Women's Health Nursing Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the unique health care needs of women across the lifespan. It emphasizes evidence-based nursing practices related to reproductive, gynecological, and sexual health, as well as issues such as prenatal and postpartum care, menopause, and common womens health conditions. The course explores sociocultural, psychological, and physiological factors impacting womens health and encourages advocacy, health promotion, and patient education. Students will develop assessment, planning, and intervention skills necessary for providing holistic, patient-centered care to women in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical pathways
A)A practice model that uses a systematic approach to identify specific patients and manage their care in a coordinated way
B)Identifies desired patient outcomes, specifies timelines for achievement of those outcomes, directs appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, includes interventions from a variety of disciplines, promotes collaboration, and involves a comprehensive approach to care
C)Develops clinical practice guidelines to provide safe and effective care
Answer: B
Q2) Capitated care
A)This includes health maintenance organizations (HMOs), point of service plans (POSs), and preferred provider organizations (PPOs).
B)The payer of the health insurance (usually the employer or the government) pays a set amount of money each year to a network of primary care providers (PCPs).
C)Medical diagnoses are classified based on the type of complexity of services generally required.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Directing
A)Calling attention to differences or inconsistencies in statements
B)Using nonverbal responses or succinct comments to encourage the person to continue
C)Restating in words other than those used by the woman what she seems to express; a form of clarification
Answer: B
Q2) Which goal is most appropriate for the collaborative problem of wound infection?
A) The client will not exhibit further signs of infection.
B) Maintain the client's fluid intake at 1000 mL/8 hr.
C) The client will have a temperature of 98.6° F within 2 days.
D) Monitor the client to detect therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy.
Answer: D
Q3) Pinpointing
A)Calling attention to differences or inconsistencies in statements
B)Using nonverbal responses or succinct comments to encourage the person to continue
C)Restating in words other than those used by the woman what she seems to express; a form of clarification
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proximate cause
A)The nurse's breach of duty caused harm.
B)The nurse has a responsibility to give care to the client.
C)An actual injury or harm to the client occurred because of the nurse's breach of duty.
Answer: A
Q2) The United States ranks 27th in terms of worldwide infant mortality rates. Which factor has the greatest impact on decreasing the mortality rate of infants?
A) Providing more women's shelters
B) Ensuring early and adequate prenatal care
C) Resolving all language and cultural differences
D) Enrolling pregnant women in the Medicaid program by their eighth month of pregnancy
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum client who had a vaginal birth asks the nurse, "Will my cervix return to its previous shape before I had my baby?" Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) The cervix will now have a slitlike shape.
B) The cervix will be round and smooth after healing occurs.
C) The cervix will remain 50% effaced now that you have had a baby.
D) The cervix will be slightly dilated to 2 cm for about 6 months.
Q2) A female client who has gone through puberty and started menstruating without any problems now has cessation of periods after 2 years of normal cycles. Which of the following would indicate a possible cause for this occurrence?
A) Lag in development of secondary sexual characteristics
B) Overproduction of androgenic hormones
C) Negative pregnancy test
D) Clinical diagnosis of primary amenorrhea
Q3) Which hormone is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching prenatal clients about avoiding substances or conditions that can harm the fetus. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elimination of use of alcohol
B) Avoidance of supplemental folic acid replacement
C) Stabilization of blood glucose levels in a diabetic client with insulin
D) Avoidance of nonurgent radiologic procedures during the pregnancy
E) Avoidance of maternal hyperthermia to temperatures of 37.8° C (100° F) or higher
Q2) During the course of obtaining a genetic history from a female client, you note that there is a family history of a genetic disease on the maternal side but no evidence of symptomatology in the client or the client's children, two girls. Which observation can you make related to genetic expression?
A) Autosomal dominant expression is observed.
B) X-linked dominant trait is observed.
C) More information is needed to determine the answer.
D) Autosomal recessive expression is observed and both the children will be carriers of the disease process.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to the labor client who is delivering a premature infant?
A) Phytonadione (AquaMEPHYTON)
B) Betamethasone
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Newborn eye prophylaxis
Q2) An expectant father asks the nurse, "Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosomes?" What is the best response by the nurse?
A) X-bearing sperm
B) The tail of the sperm
C) The head of the sperm
D) The middle portion of the sperm
Q3) The nurse is explaining the function of the placenta to a pregnant client. Which statement indicates to the nurse the need for further client teaching?
A) "My baby gets oxygen from the placenta."
B) "The placenta functions to help excrete waste products."
C) "The nourishment that I take in passes through the placenta."
D) "The placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for my baby."
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors contribute to the presence of edema in the pregnant client? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diet consisting of processed foods
B) Hemoconcentration
C) Increase in colloid osmotic pressure
D) Last trimester of pregnancy
E) Decreased venous return
Q2) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a client whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number.
Q3) A client is currently pregnant; she has a 5-year-old son and a 3-year-old daughter. She had one other pregnancy that terminated at 8 weeks. Which are her gravida and para?
A) 3, 2
B) 4, 3
C) 4, 2
D) 3, 3
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9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered to be a system barrier to the birth of prenatal care?
A) Adolescent pregnant client
B) Inability to schedule an appointment with the health care provider because of a busy medical practice
C) Pregnant client has no health insurance
D) Having to sign in for the initial appointment and complete health history records
Q2) The nurse in labor and birth is caring for a Muslim client during the active phase of labor. The nurse notes that the client quickly draws away when touched. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Ask the charge nurse to reassign you to another client.
B) Assume that she doesn't like you and decrease your time with her.
C) Continue to touch her as much as you need to while providing care.
D) Limit touching to a minimum because physical contact may not be acceptable in her culture.
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a client who begins pregnancy at a normal weight?
A) 10 to 15 lb
B) 15 to 20 lb
C) 20 to 25 lb
D) 25 to 35 lb
Q2) A nurse is developing information to give to a group of pregnant women who are interested in nutritional management of their pregnancy with regard to expected weight gain. The nurse bases the amount of weight gain for pregnant women on calculation of their:
A) EDC (expected date of confinement).
B) prepregnancy weight.
C) BMI (body mass index).
D) basal energy expenditure (BEE).
Q3) Which food selections would lead to enhanced iron absorption during pregnancy?
A) Eating additional fiber and grains in the diet
B) Drinking coffee with meals
C) Drinking orange juice
D) Including spinach in the diet two to three times a week
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
Q2) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a client hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder is genetic.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
Q3) What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?
A) Increase placental blood flow.
B) Identify fetal acceleration patterns.
C) Determine the degree of fetal activity.
D) Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.
Q4) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bradley childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
Q2) Dick-Read childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
Q3) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
Q4) Martha is a gravida 3, para 2, whose last child was born 5 years ago. She attended childbirth preparation classes with her first pregnancy. Which class would be most appropriate for her?
A) Refresher course
B) Infant care classes
C) Postpartum classes
D) Early pregnancy classes
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client in labor presents with a breech presentation. The nurse understands that a breech presentation is associated with:
A) more rapid labor.
B) a high risk of infection.
C) maternal perineal trauma.
D) umbilical cord compression.
Q2) If a notation on the client's health record states that the fetal position is LSP, this means that the:
A) head is in the right posterior quadrant of the pelvis.
B) head is in the left anterior quadrant of the pelvis.
C) buttocks are in the left posterior quadrant of the pelvis.
D) buttocks are in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Q3) The nurse is directing an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to take maternal vital signs between contractions. Which statement is the best rationale for assessing maternal vital signs between contractions?
A) Vital signs taken during contractions are not accurate.
B) During a contraction, assessing fetal heart rate is the priority.
C) Maternal blood flow to the heart is reduced during contractions.
D) Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to:
A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
Q2) Which assessment finding could indicate hemorrhage in the postpartum patient?
A) Elevated pulse rate
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Firm fundus at the midline
D) Saturation of two perineal pads in 4 hours
Q3) A client at 40 weeks' gestation should be instructed to go to a hospital or birth center for evaluation when she experiences:
A) fetal movement.
B) irregular contractions for 1 hour.
C) a trickle of fluid from the vagina.
D) thick pink or dark red vaginal mucus.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should:
A) administer O S1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min.
B) place a wedge under the right hip.
C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hr.
D) position client in a knee-chest position.
Q2) The nurse admits a laboring patient at term. On review of the prenatal record, the patient's pregnancy has been unremarkable and she is considered low risk. In planning the patient's care, at what interval will the nurse intermittently auscultate (IA) the fetal heart rate during the first stage of labor?
A) Every 10 minutes
B) Every 15 minutes
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Every 60 minutes
Q3) Late decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client in labor is approaching the transition stage and already has an epidural in place. An additional dose of medication has been prescribed and administered to the client. Which priority intervention should be done by the nurse to help evaluate clinical response to treatment?
A) Obtain a pain scale response from the client based on a 0 to 10 scale.
B) Document maternal blood pressure and fetal heart rates following medication administration and observe for any variations.
C) Document intake and output on the electronic health record (EHR).
D) Increase the flow rate of prescribed parenteral fluid to maintain hydration.
Q2) To improve placental blood flow immediately after the injection of an epidural anesthetic, the nurse should:
A) give the woman oxygen.
B) turn the woman to the right side.
C) decrease the intravenous infusion rate.
D) place a wedge under the woman's right hip.
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client receiving an oxytocin (Pitocin) drip at 16 mU/min develops hypertonic stimulation, FHR 138 bpm with accelerations, and no decelerations, the nurse's best response would be to:
A) stop the drip immediately.
B) decrease the dose to 14 mU/min.
C) reassess the patient at 5 minute intervals.
D) reposition the patient to the left side-lying position.
Q2) A vaginal exam for a laboring multipara client who is 42 weeks' gestation reveals the following information: 4 cm, minimal effacement, -2 station. Which clinical factors would affect the clinical management decision not to rupture membranes with an AmniHook?
A) Vaginal dilation
B) Client is a multipara
C) Presenting part is at -2 station
D) Gestational age
Q3) A maternal indication for the use of vacuum extraction is:
A) a wide pelvic outlet.
B) maternal exhaustion.
C) a history of rapid deliveries.
D) failure to progress past 0 station.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum client overhears the nurse tell the health care provider that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means. Which is the nurse's best response?
A) "You have pitting edema in your ankles."
B) "You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+."
C) "You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot."
D) "You have a 'fleshy' odor to your vaginal drainage."
Q2) Which assessment finding 24 hours after vaginal birth would indicate a need for further intervention?
A) Pain level 5 on scale of 0 to 10
B) Saturated pad over a 2-hour period
C) Urinary output of 500 mL in one voiding
D) Uterine fundus 2 cm above the umbilicus
Q3) Vaginal exam findings reveal a slitlike opening of the cervix. What is the correct interpretation of this finding with regard to obstetric history?
A) Client has not been pregnant.
B) Client has had a C section as a method of birth.
C) Client has been treated for an STD with resultant scarring of the cervix.
D) Client has a history of pregnancy.
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action should the nurse do to provide support and encouragement to the new postpartum client?
A) Recount how she solved her own problems.
B) Correct the new mother at every opportunity.
C) Praise the mother's early attempts at infant care.
D) Explain to the new mother that everything will be fine.
Q2) Which anticipatory guidance action by the nurse makes role transition to parenthood easier?
A) Helps the new parents identify resources
B) Recommends employing babysitters frequently
C) Tells the parents about the realities of parenthood
D) Offers a home phone number and tells parents to call if they have a question
Q3) A new mother states, "My mother-in-law will be here from out of town for a few weeks. I'm afraid she will take over the care of the baby." Which response should the nurse make?
A) Tell the client that everything will be okay.
B) Tell the client how lucky she is to have someone to help her.
C) Encourage the client to allow her mother-in-law to take care of the newborn.
D) Encourage the client to tell her mother-in-law that she (the new mother) wants to care for her infant.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the newborn nursery, you are reviewing the maternal medication list to ascertain if there is any significant risk to the newborn. Which medications would pose a potential risk to the newborn in terms of clotting ability? (Select all that apply.)
A) Carbamazepine
B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C) Phenobarbital
D) INH (Isoniazid)
Q2) An infant at 36 weeks' gestation was just delivered; included in the protocol for a preterm infant is an initial blood glucose assessment. The nurse obtains the blood and the reading is 58 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action based on this reading?
A) Document the finding in the newborn's chart.
B) Double-wrap the newborn under a warming unit.
C) Feed the newborn a 10% dextrose solution.
D) Notify the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) of the pending admission.
Q3) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inspection of a newborn's head following birth reveals a hard ridged area and significant molding. The anterior and posterior fontanels show no sign of depression. Delivery history indicates that the mother was pushing for over 3 hours and had epidural anesthesia, and vacuum extraction was used. Based on this information the nurse would first:
A) continue to monitor newborn and anticipate that molding will subside.
B) inspect and document location of fontanels to complete the head assessment.
C) contact the neonatologist.
D) note findings as being within normal limits as a result of the strenuous birth process.
Q2) Infants who develop cephalohematoma are at increased risk for:
A) infection.
B) jaundice.
C) caput succedaneum.
D) erythema toxicum.
Q3) Molding
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) An infant's temperature is recorded at 36° C (96.8° F) during the morning assessment in the newborn nursery. Which priority action should the nurse implement?
A) Note the findings in the electronic health record (EHR).
B) Unwrap the infant and inspect for abnormalities.
C) Provide the infant with glucose water.
D) Make sure that the infant is wrapped securely with a blanket and recheck temperature in 15 minutes.
Q2) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take an action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37° C (98.6° F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
Q3) Which newborn testing must be performed prior to discharge from the hospital? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Hearing
C) Guthrie
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Galactosemia
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Late in pregnancy, the client's breasts should be assessed by the nurse to identify any potential concerns related to breastfeeding. Which of the following nipple conditions make it necessary to intervene before birth. (Select all that apply.)
A) Flat nipples
B) Cracked nipples
C) Everted nipples
D) Inverted nipples
E) Nipples that contract when compressed
Q2) Which interventions may relieve symptoms of colic in the infant? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased stimulation of infant to provide distraction
B) Burping infant frequently during feedings
C) Feeding infant placed in an upright position
D) Providing chamomile tea to infant
E) Feeding infant on an on demand schedule
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24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which should be included in the home care of a high-risk infant?
A) Feeding the infant on a strict schedule
B) Keeping the infant in the supine or prone position
C) Providing continued respiratory support and oxygen
D) Cleaning the umbilical cord several times daily with alcohol
Q2) A new client asks what she can do to help her infant sleep through the night. Which should the nurse instruct?
A) Bring the infant into a well-lit room for the feeding.
B) Avoid talking to the infant and keep the room quiet during night feedings.
C) Play with the infant after the feeding before putting the infant back into the crib.
D) Change the infant's diaper after the feeding to prevent waking the infant later in the night.
Q3) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 99.8° F (37.7° C)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths/min
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women who become pregnant after the age of 35 are more likely to:
A) have multiple births because of increased fertility rates.
B) be hypotensive during the pregnancy.
C) have fewer obstetric complications due to stronger pelvic structure.
D) have a child who has a trisomy 21 abnormality.
Q2) Which statement correctly describes the incidence of intimate partner violence (IPV) in the United States?
A) Intimate partner violence seldom occurs during pregnancy.
B) Each year about 42.4 million women experience intimate partner violence.
C) The largest number of intimate partner violence is in the lower socioeconomic classes.
D) Intimate partner violence is second only to automobile accidents as the most frequent cause of injury to women.
Q3) Which is an example of healthy grieving?
A) The mother exhibits an absence of crying or expression of feelings.
B) The parents do not mention the baby in conversation with family members.
C) The mother asks that the baby be taken away from the delivery area quickly.
D) While holding the baby, the mother says to her husband, "He has your eyes and nose."
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26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preeclamptic patient is receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. On assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's urinary output has been 20 mL/hr for the past 2 hours and her deep tendon reflexes are absent. The health care provider prescribes calcium gluconate, 1 g of a 10% solution. The standard rate of infusion is 1 mL/min. How many minutes will it take for the nurse to administer the prescribed calcium?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
Q2) A nurse is explaining to the nursing students working on the antepartum unit how to assess edema. Which edema assessment score indicates edema of the lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area?
A) +1
B) +2
C) +3
D) +4
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which postpartum client requires further assessment?
A) G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
B) G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
C) G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
D) G3 P2 postcesarean client who has active herpes lesions on the labia
Q2) Antiinfective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant client with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the client is at risk of developing:
A) hypertension.
B) postpartum infection.
C) bacterial endocarditis.
D) upper respiratory infections.
Q3) Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
A) Rubella
B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C) Syphilis
D) HIV
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2138
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with polyhydramnios was admitted to a labor-birth-recovery-postpartum (LDRP) suite. Her membranes rupture and the fluid is clear and odorless, but the fetal heart monitor indicates bradycardia and variable decelerations. Which action should be taken next?
A) Perform Leopold maneuvers.
B) Perform a vaginal examination.
C) Apply warm saline soaks to the vagina.
D) Place the client in a high Fowler position.
Q2) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because:
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the client delivers vaginally.
Q3) Which action by the nurse prevents infection in the labor and birth area?
A) Using clean techniques for all procedures
B) Keeping underpads and linens as dry as possible
C) Cleaning secretions from the vaginal area by using a back to front motion
D) Performing vaginal examinations every hour while the client is in active labor
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29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139
Sample Questions
Q1) If a late postpartum hemorrhage is documented on a client who delivered 3 days ago, the nurse recognizes that this hemorrhage occurred:
A) on the first postpartum day.
B) during recovery phase of labor.
C) during the third stage of labor.
D) on the second postpartum day.
Q2) What data in the client's history should the nurse recognize as being pertinent to a possible diagnosis of postpartum depression?
A) Teenage depression episode
B) Unexpected operative birth
C) Ambivalence during the first trimester
D) Second pregnancy in a 3-year period
Q3) Which measure may prevent mastitis in a breastfeeding client?
A) Wearing a tight-fitting bra
B) Applying ice packs prior to feeding
C) Initiating early and frequent feedings
D) Nursing the infant for 5 minutes on each breast
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2140
Sample Questions
Q1) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q2) Which is most helpful in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
Q3) What will the nurse note when assessing an infant with asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction?
A) All body parts appear proportionate.
B) The extremities are disproportionate to the trunk.
C) The head seems large compared with the rest of the body.
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D) One side of the body appears slightly smaller than the other.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141
Sample Questions
Q1) A mother with diabetes has done some reading about the effects of her condition on a newborn. Which statement shows a misunderstanding that should be clarified by the nurse?
A) "The red appearance of my baby's skin is due to an excessive number of red blood cells."
B) "My baby will be watched closely for signs of low blood sugar, especially during the early days after birth."
C) "My baby's pancreas may not produce enough insulin because the cells became smaller than normal during my pregnancy."
D) "Although my baby is large, some women with diabetes have very small babies because the blood flow through the placenta may not be as good as it should be."
Q2) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142
Sample Questions
Q1) When using the basal body temperature method of family planning, the woman should know that:
A) she will remain fertile for 5 days after ovulation.
B) she should take her temperature each night before going to bed.
C) her temperature will increase about 0.4° to 0.8° F after ovulation.
D) her temperature is normally lower during the second half of her cycle.
Q2) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for a client who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
Q3) A client is using Depo-Provera as her method of birth control. Which finding warrants immediate intervention?
A) Mid-cycle bleeding
B) Nausea
C) Temperature of 100° F
D) Irregular periods
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33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2143
Sample Questions
Q1) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest:
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q2) A newly married woman states, "My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don't understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant." The nurse's best response is:
A) "Your friend may be right. The disease may affect your ability to conceive."
B) "Pelvic inflammatory disease may damage the ovaries and prevent ovulation."
C) "Your friend has been misinformed. Fallopian tube damage occurs only following gonorrhea."
D) "Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus."
Q3) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2144
Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
Q2) Findings of a Pap smear exam denote atypical cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The Pap test is repeated at 6 months and the same finding of ASCUS are reported. Which therapeutic treatment option would the nurse expect the practitioner to order?
A) Mammography
B) Bone scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Biopsy
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2145
Sample Questions
Q1) The drug of choice to treat gonorrhea is:
A) penicillin G (Pfizerpen).
B) tetracycline (Achromycin).
C) ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
D) acyclovir (Zovirax).
Q2) You are taking care of a client who has had a colporrhaphy. Which option would indicate a priority assessment during the postoperative period?
A) Documentation of a pessary in the operative procedure notes by the physician
B) Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician
C) Use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy in the postoperative period
D) Order for removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure
Q3) Which should the nurse teach to assist a client to regain control of her urinary sphincter?
A) Do Kegel exercises.
B) Void every hour while awake.
C) Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
D) Allow the bladder to become distended before voiding.
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