Women's Health Nursing Final Exam
Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing focuses on the specialized care of women across the lifespan, addressing their unique health needs from adolescence through older adulthood. This course explores topics such as reproductive and gynecological health, prenatal and postnatal care, family planning, common and complex conditions affecting women, and health promotion strategies. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, patient education, cultural competence, and advocacy for womens health. Students gain skills in assessment, diagnosis, and management of womens health issues within a multidisciplinary team, preparing them to deliver holistic and compassionate care in clinical and community settings.
Recommended Textbook Maternity and Womens Health Care 10th Edition by Kathryn Rhodes Alden
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38 Chapters
817 Verified Questions
817 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity and Womens Health
Nursing
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials is:
A)Derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification
B)Known as evidence-based practice
C)At odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing
D)An outgrowth of telemedicine
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse should be aware that a statistic widely used to compare the health status of different populations is the:
A)Incidence of specific infections,such as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)and tuberculosis
B)Infant mortality rate
C)Maternal morbidity rate
D)Incidence of low-birth-weight (LBW)infants
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Community Care: the Family and Culture
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be aware that during the childbearing experience,an African-American woman will most likely:
A)Seek prenatal care early in her pregnancy
B)Avoid self-treatment of pregnancy-related discomfort
C)Request liver in the postpartum period to prevent anemia
D)Arrive at the hospital in advanced labor
Answer: D
Q2) A pictorial tool that can assist the nurse in assessing aspects of family life related to health care is the:
A)Genogram
B)Family values construct
C)Life cycle model
D)Human development wheel
Answer: A
Q3) A health care service representing the tertiary level of prevention includes:
A)Stress management seminars
B)Childbirth education classes for single parents
C)A breast self-examination (BSE)pamphlet and teaching
D)A premenstrual syndrome (PMS)support group
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Clinical Genetics
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Human Genome Project,which began in 1990:
A)Expected to complete a map of the entire human genome by 2010
B)Found that all human beings are 99.9% identical at the DNA level
C)Has not yet been able to translate the accumulating raw research into anything medically practical
D)Put its research relevant to nursing in a document published by the International Society of Nurses in Genetics (ISONG)
Answer: B
Q2) A woman who is gravida 2 and 16 GW comes in for her prenatal appointment.Her 2-year-old daughter is with her and is wearing a sleeveless top.While interacting with her daughter,you note axillary freckling and several café-au-lait spots (>2 cm).In reviewing her chart,you would assess for documentation of which genetic disease?
A)Tay-Sachs disease
B)Galactosemia
C)Neurofibromatosis (NF)
D)Phenylketonuria
Answer: C
Q3) The karyotype designated as female is ___________________.
Answer: 46 XX
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Assessment and Health Promotion
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transition phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline is called:
A)The climacteric
B)Menarche
C)Menopause
D)Puberty
Q2) Kegel exercises,or pelvic muscle exercises:
A)Were developed to control or reduce incontinent urine loss
B)Are the best exercises for a pregnant woman because they are so pleasurable
C)Help to manage stress
D)Are ineffective without sufficient calcium in the diet
Q3) A fully matured endometrium that has reached the thickness of heavy,soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle.
A)Menstrual
B)Proliferative
C)Secretory
D)Ischemic
Q4) In order to effectively screen a client at risk for an eating disorder,the nurse should use the ________________ questionnaire.
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Chapter 5: Violence Against Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary theme of the feminist perspective on violence against women recognizes the:
A)Role of testosterone as the underlying cause of men's violent behavior
B)Basic human instinctual drive toward aggression
C)Dominance and coercive control over women by men
D)Cultural norm of violence in Western society
Q2) Intervention for the sexual abuse survivor often is not attempted by maternity and women's health nurses because of the concern about increasing the distress of the woman and the lack of expertise in counseling.What initial intervention is appropriate and most important in facilitating the woman's care?
A)Initiating a referral to an expert counselor
B)Setting limits on what the client discloses
C)Listening and encouraging therapeutic communication skills
D)Acknowledging the nurse's discomfort to the client as an expression of empathy
Q3) The justification for the victimization of women very early in history was that:
A)Women were regarded as possessions
B)Women were the "weaker sex"
C)Control of women was necessary for protection
D)Women were created subordinate to men
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Reproductive System Concerns
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD)is accurate?
A)Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PDD)is a milder form of premenstrual syndrome and more common in younger women.
B)Secondary dysmenorrhea is more intense and medically significant than primary dysmenorrhea.
C)Premenstrual syndrome is a complex,poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms.
D)The causes of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)have been well established.
Q2) When assessing the client for amenorrhea,the nurse should be aware that this may be caused by all conditions except:
A)Anatomic abnormalities
B)Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C)Lack of exercise
D)Hysterectomy
Q3) Some plant foods contain _________________________ and are capable of interacting with estrogen receptors in the body.
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Chapter 7: Sexually Transmitted and Other Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) TORCH stands for:
H
Q2) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)recommends that human papillomavirus (HPV)be treated with client-applied:
A)Miconazole ointment
B)Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
C)Penicillin given intramuscularly for two doses
D)Metronidazole by mouth
Q3) A woman has a thick,white,lumpy,cottage cheese-like discharge,with patches on her labia and in her vagina.She complains of intense pruritus.The nurse practitioner orders which preparation for treatment?
A)Fluconazole
B)Tetracycline
C)Clindamycin
D)Acyclovir
Q4) Rates of syphilis in the United States among women,especially African-Americans,have continued to rise since 2004.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Contraception and Abortion
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Q1) An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners.She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex.She requests an intrauterine device (IUD).The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A)"The IUD does not interfere with sex."
B)"The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease will be higher for you."
C)"The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections."
D)"Pregnancy rates are high with the IUDs."
Q2) Injectable progestins (DMPA,Depo-Provera)are a good contraceptive choice for women who:
A)Want menstrual regularity and predictability
B)Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer
C)Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily
D)Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care
Q3) Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions?
A)They are performed only for maternal health.
B)They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs.
C)They are mostly performed in the second trimester.
D)They can be either elective or therapeutic.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test used to diagnose the basis of infertility is done during the luteal or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?
A)Hysterosalpingogram
B)Endometrial biopsy
C)Laparoscopy
D)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)level
Q2) A couple comes in for an infertility workup,having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years.The woman,37,has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy.The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago.The man has had two normal semen analyses,but the sperm seem to be clumped together.What additional test is needed?
A)Testicular biopsy
B)Antisperm antibodies
C)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)level
D)Examination for testicular infection
Q3) The ___________________ __________ is one method used to evaluate the adequacy of coital technique,cervical mucous,sperm quality and penetration.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Problems of the Breast
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14 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Being overweight or obese is linked to a lower risk of breast cancer,especially for postmenopausal women.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) After a mastectomy,a woman should be instructed to perform the following except:
A)Empty surgical drains twice a day and as needed
B)Avoid lifting more than 4.5 kg (10 lb)or reaching above her head until given permission by her surgeon
C)Wear clothing with snug sleeves to support the tissue of the arm on the operative side
D)Report it immediately if inflammation develops at the incision site or in the affected arm
Q3) A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable,immobile,and nontender.This is most likely:
A)Fibroadenoma
B)Lipoma
C)Intraductal papilloma
D)Mammary duct ectasia
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Chapter 11: Structural Disorders and Neoplasms of the
Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalence of urinary incontinence (UI)increases as women age,with more than one third of women in the United States suffering from some form of this disorder.The symptoms of mild to moderate UI can be successfully decreased by a number of strategies.Which of these should the nurse instruct the client to use first?
A)Pelvic floor support devices
B)Bladder training and pelvic muscle exercises
C)Surgery
D)Medications
Q2) Which woman is at high risk for psychologic complications after hysterectomy?
A)A 55-year-old woman who has been having abnormal bleeding and pain for 3 years
B)A 46-year-old woman who has three children and has just been promoted at work
C)A 62-year-old widow who has three friends who have had uncomplicated hysterectomies
D)A 19-year-old woman who had a ruptured uterus after giving birth to her first child
Q3) A ____________________ cyst is a germ cell tumor that contains substances such as hair,teeth,sebaceous secretions,and bones.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Conception and Fetal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the structure and function of the placenta,the maternity nurse should be aware that:
A)As the placenta widens,it gradually thins to allow easier passage of air and nutrients
B)As one of its early functions,the placenta acts as an endocrine gland
C)The placenta is able to keep out most potentially toxic substances,such as cigarette smoke,to which the mother is exposed
D)Optimal blood circulation is achieved through the placenta when the woman is lying on her back or standing
Q2) Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination.This is her first child.She asks you (the nurse),"How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" The correct response is:
A)"The baby's lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
B)"The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system."
C)"The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream."
D)"The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby's abdomen."
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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Q1) Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate?
A)Insufficient salivation (ptyalism)is caused by increases in estrogen.
B)Acid indigestion (pyrosis)begins early but declines throughout pregnancy.
C)Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily)because hormone production increases.
D)Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.
Q2) In order to reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the cervix,vagina,and position of the fetus,nurses should be aware that:
A)Because of a number of changes in the cervix,abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap)tests are much easier to evaluate
B)Quickening is a technique of palpating the fetus to engage it in passive movement
C)The deepening color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix (Chadwick sign)usually appears in the second trimester or later as the vagina prepares to stretch during labor
D)Increased vascularity of the vagina increases sensitivity and may lead to a high degree of arousal,especially in the second trimester
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Chapter 14: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutritional recommendation about fluids is accurate?
A)A woman's daily intake should be six to eight glasses of water,milk,and/or juice.
B)Coffee should be limited to no more than 2 cups,but tea and cocoa can be consumed without worry.
C)Of the artificial sweeteners,only aspartame has not been associated with any maternity health concerns.
D)Water with fluoride is especially encouraged because it reduces the child's risk of tooth decay.
Q2) Nutrition is one of the most significant factors in influencing the outcome of a pregnancy.Nutrition is alterable and an important preventive measure for a variety of potential problems such as low birth weight and prematurity.While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant client,the nurse can evaluate the client's nutritional status by observing a number of physical signs.Which sign indicates that the client has unmet nutritional needs?
A)Normal heart rate,rhythm,and blood pressure
B)Bright,clear,shiny eyes
C)Alert,responsive,and good endurance
D)Edema,tender calves,and tingling
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) In response to requests by the U.S.Public Health Service for new models of prenatal care,an innovative new approach to prenatal care known as centering pregnancy was developed.Which statement accurately applies to the centering model of care?
A)Group sessions begin with the first prenatal visit.
B)At each visit blood pressure,weight,and urine dipsticks are obtained by the nurse.
C)Eight to 12 women are placed in gestational-age cohort groups.
D)Outcomes are similar to traditional prenatal care.
Q2) A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation calls the clinic to report that she has been experiencing occasional backaches of mild to moderate intensity.The nurse recommends that she:
A)Do Kegel exercises
B)Do pelvic rock exercises
C)Use a softer mattress
D)Stay in bed for 24 hours
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Chapter 16: Labor and Birth Processes
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Q1) The factors that affect the process of labor and birth,known commonly as the five Ps,include all except:
A)Passenger
B)Passageway
C)Powers
D)Pressure
Q2) The nurse expects which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor?
A)Increased cardiac output
B)Decreased pulse rate
C)Decreased white blood cell (WBC)count
D)Decreased blood pressure
Q3) A pregnant woman is at 38 weeks of gestation.She wants to know if any signs indicate "labor is getting closer to starting." The nurse informs the woman that which of the following is a sign that labor may begin soon?
A)Weight gain of 1.5 to 2 kg (3 to 4 lb)
B)Increase in fundal height
C)Urinary retention
D)Surge of energy
Q4) Which pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth? __________________
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Chapter 17: Pain Management
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Q1) The nurse understands that approaches to relaxation in labor include (choose all that apply):
A)Aromatherapy
B)Massage
C)Hypnosis
D)Cesarean birth
E)Biofeedback
Q2) With regard to a pregnant woman's anxiety and pain experience,nurses should be aware that:
A)Even mild anxiety must be treated
B)Severe anxiety increases tension,which increases pain,which in turn increases fear and anxiety,and so on
C)Anxiety may increase the perception of pain,but it does not affect the mechanism of labor
D)Women who have had a painful labor will have learned from the experience and have less anxiety the second time because of increased familiarity
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Chapter 18: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a perinatal nurse,you realize that a fetal heart rate (FHR)that is tachycardic,bradycardic,has late decelerations,or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with:
A)Hypotension
B)Cord compression
C)Maternal drug use
D)Hypoxemia
Q2) A nurse caring for a woman in labor understands that maternal hypotension can result in:
A)Early decelerations
B)Fetal arrhythmias
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency
D)Spontaneous rupture of membranes
Q3) A nurse providing care for a laboring woman understands that amnioinfusion is used to treat:
A)Variable decelerations
B)Late decelerations
C)Fetal bradycardia
D)Fetal tachycardia
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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Q1) Because the risk for childbirth complications may be revealed,nurses should know that the point of maximal intensity (PMI)of the fetal heart rate (FHR)is:
A)Usually directly over the fetal abdomen
B)In a vertex position,heard above the mother's umbilicus
C)Heard lower and closer to the midline of the mother's abdomen as the fetus descends and rotates internally
D)In a breech position,heard below the mother's umbilicus
Q2) The nurse who performs vaginal examinations to assess a woman's progress in labor should:
A)Perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor
B)Perform the examination with the woman in the supine position
C)Wear two clean gloves for each examination
D)Discuss the findings with the woman and her partner
Q3) The nurse knows that the second stage of labor,the descent phase,has begun when:
A)The amniotic membranes rupture
B)The cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination
C)The woman experiences a strong urge to bear down
D)The presenting part is below the ischial spines
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Chapter 20: Postpartum Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knowing that the condition of the new mother's breasts will be affected by whether she is breastfeeding,nurses should be able to tell their clients all of these statements except:
A)Breast tenderness is likely to persist for about a week after the start of lactation
B)As lactation is established,a mass may form that can be distinguished from cancer by its position shift from day to day
C)In nonlactating mothers,colostrum is present for the first few days after childbirth
D)If suckling is never begun (or is discontinued),lactation ceases within a few days to a week
Q2) A woman gave birth to an infant boy 10 hours ago.Where does the nurse expect to locate this woman's fundus?
A)At the level of the umbilicus
B)Two centimeters below the umbilicus
C)Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis
D)Nonpalpable abdominally
Q3) The process in which the uterus returns to a nonpregnant state after birth is known as ____________________.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care of the Family During the
Postpartum Period
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Q1) Regardless of her obstetric status,no woman should be discharged from the recovery area until she has completely recovered from the effects of anesthesia and has been cleared by a member of the anesthesia care team.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q2) A recently delivered mother and her baby are at the clinic for a 6-week postpartum checkup.The nurse should be concerned that psychosocial outcomes are not being met if the woman:
A)Discusses her labor and birth experience excessively
B)Feels that her baby is more attractive and clever than any others
C)Has not given the baby a name
D)Has a partner or family members who react very positively about the baby
Q3) The _________________________ test is used to detect the amount of fetal blood in the maternal circulation.
Q4) What will prevent early discharge of a postpartum woman?
A)Hgb <10 g
B)Birth at 38 weeks of gestation
C)Voids about 200 to 300 ml per void
D)Episiotomy that shows slight redness and edema and is dry and approximated
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Q1) During a phone follow-up conversation with a woman who is 4 days postpartum,the woman tells the nurse,"I don't know what's wrong.I love my son,but I feel so let down.I seem to cry for no reason!" The nurse recognizes that the woman is experiencing:
A)Letting-go
B)Postpartum depression (PPD)
C)Postpartum blues
D)Attachment difficulty
Q2) With regard to parents' early and extended contact with their infant and the relationships built,nurses should be aware that:
A)Immediate contact is essential for the parent-child relationship
B)Skin-to-skin contact is preferable to contact with the body totally wrapped in a blanket
C)Extended contact is especially important for adolescents and low-income women because they are at risk for parenting inadequacies
D)Mothers need to take precedence over their partners and other family matters
Q3) ____________________ is the process by which the parent and infant come to love and accept each other.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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Q1) All of these statements about physiologic jaundice are true except:
A)Neonatal jaundice is common,but kernicterus is rare
B)The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours or beyond day 7 indicates a pathologic process
C)Because jaundice may not appear before discharge,parents need instruction on how to assess it and when to call for medical help
D)Breastfed babies have a lower incidence of jaundice
Q2) What infant response to cool environmental conditions is either not effective or not available to them?
A)Constriction of peripheral blood vessels
B)Metabolism of brown fat
C)Increased respiratory rates
D)Unflexing from the normal position
Q3) The nurse assessing a newborn knows that the most critical physiologic change required of the newborn is:
A)Closure of fetal shunts in the circulatory system
B)Full function of the immune defense system at birth
C)Maintenance of a stable temperature
D)Initiation and maintenance of respirations
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family
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Q1) As recently as 2005,the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP)revised safe sleep practices to assist in the prevention of sudden infant death syndrome.The nurse should model these practices in the hospital and incorporate this information into the teaching for new parents.They include (choose all that apply):
A)Fully supine position for all sleep
B)Side-sleeping position as an acceptable alternative
C)"Tummy time" for play
D)Infant sleep sacks or buntings
E)A soft mattress
Q2) As part of the infant discharge teaching,the nurse is reviewing the use of the infant car safety seat.The nurse is teaching that:
A)Infant carriers are fine until an infant car safety seat can be purchased
B)For traveling on airplanes,buses,and trains,infant carriers are satisfactory
C)Infant car safety seats are used for infants only from birth to 15 pounds
D)Infant car seats should be rear facing and placed in the back seat of the car
Q3) A nurse is discussing infant care as part of a mother-infant's couplet discharge planning.The mother asks the nurse,"When will my baby's cord fall off?" The nurse responds,"Your baby's cord should fall off by ____________________ (weeks/days)after birth."
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Q1) Examples of appropriate techniques to wake a sleepy infant for breastfeeding include (choose all that apply):
A)Unwrap the infant
B)Change the diaper
C)Talk to the infant
D)Slap the infant's hands and feet
E)Apply a cold towel to the infant's abdomen
Q2) Nurses should be able to tell breastfeeding mothers that all of these are signs that the infant has latched on correctly to her breast except:
A)She feels a firm tugging sensation on her nipples but not pinching or pain
B)The baby sucks with cheeks rounded,not dimpled
C)The baby's jaw glides smoothly with sucking
D)The baby's nostrils become occluded
Q3) The best reason for recommending formula over breastfeeding is:
A)The mother has a medical condition or is taking drugs that could be passed along to the infant via breast milk
B)The mother lacks confidence in her ability to breastfeed
C)Other family members or care providers also need to feed the baby
D)The mother sees bottle feeding as more convenient
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Assessment for Risk Factors in Pregnancy
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Q1) A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST).She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes.The fetal heart rate (FHR)has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations.The interpretation of this test is said to be:
A)Negative
B)Positive
C)Satisfactory
D)Unsatisfactory
Q2) Assessment of risk to the mother and fetus should include environmental factors such as noxious chemicals and pollutants.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Of these psychosocial factors,which has the least negative effect on the health of the mother and/or fetus?
A)Moderate coffee consumption
B)Moderate alcohol consumption
C)Cigarette smoke
D)Emotional distress
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Chapter 27: Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy
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Q1) The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced.Before initiating the oxytocin (Pitocin)infusion,the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings,which reveal a platelet count of 90,000,an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST)level,and a falling hematocrit.The nurse notifies the physician because the lab results are indicative of:
A)Eclampsia
B)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C)HELLP syndrome
D)Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
Q2) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is
Q3) Nurses should be aware that chronic hypertension:
A)Is defined as hypertension that begins during pregnancy and lasts for the duration of pregnancy
B)Is considered severe when the systolic blood pressure (BP)is greater than 140 mm Hg or the diastolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg
C)Is general hypertension plus proteinuria
D)Can occur independently of or simultaneously with preeclampsia
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Chapter 28: Antepartum Hemorrhagic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which laboratory marker is indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A)Bleeding time of 10 minutes
B)Presence of fibrin split products
C)Thrombocytopenia
D)Hyperfibrinogenemia
Q2) With regard to hemorrhagic complications that may present during pregnancy,nurses should know that:
A)An incompetent cervix usually is not diagnosed until the woman has lost one or two pregnancies
B)The incidence of ectopic pregnancy is declining as a result of improved diagnostic techniques
C)One ectopic pregnancy does not affect a woman's fertility or her likelihood of having a normal pregnancy the next time
D)Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)is one of the persistently incurable gynecologic malignancies
Q3) _________________________ is responsible for 9% of all pregnancy-related deaths and is the leading cause of infertility.
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Chapter 29: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders in Pregnancy
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Q1) A 26-year-old primigravida has come to the clinic for her regular prenatal visit at 12 weeks.She appears thin and somewhat nervous.She reports that she eats a well-balanced diet,although her weight is 5 pounds less than it was at her last visit.The results of laboratory studies confirm that she has a hyperthyroid condition.Based on the available data,the nurse formulates a plan of care.What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the woman at this time?
A)Deficient fluid volume
B)Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
C)Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements
D)Disturbed sleep pattern
Q2) With regard to the association of maternal diabetes and other risk situations affecting mother and fetus,nurses should be aware that:
A)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)can lead to fetal death at any time during pregnancy
B)Hydramnios occurs approximately twice as often in diabetic pregnancies
C)Infections occur about as often and are considered about as serious in diabetic and nondiabetic pregnancies
D)Even mild to moderate hypoglycemic episodes can have significant effects on fetal well-being
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Chapter 30: Medical-Surgical Problems in Pregnancy
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Q1) With regard to anemia,nurses should be aware that:
A)It is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy
B)It can trigger reflex bradycardia
C)The most common form of anemia is caused by folate deficiency
D)Thalassemia is a European version of sickle cell anemia
Q2) Nurses caring for antepartum women with cardiac conditions should be aware that:
A)Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor
B)Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and avoid any activity that causes even minor symptoms
C)Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework,shopping,and exercise
D)Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term
Q3) With what heart condition is pregnancy not usually contraindicated?
A)Peripartum cardiomyopathy
B)Severe pulmonary hypertension
C)Heart transplant
D)All of these contraindicate pregnancy.
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Chapter 31: Obstetric Critical Care
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Q1) Removal of the stressor of pregnancy early in the process of resuscitation may increase the chance for maternal survival.Therefore,in the presence of multisystem trauma,_________________________ may be indicated.
Q2) Obstetric nurses have been comfortable providing family-centered maternity care for many years.Many intensive care units (ICUs)are adopting a family-centered care philosophy;however,being far from the obstetric unit makes it much more difficult should a maternity client be transferred to this setting.What action would the nurse encourage to promote family-centered maternity care?
A)Visiting hours should be during times when nursing care is not being provided.
B)Siblings should not be encouraged to visit the ICU setting.
C)Family visitation should be determined based on the client's condition.
D)Parent-infant interaction and attachment should be facilitated.
Q3) Conditions that classify the parturient as critically ill and indicate the need for a pulmonary catheter include:
A)Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B)Shock of undefined source
C)Severe preeclampsia
D)Sepsis
E)Massive blood loss
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Chapter 32: Mental Health Disorders and Substance Abuse in Pregnancy
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Q1) Of all pregnant women being treated for depression,approximately one third have a first occurrence during pregnancy.All pregnant and postpartum women should be screened for perinatal mood disorders by using the _________________ Postnatal Depression Scale.
Q2) During inpatient psychiatric hospitalization,it is important for the new mother to have:
A)Contact with her significant other
B)Supervised and guided visits with her infant
C)No contact with anyone who annoys her
D)The infant with her at all times
Q3) Clinical manifestations of a manic episode in the pregnant woman include all except:
A)Psychomotor agitation and lack of sleep
B)Increased appetite and lack of interest in activities
C)Hyperactivity and distractibility
D)Pressured speech and grandiosity
Q4) The standard of care for women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics is ____________________ maintenance treatment (MMT).
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Chapter 33: Labor and Birth Complications
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Q1) A woman is having her first child.She has been in labor for 15 hours.Two hours ago her vaginal examination revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced,and the presenting part was at station 0.Five minutes ago her vaginal examination indicated that there had been no change.What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description?
A)Prolonged latent phase
B)Protracted active phase
C)Secondary arrest
D)Protracted descent
Q2) Prostaglandin gel has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation.The nurse recognizes that this medication is administered to:
A)Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta
B)Increase amniotic fluid volume
C)Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction
D)Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture
Q3) Nurses need to know that when any woman is admitted to the hospital and is __________ to __________ weeks pregnant,she should receive antenatal glucocorticoids unless she has chorioamnionitis.Because these drugs require a 24-hour period to become effective,timely administration is essential.
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Chapter 34: Postpartum Complications
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Q1) Lacerations of the cervix,vagina,or perineum are also causes of PPH.Factors that influence the causes and incidence of obstetric lacerations of the lower genital tract include all except:
A)Operative or precipitate birth
B)Adherent retained placenta
C)Abnormal presentation of the fetus
D)Congenital abnormalities of the maternal soft parts
Q2) When caring for a postpartum woman experiencing hemorrhagic shock,the nurse recognizes that the most objective and least invasive assessment of adequate organ perfusion and oxygenation is:
A)Absence of cyanosis in the buccal mucosa
B)Cool,dry skin
C)Diminished restlessness
D)Urinary output of at least 30 ml/hr
Q3) ____________________ is the most common postpartum infection.
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Chapter 35: Acquired Problems of the Newborn
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Q1) A macrosomic infant is born after a difficult forceps-assisted delivery.After stabilization,the infant is weighed,and the birth weight is 4550 g (9 lb,6 oz).The nurse's most appropriate action is to:
A)Leave the infant in the room with the mother
B)Take the infant immediately to the nursery
C)Perform a gestational age assessment to determine whether the infant is large for gestational age
D)Monitor blood glucose levels frequently and observe closely for signs of hypoglycemia
Q2) With regard to central nervous system injuries to the infant during labor and birth,nurses should be aware that:
A)Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH)as a result of birth trauma is more likely to occur in the preterm,low-birth-weight infant
B)Subarachnoid hemorrhage (the most common form of ICH)occurs in term infants as a result of hypoxia
C)In many infants,signs of hemorrhage in a full-term infant are absent and diagnosed only through laboratory tests
D)Spinal cord injuries almost always result from forceps-assisted deliveries
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Hemolytic Disorders and Congenital Anomalies
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Q1) The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is:
A)Hepatic disease
B)Hemolytic disorders in the newborn
C)Postmaturity
D)Congenital heart defect
Q2) Maternal obesity can increase the risk of congenital heart anomalies.Is this statement true or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) A major nursing intervention for an infant born with myelomeningocele is to:
A)Protect the sac from injury
B)Prepare the parents for the child's paralysis from the waist down
C)Prepare the parents for closure of the sac at around 2 years of age
D)Assess for cyanosis
Q4) When attempting to diagnose and treat developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH),the nurse should:
A)Be able to perform the Ortolani and Barlow tests
B)Teach double or triple diapering for added support
C)Explain to the parents the need for serial casting
D)Carefully monitor infants for DDH at follow-up visits
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Chapter 37: Nursing Care of the High Risk Newborn
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Q1) On day 3 of life,a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula.The parents ask if they may hold their infant during his next gavage feeding.Given that this newborn is physiologically stable,what response does the nurse give?
A)"Parents are not allowed to hold their infants who are dependent on oxygen."
B)"You may only hold your baby's hand during the feeding."
C)"Feedings cause more physiologic stress,so the baby must be closely monitored.Therefore,I don't think you should hold the baby."
D)"You may hold your baby during the feeding."
Q2) For clinical purposes,preterm and postterm infants are defined as:
A)Preterm: Before 34 weeks if AGA;before 37 weeks if SGA
B)Postterm: After 40 weeks if LGA;beyond 42 weeks if AGA
C)Preterm: Before 37 weeks,postterm beyond 42 weeks;no matter the size for gestational age at birth
D)Preterm: SGA before 38 to 40 weeks;postterm,LGA beyond 40 to 42 weeks
Q3) Calculate the corrected age of an infant who was born at 25 1/7 weeks and is preparing for discharge 124 days past delivery.
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Chapter 38: Perinatal Loss and Grief
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Q1) A woman experienced a miscarriage at 10 weeks of gestation and had a dilation and curettage (D&C).She states that she is just fine and wants to go home as soon as possible.While you are assessing her responses to her loss,she tells you that she had purchased some baby things and had picked out a name.Based on your assessment of her responses,what nursing intervention would you do for her first?
A)Ready her for discharge
B)Notify pastoral care to offer her a blessing
C)Ask her if she would like to see what was obtained from her D&C
D)Ask her what name she had picked out for her baby
Q2) A nurse concludes that grieving parents have progressed to the reorganization/recovery phase during a follow-up visit a year later if:
A)They say they feel no pain
B)They are discussing sex and a future pregnancy,even if they have not sorted out their feelings yet
C)They have abandoned those moments of bittersweet grief
D)Their questions have progressed from "why?" to "why us?"
Q3) The term _________________________ refers to the grief response that occurs with reminders of loss.This typically happens on special anniversary dates of the loss.
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