics
Q3) The female athlete triad includes which common menstrual disorder?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Dysmenorrhea
C) Menorrhagia
D) Metrorrhagia
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Sexually Transmitted and Other Infections
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18946
Sample Questions
Q1) The health history and physical examination cannot reliably identify all persons infected with HIV or other blood-borne pathogens.Which infection control practice should the nurse use when providing eye prophylaxis to a term newborn?
A) Wear gloves.
B) Wear mouth, nose, and eye protection.
C) Wear a mask.
D) Wash the hands after medication administration.
Q2) A 25-year-old single woman comes to the gynecologist's office for a follow-up visit related to her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap)smear.The test revealed that the client has the HPV.The woman asks,"What is that? Can you get rid of it?" Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) "It's just a little lump on your cervix. We can just freeze it off."
B) "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection that may lead to cervical cancer."
C) "HPV is a type of early human immunodeficiency virus. You will die from this."
D) "You probably caught this from your current boyfriend. He should get tested for this."
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Chapter 8: Contraception and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18947
Sample Questions
Q1) Which benefit regarding FAMs makes it an appealing choice for some women?
A) Adherence to strict recordkeeping
B) Absence of chemicals and hormones
C) Decreased involvement and intimacy of partner
D) Increased spontaneity of coitus
Q2) Which term best describes the conscious decision concerning when to conceive or avoid pregnancy as opposed to the intentional prevention of pregnancy during intercourse?
A) Family planning
B) Birth control
C) Contraception
D) Assisted reproductive therapy
Q3) Which nonpharmacologic contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?
A) Standard days' variation
B) Periodic abstinence
C) Postovulation
D) Coitus interruptus
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10
Chapter 9: Infertility
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18948
Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure falls into the category of micromanipulation techniques of the follicle?
(Select all that apply).
A) Intrauterine insemination
B) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
C) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ISCI)
D) Assisted hatching
E) IVF-ET
Q2) The nurse working with clients who have infertility concerns should be aware of the use of leuprolide acetate (Lupron)as a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)agonist.For which condition would this medication be prescribed?
A) Anovulatory cycles
B) Uterine fibroids
C) Polycystic ovary disease (PCOD)
D) Luteal phase inadequacy
Q3) Which statement regarding gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)is most accurate?
A) Semen is collected after laparoscopy.
B) Women must have two normal fallopian tubes.
C) Ovulation spontaneously occurs.
D) Ova and sperm are transferred to one tube.
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Chapter 10: Problems of the Breast
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18949
Sample Questions
Q1) The most conservative approach for early breast cancer treatment involves lumpectomy followed by which procedure?
A) Radiation
B) Adjuvant systemic therapy
C) Hormonal therapy
D) Chemotherapy
Q2) Macromastia,or breast hyperplasia,is a condition in which women have very large and pendulous breasts.Breast hyperplasia can be corrected with a reduction mammoplasty.Which statement regarding this procedure is the most accurate?
A) Breast reduction surgery is covered by insurance.
B) Breastfeeding might be difficult.
C) No sequelae after the procedure is known.
D) Pain in the back and shoulders may not be relieved.
Q3) What important,immediate postoperative care practice should the nurse remember when caring for a woman who has had a mastectomy?
A) The blood pressure (BP) cuff should not be applied to the affected arm.
B) Venipuncture for blood work should be performed on the affected arm.
C) The affected arm should be used for intravenous (IV) therapy.
D) The affected arm should be held down close to the woman's side.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Structural Disorders and Neoplasms of the Reproductive System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18950
Sample Questions
Q1) What information is important for the nurse to include in planning for the care of a woman who has had a vaginal hysterectomy?
A) Expect to be fully recovered in 4 to 6 weeks.
B) Expect no changes in her hormone levels.
C) Expect surgical menopause.
D) Take tub baths to aid in healing.
Q2) A woman exhibits symptoms that may lead to a possible diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).While completing the initial assessment of the client,which clinical finding would the nurse not anticipate?
A) Anorexia
B) Hirsutism
C) Irregular menses
D) Infertility
Q3) Which woman has the highest risk for endometrial cancer?
A) Postmenopausal woman with hypertension
B) Woman who has an intrauterine device (IUD)
C) Client who has been on birth control for 15 years
D) Perimenopausal woman who has a cystocele
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Chapter 12: Conception and Fetal Development
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18951
Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother asks the nurse about the "white substance" covering her infant.How should the nurse explain the purpose of vernix caseosa?
A) Vernix caseosa protects the fetal skin from the amniotic fluid.
B) Vernix caseosa promotes the normal development of the peripheral nervous system.
C) Vernix caseosa allows the transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.
D) Vernix caseosa regulates fetal temperature.
Q2) Relating to the fetal circulatory system,which special characteristics allow the fetus to obtain sufficient oxygen from the maternal blood? (Select all that apply).
A) Fetal hemoglobin (Hb) carries 20% to 30% more oxygen than maternal Hb.
B) Fetal Hb carries 40% to 50% more oxygen than maternal Hb.
C) Hb concentration is 50% higher than that of the mother.
D) Fetal heart rate is 110 to 160 beats per minute.
E) Fetal heart rate is 160 to 200 beats per minute.
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Chapter 13: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18952
Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy,many changes occur as a direct result of the presence of the fetus.Which of these adaptations meet this criterion?
(Select all that apply).
A) Leukorrhea
B) Development of the operculum
C) Quickening
D) Ballottement
E) Lightening
Q2) A pregnant client tells her nurse that she is worried about the blotchy,brownish coloring over her cheeks,nose,and forehead.The nurse can reassure her that this is a normal condition related to hormonal changes.What is the correct term for this integumentary finding?
A) Melasma
B) Linea nigra
C) Striae gravidarum
D) Palmar erythema
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15
Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18953
Sample Questions
Q1) The client is instructed to place her thumb and forefinger on the areola and gently press inward.What is the purpose of this exercise?
A) To check the sensitivity of the nipples
B) To determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted
C) To calculate the adipose buildup in the abdomen
D) To see whether the fetus has become inactive
Q2) What should the nurse be cognizant of concerning the client's reordering of personal relationships during pregnancy?
A) Because of the special motherhood bond, a woman's relationship with her mother is even more important than with the father of the child.
B) Nurses need not get involved in any sexual issues the couple has during pregnancy, particularly if they have trouble communicating them to each other.
C) Women usually express two major relationship needs during pregnancy: feeling loved and valued and having the child accepted by the father.
D) The woman's sexual desire is likely to be highest in the first trimester because of the excitement and because intercourse is physically easier.
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16
Chapter 15: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18954
Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrition is an alterable and important preventive measure for a variety of potential problems such as low birth weight and prematurity.While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant client,the nurse is able to evaluate the client's nutritional status by observing a number of physical signs.Which physical sign indicates to the nurse that the client has unmet nutritional needs?
A) Normal heart rate, rhythm, and blood pressure
B) Bright, clear, and shiny eyes
C) Alert and responsive with good endurance
D) Edema, tender calves, and tingling
Q2) While obtaining a diet history,the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips,cornstarch,and baking soda.Which nutritional problem does this behavior indicate?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Pyrosis
C) Pica
D) Purging
Q3) The BMI for a woman who is 51 kg before pregnancy and 1.57 m tall is _________.
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Chapter 16: Labor and Birth Processes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18955
Sample Questions
Q1) Which basic type of pelvis includes the correct description and percentage of occurrence in women?
A) Gynecoid: classic female pelvis; heart shaped; 75%
B) Android: resembling the male pelvis; wide oval; 15%
C) Anthropoid: resembling the pelvis of the ape; narrow; 10%
D) Platypelloid: flattened, wide, and shallow pelvis; 3%
Q2) A new mother asks the nurse when the "soft spot" on her son's head will go away.What is the nurse's best response,based upon her understanding of when the anterior frontal closes?
A) 2 months
B) 8 months
C) 12 months
D) 18 months
Q3) Which presentation is accurately described in terms of both the resenting part and the frequency of occurrence?
A) Cephalic: occiput, at least 96%
B) Breech: sacrum, 10% to 15%
C) Shoulder: scapula, 10% to 15%
D) Cephalic: cranial, 80% to 85%
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Comfort for the Laboring Woman
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18956
Sample Questions
Q1) Which alternative approaches to relaxation have proven successful when working with the client in labor?
(Select all that apply).
A) Aromatherapy
B) Massage
C) Hypnosis
D) Cesarean birth
E) Biofeedback
Q2) Anxiety is commonly associated with pain during labor.Which statement regarding anxiety is correct?
A) Even mild anxiety must be treated.
B) Severe anxiety increases tension, increases pain, and then, in turn, increases fear and anxiety, and so on.
C) Anxiety may increase the perception of pain, but it does not affect the mechanism of labor.
D) Women who have had a painful labor will have learned from the experience and have less anxiety the second time because of increased familiarity.
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Chapter 18: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18957
Sample Questions
Q1) Which definition of an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR)is accurate?
A) FHR accelerations are indications of fetal well-being when they are periodic.
B) FHR accelerations are greater and longer in preterm gestations.
C) FHR accelerations are usually observed with breech presentations when they are episodic.
D) An acceleration in the FHR presents a visually apparent and abrupt peak.
Q2) A tiered system of categorizing FHR has been recommended by professional organizations.Nurses,midwives,and physicians who care for women in labor must have a working knowledge of fetal monitoring standards and understand the significance of each category.What is the correct nomenclature for these categories? (Select all that apply).
A) Reassuring
B) Category I
C) Category II
D) Nonreassuring
E) Category III
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20
Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18958
Sample Questions
Q1) Step 3
A)After obtaining permission, gently insert the index and middle fingers into the vagina.
B)Explain the findings to the client.
C)Position the woman to prevent supine hypotension.
D)Use sterile gloves and soluble gel for lubrication.
E)Document findings and report to the health care provider.
F)Cleanse the perineum and vulva, if necessary.
G)Determine dilation, presenting part, status of membranes, and characteristics of amniotic fluid.
Q2) Step 5
A)After obtaining permission, gently insert the index and middle fingers into the vagina.
B)Explain the findings to the client.
C)Position the woman to prevent supine hypotension.
D)Use sterile gloves and soluble gel for lubrication.
E)Document findings and report to the health care provider.
F)Cleanse the perineum and vulva, if necessary.
G)Determine dilation, presenting part, status of membranes, and characteristics of amniotic fluid.
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Chapter 20: Postpartum Physiologic Changes
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18959
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse's next action be if the client's white blood cell (WBC)count is 25,000/mm³ on her second postpartum day?
A) Immediately inform the physician.
B) Have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis.
C) Recognize that this count is an acceptable range at this point postpartum.
D) Immediately begin antibiotic therapy.
Q2) Which condition,not uncommon in pregnancy,is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium?
A) Varicosities of the legs
B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers
D) Headaches
Q3) Excessive use of oxytocin
A)Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours
B)Rapid pulse
C)Elevated temperature at 36 hours postpartum
D)Hypertension
E)Hypoventilation
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18960
Sample Questions
Q1) Korean or other South East Asian countries
A)Prefer not to give babies colostrum.
B)Eat only warm foods and hot drinks.
C)Take the placenta home to bury.
D)Will not eat pork or pork products.
E)Have an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted after the first child.
Q2) Muslim countries
A)Prefer not to give babies colostrum.
B)Eat only warm foods and hot drinks.
C)Take the placenta home to bury.
D)Will not eat pork or pork products.
E)Have an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted after the first child.
Q3) A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital the following day with her infant girl.Which behavior indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged?
A) The woman is disinterested in learning about infant care.
B) The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her.
C) The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps.
D) The woman changes her infant's diaper and then shows the nurse the contents of the diaper.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18961
Sample Questions
Q1) During a telephone follow-up conversation with a woman who is 4 days postpartum,the woman tells the nurse,"I don't know what's wrong.I love my son,but I feel so let down.I seem to cry for no reason!" Which condition might this new mother be experiencing?
A) Letting-go
B) Postpartum depression (PPD)
C) Postpartum blues
D) Attachment difficulty
Q2) A nurse is observing a family.The mother is holding the baby she delivered less than 24 hours ago.Her husband is watching his wife and asking questions about newborn care.The 4-year-old brother is punching his mother on the back.How should the nurse react to this situation?
A) Report the incident to the social services department.
B) Advise the parents that the toddler needs to be reprimanded.
C) Report to oncoming staff that the mother is probably not a good disciplinarian.
D) Realize that this is a normal family unit adjusting to a major family change.
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24
Chapter 23: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18962
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information related to the newborn's developing cardiovascular system should the nurse fully comprehend?
A) The heart rate of a crying infant may rise to 120 beats per minute.
B) Heart murmurs heard after the first few hours are a cause for concern.
C) The point of maximal impulse (PMI) is often visible on the chest wall.
D) Persistent bradycardia may indicate respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
Q2) The parents of a newborn ask the nurse how much the newborn can see.The parents specifically want to know what type of visual stimuli they should provide for their newborn.What information provided by the nurse would be most useful to these new parents?
A) "Infants can see very little until approximately 3 months of age."
B) "Infants can track their parents' eyes and can distinguish patterns; they prefer complex patterns."
C) "The infant's eyes must be protected. Infants enjoy looking at brightly colored stripes."
D) "It's important to shield the newborn's eyes. Overhead lights help them see better."
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18963
Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention by the nurse would reduce the risk of abduction of the newborn from the hospital?
A) Instructing the mother not to give her infant to anyone except the one nurse assigned to her that day
B) Applying an electronic and identification bracelet to the mother and the infant
C) Carrying the infant when transporting him or her in the halls
D) Restricting the amount of time infants are out of the nursery
Q2) The nurse is completing a physical examination of the newborn 24 hours after birth.Which component of the evaluation is correct?
A) The parents are excused to reduce their normal anxiety.
B) The nurse can gauge the neonate's maturity level by assessing his or her general appearance.
C) Once often neglected, blood pressure is now routinely checked.
D) When the nurse listens to the neonate's heart, the S and S sounds can be heard; the S sound is somewhat higher in pitch and sharper than the S sound.
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Chapter 25: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18964
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements concerning the benefits or limitations of breastfeeding are accurate?
(Select all that apply).
A) Breast milk changes over time to meet the changing needs as infants grow.
B) Breastfeeding increases the risk of childhood obesity.
C) Breast milk and breastfeeding may enhance cognitive development.
D) Long-term studies have shown that the benefits of breast milk continue after the infant is weaned.
E) Benefits to the infant include a reduced incidence of SIDS.
Q2) As the nurse assists a new mother with breastfeeding,the client asks,"If formula is prepared to meet the nutritional needs of the newborn,what is in breast milk that makes it better?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) More calories
B) Essential amino acids
C) Important immunoglobulins
D) More calcium
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Chapter 26: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18965
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should nurses provide to expectant mothers when teaching them how to evaluate daily fetal movement counts (DFMCs)?
A) Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity.
B) Kick counts should be taken every ½ hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off.
C) The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
D) A count of less than four fetal movements in 1 hour warrants future evaluation.
Q2) Which clinical finding is a major use of ultrasonography in the first trimester?
A) Amniotic fluid volume
B) Presence of maternal abnormalities
C) Placental location and maturity
D) Cervical length
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Chapter 27: Hypertensive Disorders
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18966
Sample Questions
Q1) What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?
A) Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability
B) Risk for altered gas exchange
C) Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate
D) Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs
Q2) Which statement most accurately describes the HELLP syndrome?
A) Mild form of preeclampsia
B) Diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms
C) Characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets
D) Associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality
Q3) Which neonatal complications are associated with hypertension in the mother?
A) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and prematurity
B) Seizures and cerebral hemorrhage
C) Hepatic or renal dysfunction
D) Placental abruption and DIC
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Chapter 28: Hemorrhagic Disorders
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Q1) Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean birth?
A) Marginal placenta previa
B) Complete placenta previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Eclampsia
Q2) A laboring woman with no known risk factors suddenly experiences spontaneous ROM.The fluid consists of bright red blood.Her contractions are consistent with her current stage of labor.No change in uterine resting tone has occurred.The fetal heart rate (FHR)begins to decline rapidly after the ROM.The nurse should suspect the possibility of what condition?
A) Placenta previa
B) Vasa previa
C) Severe abruptio placentae
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Q3) Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks of gestation might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
A) Complaint of frequent mild nausea
B) Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
C) Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
D) History of bright red spotting for 1 day, weeks ago
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Chapter 29: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels.The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days.Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?
A) 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
B) 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
C) 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
D) 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.
Q2) In terms of the incidence and classification of diabetes,which information should the nurse keep in mind when evaluating clients during their ongoing prenatal appointments?
A) Type 1 diabetes is most common.
B) Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed.
C) GDM means that the woman will receive insulin treatment until 6 weeks after birth.
D) Type 1 diabetes may become type 2 during pregnancy.
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Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Disorders
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Q1) Increased risk of acidosis
A)Increased oxygen consumption
B)Increased heart rate
C)Decreased gastric motility
D)Displacement of abdominal viscera
E)Increase in clotting factors
Q2) When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems,the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation.Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?
A) Regular heart rate and hypertension
B) Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough
C) Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension
D) Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse
Q3) Increased risk of aspiration
A)Increased oxygen consumption
B)Increased heart rate
C)Decreased gastric motility
D)Displacement of abdominal viscera
E)Increase in clotting factors
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Chapter 31: Mental Health Disorders and Substance Abuse
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Q1) According to research,which risk factor for PPD is likely to have the greatest effect on the client postpartum?
A) Prenatal depression
B) Single-mother status
C) Low socioeconomic status
D) Unplanned or unwanted pregnancy
Q2) When a woman is diagnosed with postpartum depression (PPD)with psychotic features,what is the nurse's primary concern in planning the client's care?
A) Displaying outbursts of anger
B) Neglecting her hygiene
C) Harming her infant
D) Losing interest in her husband
Q3) The use of methamphetamine (meth)has been described as a significant drug problem in the United States.The nurse who provides care to this client population should be cognizant of what regarding methamphetamine use?
A) Methamphetamines are similar to opiates.
B) Methamphetamines are stimulants with vasoconstrictive characteristics.
C) Methamphetamines should not be discontinued during pregnancy.
D) Methamphetamines are associated with a low rate of relapse.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Labor and Birth Complications
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Q1) In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor,which finding alerts the nurse to possible side effects?
A) Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours
B) DTRs 2+ and no clonus
C) Respiratory rate (RR) of 16 breaths per minute
D) Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl
Q2) A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1½ to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful.Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours.The woman is crying and wants an epidural.What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
A) She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
B) She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
C) She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
D) She is experiencing precipitous labor.
Q3) Which statement related to the induction of labor is most accurate?
A) Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques
B) Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL)
C) Is almost always performed for medical reasons
D) Is rated for viability by a Bishop score
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Postpartum Complications
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Q1) The nurse suspects that her postpartum client is experiencing hemorrhagic shock.Which observation indicates or would confirm this diagnosis?
A) Absence of cyanosis in the buccal mucosa
B) Cool, dry skin
C) Calm mental status
D) Urinary output of at least 30 ml/hr
Q2) What would a steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggest to the nurse?
A) Uterine atony
B) Lacerations of the genital tract
C) Perineal hematoma
D) Infection of the uterus
Q3) If nonsurgical treatment for late PPH is ineffective,which surgical procedure would be appropriate to correct the cause of this condition?
A) Hysterectomy
B) Laparoscopy
C) Laparotomy
D) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
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Chapter 34: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn
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Q1) The corrected age of an infant who was born at 25 1/7 weeks and is preparing for discharge 124 days past delivery is ______________.
Q2) An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings.Which intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating,gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus,vomiting,and respiratory compromise?
A) Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes
B) Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes
C) Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 30 minutes
D) Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes
Q3) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa.The signs of NEC are nonspecific.What are generalized signs and symptoms of this condition?
A) Hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis
B) Abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools
C) Hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color
D) Scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output
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Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn
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Q1) Near the end of the first week of life,an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus.The newborn is displaying signs and symptoms of which condition?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection
C) Congenital syphilis
D) HIV
Q2) What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment?
A) Escherichia coli infection
B) Tuberculosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Group B streptococci (GBS) infection
Q3) Which conditions are infants of diabetic mothers (IDMs)at a higher risk for developing?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Respiratory distress syndrome
D) Sepsis
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders and Congenital Anomalies
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Q1) Cleft lip or palate is a common congenital midline fissure,or opening,in the lip or palate resulting from the failure of the primary palate to fuse.Multiple genetic and,to a lesser extent,environmental factors may lead to the development of a cleft lip or palate.Which factors are included?
(Select all that apply).
A) Alcohol consumption
B) Female gender
C) Use of some anticonvulsant medications
D) Maternal cigarette smoking
E) Antibiotic use in pregnancy
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a newborn diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia?
A) Risk for impaired parent-infant attachment
B) Imbalanced nutrition, related to less than body requirements
C) Risk for infection
D) Impaired gas exchange
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Chapter 37: Perinatal Loss, Bereavement, and Grief
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Q1) After giving birth to a stillborn infant,the woman turns to the nurse and says,"I just finished painting the baby's room.Do you think that caused my baby to die?" What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "That's an old wives' tale; lots of women are around paint during pregnancy, and this doesn't happen to them."
B) "That's not likely. Paint is associated with elevated pediatric lead levels."
C) Silence.
D) "I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. What else are you thinking about?"
Q2) A family is visiting two surviving triplets.The third triplet died 2 days ago.What action indicates that the family has begun to grieve for the dead infant?
A) Refers to the two live infants as twins
B) Asks about the dead triplet's current status
C) Brings in play clothes for all three infants
D) Refers to the dead infant in the past tense
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