Women's Health Nursing
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the unique health care needs of women across the lifespan, from adolescence to advanced age. Emphasizing a holistic and evidence-based approach, the course covers reproductive and sexual health, pregnancy and childbirth, gynecological disorders, menopause, and the impact of cultural, social, and environmental factors on women's health. Students will develop skills in health assessment, patient education, advocacy, and care planning specific to women, while exploring current issues such as maternal and fetal health, family planning, and management of chronic conditions affecting women. Through theoretical knowledge and clinical practice, students are prepared to provide compassionate and competent nursing care tailored to the diverse experiences and needs of women.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient's use of complementary and alternative therapies. Which should the nurse document as an alternative or complementary therapy practice? (Select all that apply.)
A) Practicing yoga daily
B) Drinking green tea in the morning
C) Taking omeprazole (Prilosec) once a day
D) Using aromatherapy during a relaxing bath
E) Wearing a lower back brace when lifting heavy objects
Answer: A, B, D
Q2) A nurse educator is teaching a group of nursing students about the history of family-centered maternity care. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A)The Sheppard-Towner Act of 1921 promoted family-centered care.
B)Changes in pharmacologic management of labor prompted family-centered care.
C)Demands by physicians for family involvement in childbirth increased the practice of family-centered care.
D)Parental requests that infants be allowed to remain with them rather than in a nursery initiated the practice of family-centered care.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful?
A) Battering
B) Honeymoon
C) Tension-building
D) Increased drug taking
Answer: B
Q2) Which patient may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?
A) A primipara from an upper income family
B) A primipara who comes from a large family
C) A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother
D) A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years
Answer: D
Q3) At the present time, which agency governs surrogate parenting?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing normal female development with a mother of a 10-year-old daughter. The mother states, "I noticed that my daughter developed breast buds about a year ago. When do you think she will start her menstrual cycle?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "In about a year."
B) "Likely any time now."
C) "Does your daughter know what to expect?"
D) "It is impossible to predict when she will start her cycle."
Answer: A
Q2) A newly pregnant patient asks the nurse, "What is a false pelvis?" Which statement by the nurse will best explain this anatomy to the patient?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene are generally
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
Q2) Which statement regarding multifactorial disorders is correct?
A) They may not be evident until later in life.
B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.
C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.
D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.
Q3) Which question posed by the nurse will most likely promote the sharing of sensitive information during a genetic counseling interview?
A) "What kind of defects or diseases seem to run in the family?"
B) "How many people in your family are mentally retarded or handicapped?"
C) "Did you know that you can always have an abortion if the fetus is abnormal?"
D) "Are there any members of your family who have learning or developmental problems?"
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant due to which anatomical adaptation?
A) Maternal blood flow is lower.
B) Placenta attaches most firmly.
C) Uterine endometrium is softer.
D) Developing baby is best nourished.
Q2) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
Q3) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports to the clinic nurse that she has not had a period in over 12 weeks, she is tired, and her breasts are sore all of the time. The patient's urine test is positive for hCG. What is the correct nursing action related to this information?
A) Ask the patient if she has had any nausea or vomiting in the morning.
B) Schedule the patient to be seen by a health care provider within the next 4 weeks.
C) Send the patient to the maternity screening area of the clinic for a routine ultrasound.
D) Determine if there are any factors that might prohibit her from seeking medical care.
Q2) Which findings are presumptive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Quickening
B) Amenorrhea
C) Ballottement
D) Goodell's sign
E) Chadwick's sign
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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8
Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing breathing techniques with a primiparous patient admitted for induction of labor. When is the best time to encourage the laboring patient to use slow, deep chest breathing with contractions?
A) During labor, when she can no longer talk through contractions
B) During the first stage of labor, when the contractions are 3 to 4 minutes apart
C) Between contractions, during the transitional phase of the first stage of labor
D) Between her efforts to push to facilitate relaxation between contractions
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy. The patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which interventions should the nurse plan to share with this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Suck on hard candy.
B) Take prenatal vitamins in the morning.
C) Try some herbal tea to relieve the nausea.
D) Drink fluids frequently but separate from meals.
E) Eat crackers or dry cereal before arising in the morning.
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9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in her fifth month of pregnancy asks the nurse, "How many more calories should I be eating daily?" What is the correct response by the nurse?
A) 180 more calories a day
B) 340 more calories a day
C) 452 more calories a day
D) 500 more calories a day
Q2) Which effect is a common response to both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant patient?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Increased appetite
C) Increased metabolism
D) Changes in insulin metabolism
Q3) Changes in the diet of the pregnant patient who has phenylketonuria would include
A) adding foods high in vitamin C.
B) eliminating drinks containing aspartame.
C) restricting protein intake to <20 g a day.
D) increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day.
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complication could occur as a result of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)?
A) Postdates pregnancy
B) Fetal bradycardia
C) Placenta previa
D) Uterine rupture
Q2) A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
A) NST positive, nonreassuring
B) NST negative, reassuring
C) NST reactive, reassuring
D) NST nonreactive, nonreassuring
Q3) Which aspect of fetal diagnostic testing is most important to expectant parents?
A) Safety of the fetus
B) Duration of the test
C) Cost of the procedure
D) Physical discomfort caused by the procedure
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on which of the following?
A) Hemorrhage is the primary concern.
B) She will be unable to conceive in the future.
C) Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
D) A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
Q2) Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoinsulinemia
D) Hypobilirubinemia
Q3) For the patient who delivered at 6:30 AM on January 10, Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) must be administered prior to
A) 6:30 AM on January 13.
B) 6:30 PM on January 13.
C) 6:30 PM on January 14.
D) 6:30 AM on January 15.
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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In planning sex education classes for the middle school age group, more emphasis should be placed on
A) how to set limits for sexual behavior.
B) the inaccuracy of information from peers.
C) the use of oral contraceptives to prevent unwanted pregnancy.
D) the use of condoms to prevent sexually transmitted diseases as well as pregnancy.
Q2) Which congenital defects in a newborn are associated with long-term parenting problems? (Select all that apply.)
A) Polydactyl
B) Cleft lip and palate
C) Ventral septal defect
D) Ambiguous genitalia
Q3) A patient who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy because
A) prepregnancy medical attention is lacking.
B) personal risk behaviors influence fertility.
C) contraceptives have been used for an extended period of time.
D) the ovaries may be affected by the normal aging process.
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uncontrolled maternal hyperventilation during labor results in A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) A patient asks the nurse how she can tell if labor is real. Which information should the nurse provide to this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) In true labor, the cervix begins to dilate.
B) In true labor, the contractions are felt in the abdomen and groin.
C) In true labor, contractions often resemble menstrual cramps during early labor.
D) In true labor, contractions are inconsistent in frequency, duration, and intensity in the early stages.
E) In true labor your contractions tend to increase in frequency, duration, and intensity with walking.
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14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a patient in the active phase of the first stage of labor. The patient is crying out loudly with each contraction. What is the nurse's most respectful approach for this patient?
A) Ask the patient's labor coach if this is a usual expression of pain for her.
B) Refer to the patient's chart to determine any orders for pain medication.
C) Tell the patient that she is disturbing the other laboring patients on the unit.
D) Encourage the patient to try to suppress her noisiness during contractions.
Q2) The process of labor places significant metabolic demands on the obstetric patient. Which physiologic findings would be expected?
A) Decreased maternal blood pressure as a result of stimulation of alpha receptors
B) Uterine vasoconstriction as a result of stimulation of beta receptors
C) Increased maternal demand for oxygen
D) Increased blood flow to placenta because of catecholamine release
Q3) The health care provider's prescription reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 25 mg IV stat. The medication vial reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 50 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to one decimal point. _____ mL
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the priority intervention for the patient in a left side-lying position whose monitor strip shows a deceleration that extends beyond the end of the contraction?
A) Administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/minute.
B) Decrease the IV rate to 100 mL/hour.
C) Reposition the ultrasound transducer.
D) Perform a vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a nursing student on the application of fetal monitoring devices. Which method of assessing the fetal heart rate requires the use of a gel?
A) Doppler
B) Fetoscope
C) Scalp electrode
D) Tocodynamometer
Q3) Which medications could potentially cause hyperstimulation of the uterus during labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil)
D) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis would take priority in the care of a primipara patient with no visible support person in attendance? The patient has entered the second stage of labor after a first stage of labor lasting 4 hours.
A) Fluid volume deficit (FVD) related to fluid loss during labor and birth process
B) Fatigue related to length of labor requiring increased energy expenditure
C) Acute pain related to increased intensity of contractions
D) Anxiety related to imminent birth process
Q2) A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the patient to be
A) discharged home with a sedative.
B) admitted for extended observation.
C) admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth.
D) discharged home to await the onset of true labor.
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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has had two previous cesarean births is in active labor when she suddenly complains of pain between her scapulae. Which should be the nurse's priority action?
A) Notify the health care provider promptly.
B) Observe for abnormally high uterine resting tone.
C) Decrease the rate of nonadditive intravenous fluid.
D) Reposition the patient with her hips slightly elevated.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. Which therapeutic intervention does the nurse expect will be included in the plan of care?
A) Administration of antihypertensive medication
B) Initiation of CPR and other life support measures
C) Respiratory treatments with nebulizers
D) Internal fetal monitoring
Q3) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the patient delivers vaginally.
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which measure is optimal in order to prevent abdominal distention following a cesarean birth?
A) Rectal suppositories
B) Carbonated beverages
C) Early and frequent ambulation
D) Tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles
Q2) The postpartum nurse has completed discharge teaching for a patient being discharged after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?
A) "I may not have a bowel movement until the 2nd postpartum day."
B) "If I breastfeed and supplement with formula, I won't need any birth control."
C) "I know my normal pattern of bowel elimination won't return until about 8 to 10 days."
D) "If I am not breastfeeding, I should use birth control when I resume sexual relations with my husband."
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum patient would be at increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage if she delivered a(n)
A) 5-lb, 2-oz infant with outlet forceps.
B) 6.5-lb infant after a 2-hour labor.
C) 7-lb infant after an 8-hour labor.
D) 8-lb infant after a 12-hour labor.
Q2) A multiparous patient is admitted to the postpartum unit after a rapid labor and birth of a 4000-g infant. Her fundus is boggy, lochia is heavy, and vital signs are unchanged. The nurse has the patient void and massages her fundus; however, the fundus remains difficult to find and the rubra lochia remains heavy. Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Recheck vital signs.
B) Insert a Foley catheter.
C) Notify the health care provider.
D) Continue to massage the fundus.
Q3) If a DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is suspected, the nurse should
A) perform a Homans sign on the affected leg.
B) dorsiflex the foot of the affected leg.
C) palpate the affected leg for edema and pain.
D) place the patient on bed rest, with the affected leg elevated.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining how a newly delivered baby initiates respirations. Which statement explains this process most accurately?
A) Drying off the infant
B) Chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors
C) An increase in the PO2 and a decrease in the PCO2
D) The continued functioning of the foramen ovale
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely cause of regurgitation when a newborn is fed?
A) The gastrocolic reflex
B) A relaxed cardiac sphincter
C) An underdeveloped pyloric sphincter
D) Placing the infant in a prone position following a feeding
Q3) The infant's heat loss immediately at birth is predominantly from A) radiation.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inspection of a newborn's head following birth reveals a hard ridged area and significant molding. The anterior and posterior fontanels show no sign of depression. Delivery history indicates that the mother was pushing for over 3 hours and had epidural anesthesia. A vacuum extraction was necessary. Based on this information the nurse would
A) continue to monitor newborn and anticipate that molding will subside.
B) inspect and document location of fontanels to complete the head assessment.
C) contact the pediatric provider.
D) note findings as being within normal limits as a result of the strenuous birth process.
Q2) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
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22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parents ask the nurse, "How many wet diapers a day should we expect and how will we know the baby's stools are normal?" Which response should the nurse make if the infant is being formula fed? (Select all that apply.)
A) The stools should be watery.
B) The stools should be dry and hard.
C) The infant should have at least one stool a day.
D) The infant should have at least six wet diapers a day.
E) The infant will only have a bowel movement every other day.
Q2) An infant's temperature is recorded at 36°C (96.8°F) during the morning assessment. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Note the findings in the electronic health record (EHR).
B) Unwrap the infant and inspect for abnormalities.
C) Provide the infant with glucose water.
D) Make sure that the infant is wrapped securely with a blanket and recheck temperature in 15 minutes.
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is breastfeeding her newborn son and is experiencing signs of her breasts feeling tender and full in between infant feedings. She asks if there are any suggestions that you can provide to help alleviate this physical complaint. The ideal nursing response would be to
A) tell the patient to wear a bra at all times to provide more support to breast tissue.
B) have the patient put the infant to her breast more frequently.
C) place ice packs on breast tissue after infant feeding.
D) explain that this is a normal finding and will resolve as her breast tissue becomes more used to nursing.
Q2) How many kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg) of body weight does a full-term formula-fed infant need each day?
A) 50 to 75
B) 100 to 110
C) 120 to 140
D) 150 to 200
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24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis would be considered a priority for a newborn infant who is receiving phototherapy in an isolette?
A) Hypothermia because of phototherapy treatment
B) Impaired skin integrity related to diarrhea as a result of phototherapy
C) Fluid volume deficit related to phototherapy treatment
D) Knowledge deficit (parents) related to initiation of medical therapy
Q2) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q3) Which is the most useful factor in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
Page 25
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
Q2) Newborns whose mothers are substance abusers frequently exhibit which of the following behaviors?
A) Hypothermia, decreased muscle tone, and weak sucking reflex
B) Excessive sleep, weak cry, and diminished grasp reflex
C) Circumoral cyanosis, hyperactive Babinski reflex, and constipation
D) Decreased amounts of sleep, hyperactive Moro reflex, and difficulty feeding
Q3) When a cardiac defect causes the mixing of arterial and venous blood in the right side of the heart, the nurse might expect to find
A) cyanosis.
B) diuresis.
C) signs of congestive heart failure.
D) increased oxygenation of the tissues.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for the patient who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
Q2) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q3) The role of the nurse in family planning is to
A) refer the couple to a reliable physician.
B) decide on the best method for the couple.
C) advise couples on which contraceptive to use.
D) educate couples on the various methods of contraception.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
A) in vitro fertilization (IVF).
B) tubal embryo transfer (TET).
C) therapeutic insemination (IUI).
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Q2) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Q3) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old patient. You expect the initial treatment to include
A) initiating hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the patient after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
Q2) A patient with a history of a cystocele should contact the physician if she experiences
A) backache.
B) constipation.
C) urinary frequency and burning.
D) involuntary loss of urine when she coughs.
Q3) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap test?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
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