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Women's Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women throughout their lifespan, addressing unique health needs from adolescence through old age. This course covers the physiological, psychological, and social factors affecting women's health, including reproductive and sexual health, pregnancy, childbirth, menopause, and gynecological disorders. Students will explore culturally competent care practices, preventative health strategies, and patient education, as well as the impact of gender, social determinants, and health policy on womens health outcomes. The course emphasizes evidence-based nursing interventions and promotes advocacy to empower women and improve their health and well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Maternity Nursing 8th Edition by Deitra Leonard Lowdermilk
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24 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1554 Page 2
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30715
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary role of practicing nurses in the research process?
A) Designing research studies
B) Collecting data for other researchers
C) Identifying researchable problems
D) Seeking funding to support research studies
Answer: C
Q2) The level of practice a reasonably prudent nurse provides is called:
A) The standard of care.
B) Risk management.
C) A sentinel event.
D) Failure to rescue.
Answer: A
Q3) Maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials is:
A) Derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification.
B) Known as evidence-based practice.
C) At odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing.
D) An outgrowth of telemedicine.
Answer: B

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Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning the use and abuse of legal drugs or substances, nurses should be aware that:
A) Although cigarette smoking causes a number of health problems, it has little direct effect on maternity-related health.
B) Women ages 21 to 34 have the highest rates of specific alcohol-related problems.
C) Coffee is a stimulant that can interrupt body functions and has been related to birth defects.
D) Prescription psychotherapeutic drugs taken by the mother do not affect the fetus; otherwise they would not have been prescribed.
Answer: B
Q2) One purpose of preconception care is to:
A) Ensure that pregnancy complications do not occur.
B) Identify women who should not become pregnant.
C) Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy.
D) Ensure that women know about prenatal care.
Answer: C
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30717
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:
A) Endometriosis.
B) PMS.
C) Primary dysmenorrhea.
D) Secondary dysmenorrhea.
Answer: A
Q2) While interviewing a 31-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination, the nurse collects data about the woman's recent menstrual cycles. The nurse should collect additional information in regard to which statement?
A) The woman says her menstrual flow lasts 5 to 6 days.
B) She describes her flow as very heavy.
C) She reports that she has had a small amount of spotting midway between her periods for the past 2 months.
D) She says the length of her menstrual cycle varies from 26 to 29 days.
Answer: B
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A married couple is discussing alternatives for pregnancy prevention and has asked about fertility awareness methods (FAMs). The nurse's most appropriate reply is:
A) "They're not very effective, and it's very likely you'll get pregnant."
B) "They can be effective for many couples, but they require motivation."
C) "These methods have a few advantages and several health risks."
D) "You would be much safer going on the pill and not having to worry."
Q2) With regard to the use of intrauterine devices (IUDs), nurses should be aware that:
A) Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed.
B) IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse.
C) IUDs offer the same protection against sexually transmitted infections as the diaphragm.
D) Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion.
Q3) Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?
A) Standard days
B) Periodic abstinence
C) Ovulation method
D) Coitus interruptus
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30719
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman at 25 weeks of gestation tells the nurse that she dropped a pan last week and her baby jumped at the noise. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "That must have been a coincidence; babies can't respond like that."
B) "The fetus is demonstrating the aural reflex."
C) "Babies respond to sound starting at about 24 weeks of gestation."
D) "Let me know if it happens again; we need to report that to your midwife."
Q2) At approximately _____ weeks of gestation, lecithin is forming on the alveolar surfaces, the eyelids open, and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump and weighs approximately 1110
A) 20
B) 24
C) 28
D) 30
Q3) The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by:
A) Fetal intestines.
B) Fetal kidneys.
C) Amniotic fluid.
D) The placenta.
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate?
A) Insufficient salivation (ptyalism) is caused by increases in estrogen.
B) Acid indigestion (pyrosis) begins early but declines throughout pregnancy.
C) Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily) because hormone production increases.
D) Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.
Q2) Some pregnant patients may complain of changes in their voice and impaired hearing. The nurse can tell these patients that these are common reactions to:
A) A decreased estrogen level.
B) Displacement of the diaphragm, resulting in thoracic breathing.
C) Congestion and swelling, which occur because the upper respiratory tract has become more vascular.
D) Increased blood volume.
Q3) The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called:
A) The operculum.
B) Leucorrhea.
C) The funic souffle.
D) Ballottement.
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30721
Sample Questions
Q1) For what reason would breastfeeding be contraindicated?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Everted nipples
C) History of breast cancer 3 years ago
D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive
Q2) Which statement about pregnancy is accurate?
A) A normal pregnancy lasts about 10 lunar months.
B) A trimester is one third of a year.
C) The prenatal period extends from fertilization to conception.
D) The estimated date of confinement (EDC) is how long the mother will have to be bedridden after birth.
Q3) In response to requests by the U.S. Public Health Service for new models of prenatal care, an innovative new approach to prenatal care known as centering pregnancy was developed. Which statement would accurately apply to the centering model of care?
A) Group sessions begin with the first prenatal visit.
B) At each visit blood pressure, weight, and urine dipsticks are obtained by the nurse.
C) Eight to 12 women are placed in gestational-age cohort groups.
D) Outcomes are similar to those of traditional prenatal care.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following meals would provide the most absorbable iron?
A) Toasted cheese sandwich, celery sticks, tomato slices, and a grape drink
B) Oatmeal, whole wheat toast, jelly, and low-fat milk
C) Black bean soup, wheat crackers, ambrosia (orange sections, coconut, and pecans), and prunes
D) Red beans and rice, cornbread, mixed greens, and decaffeinated tea
Q2) A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI) of 18.0. The nurse knows that this woman's total recommended weight gain during pregnancy should be at least:
A) 20 kg (44 lb).
B) 16 kg (35 lb).
C) 12.5 kg (27.5 lb).
D) 10 kg (22 lb).
Q3) A woman has come to the clinic for preconception counseling because she wants to start trying to get pregnant in 3 months. She can expect the following advice:
A) "Discontinue all contraception now."
B) "Lose weight so that you can gain more during pregnancy."
C) "You may take any medications you have been taking regularly."
D) "Make sure that you include adequate folic acid in your diet."
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother asks the nurse when the "soft spot" on her son's head will go away. The nurse's answer is based on the knowledge that the anterior fontanel closes after birth by:
A) 2 months.
B) 8 months.
C) 12 months.
D) 18 months.
Q2) With regard to the position of the laboring woman, maternity nurses should be able to tell the woman that:
A) The supine position commonly used in the United States increases blood flow.
B) The "all fours" position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back.
C) Frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort.
D) In a sitting or squatting position her abdominal muscles will have to work harder.
Q3) The _________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman in the active phase of the first stage of labor is using a shallow pattern of breathing, which is about twice the normal adult breathing rate. She starts to complain about feeling lightheaded and dizzy and states that her fingers are tingling. The nurse should:
A) Notify the woman's physician.
B) Tell the woman to slow the pace of her breathing.
C) Administer oxygen via a mask or nasal cannula.
D) Help her breathe into a paper bag.
Q2) A first-time mother is concerned about the type of medications she will receive during labor. She is in a fair amount of pain and is nauseous. In addition, she appears to be very anxious. You explain that opioid analgesics often are used with sedatives because:
A) "The two together work the best for you and your baby."
B) "Sedatives help the opioid work better, and they also will help relax you and relieve your nausea."
C) "They work better together so you can sleep until you have the baby."
D) "This is what the doctor has ordered for you."
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Page 12
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have:
A) Bradycardia.
B) A normal baseline heart rate.
C) Tachycardia.
D) Hypoxia.
Q2) What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring?
A) The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate.
B) The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs).
C) The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor.
D) Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who performs vaginal examinations to assess a woman's progress in labor should:
A) Perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor.
B) Perform the examination with the woman in the supine position.
C) Wear two clean gloves for each examination.
D) Discuss the findings with the woman and her partner.
Q2) With regard to a woman's intake and output during labor, nurses should be aware that:
A) The tradition of restricting the laboring woman to clear liquids and ice chips is being challenged because regional anesthesia is used more often than general anesthesia.
B) Intravenous (IV) fluids usually are necessary to ensure that the laboring woman stays hydrated.
C) Routine use of an enema empties the rectum and is very helpful for producing a clean, clear delivery.
D) When a nulliparous woman experiences the urge to defecate, it often means birth will follow quickly.
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early postpartum period is:
A) Elevated temperature caused by postpartum infection.
B) Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth.
C) Loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy.
D) Increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.
Q2) The process in which the uterus returns to a non-pregnant state after birth is known as ____________________.
Q3) The interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state is called the:
A) Involutionary period because of what happens to the uterus.
B) Lochia period because of the nature of the vaginal discharge.
C) Mini-tri period because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks.
D) Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy.
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin. She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, "I'm bleeding a lot." The most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this woman is:
A) Retained placental fragments.
B) Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
C) Uterine atony.
D) Puerperal infection.
Q2) If a woman is at risk for thrombus and is not ready to ambulate, nurses might intervene by doing all of these interventions except:
A) Putting her in antiembolic stockings (TED hose) and/or sequential compression device (SCD) boots.
B) Having her flex, extend, and rotate her feet, ankles, and legs.
C) Having her sit in a chair.
D) Notifying the physician immediately if a positive Homans' sign occurs.
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Page 16
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Sample Questions
Q1) The early postpartum period is a time of emotional and physical vulnerability. Many mothers can easily become psychologically overwhelmed by the reality of their new parental responsibilities. Fatigue compounds these issues. Although the baby blues are a common occurrence in the postpartum period, about one-half million women in America experience a more severe syndrome known as postpartum depression (PPD). Which statement regarding PPD is essential for the nurse to be aware of when attempting to formulate a nursing diagnosis?
A) PPD symptoms are consistently severe.
B) This syndrome affects only new mothers.
C) PPD can easily go undetected.
D) Only mental health professionals should teach new parents about this condition.
Q2) Hearing impaired parents face- many challenges in caregiving and parenting, particularly if their deafness dates back to infancy or early childhood. In order to ensure that the learning needs of these families are met, legislation has been passed that directs hospitals to use various communication techniques and resources with their deaf patients.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing the newborn, the nurse should be aware that the average expected apical pulse range of a full-term, quiet, alert newborn is:
A) 80 to 100 beats/min.
B) 100 to 120 beats/min.
C) 120 to 140 beats/min.
D) 150 to 180 beats/min.
Q2) While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a "C" with the thumb and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse would document this finding as a positive:
A) Tonic neck reflex.
B) Glabellar (Myerson) reflex.
C) Babinski reflex.
D) Moro reflex.
Q3) One reason hyperthermia develops more rapidly in the newborn than in the adult is that sweat glands have not formed yet.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the classification of newborns by gestational age and birth weight, the appropriate for gestational age (AGA) weight would:
A) Fall between the 25th and 75th percentiles for the infant's age.
B) Depend on the infant's length and the size of the head.
C) Fall between the 10th and 90th percentiles for the infant's age.
D) Be modified to consider intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
Q2) An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed:
A) Only if the newborn is in obvious distress.
B) Once by the obstetrician, just after the birth.
C) At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D) Every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.
Q3) Early this morning, an infant boy was circumcised using the PlastiBell method. The nurse tells the mother that she and the infant can be discharged after:
A) The bleeding stops completely.
B) Yellow exudate forms over the glans.
C) The PlastiBell rim falls off.
D) The infant voids.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother recalls from prenatal class that she should try to feed her newborn daughter when she exhibits feeding readiness cues rather than waiting until her infant is crying frantically. On the basis of this information, this woman should feed her infant about every 2½ to 3 hours when she:
A) Waves her arms in the air.
B) Makes sucking motions.
C) Has the hiccups.
D) Stretches her legs out straight.
Q2) Which statement concerning the benefits or limitations of breastfeeding is NOT accurate?
A) Breast milk changes over time to meet changing needs as infants grow.
B) Long-term studies have shown that the benefits of breast milk continue after the infant is weaned.
C) Breast milk/breastfeeding may enhance cognitive development.
D) Breastfeeding increases the risk of childhood obesity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparison to contraction stress tests (CSTs), the nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment:
A) Has no known contraindications.
B) Has fewer false-positive results.
C) Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.
D) Is slightly more expensive.
Q2) A maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test indicates an elevated level. It is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus?
A) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
B) Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
C) Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being
D) Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies
Q3) In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
A) Amniotic fluid volume.
B) Uterine abnormalities.
C) Placental location and maturity.
D) Cervical length.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The standard of care for women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics is ____________________ maintenance treatment (MMT).
Q2) Preconception counseling is critical to the outcome of diabetic pregnancies because poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy is associated with:
A) Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia.
B) Congenital anomalies in the fetus.
C) Polyhydramnios.
D) Hyperemesis gravidarum.
Q3) Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). In planning her care, the nurse and the woman mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM. The nurse identifies that the fetus is at greatest risk for:
A) Macrosomia.
B) Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system.
C) Preterm birth.
D) Low birth weight.
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What laboratory marker is indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) Bleeding time of 10 minutes
B) Presence of fibrin split products
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Hyperfibrinogenemia
Q2) In caring for the woman with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what order should the nurse anticipate?
A) Administration of blood
B) Preparation of the patient for invasive hemodynamic monitoring
C) Restriction of intravascular fluids
D) Administration of steroids
Q3) Nurses should be aware that chronic hypertension:
A) Is defined as hypertension that begins during pregnancy and lasts for the duration of pregnancy.
B) Is considered severe when the systolic blood pressure (BP) is greater than 140 mm Hg or the diastolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg.
C) Is general hypertension plus proteinuria.
D) Can occur independently of or simultaneously with gestational hypertension.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to:
A) Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta.
B) Increase amniotic fluid volume.
C) Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction.
D) Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.
Q2) Complications and risks associated with cesarean births include (choose all that apply):
A) Pulmonary edema.
B) Wound dehiscence.
C) Hemorrhage.
D) Urinary tract infections.
E) Fetal injuries.
F) None of the above
Q3) Nurses should be aware that the induction of labor:
A) Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques.
B) Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL).
C) Is almost always done for medical reasons.
D) Is rated for viability by a Bishop score.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a postpartum woman experiencing hemorrhagic shock, the nurse recognizes that the most objective and least invasive assessment of adequate organ perfusion and oxygenation is:
A) Absence of cyanosis in the buccal mucosa.
B) Cool, dry skin.
C) Diminished restlessness.
D) Urinary output of at least 30 ml/hr.
Q2) The nurse should be aware that a pessary would be most effective in the treatment of what disorder?
A) Cystocele
B) Uterine prolapse
C) Rectocele
D) Stress urinary incontinence
Q3) One of the first symptoms of puerperal infection to assess for in the postpartum woman is:
A) Fatigue continuing for longer than 1 week.
B) Pain with voiding.
C) Profuse vaginal bleeding with ambulation.
D) Temperature of 38° C (100.4° F) or higher on 2 successive days starting 24 hours after birth.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature infants who exhibit 5 to 10 seconds of respiratory pauses followed by 10 to 15 seconds of compensatory rapid respiration are:
A) Suffering from sleep or wakeful apnea.
B) Experiencing severe swings in blood pressure.
C) Trying to maintain a neutral thermal environment.
D) Breathing in a respiratory pattern common to premature infants.
Q2) An infant is to receive gastrostomy feedings. What intervention should the nurse institute to prevent bloating, gastrointestinal reflux into the esophagus, vomiting, and respiratory compromise?
A) Rapid bolusing of the entire amount in 15 minutes
B) Warm cloths to the abdomen for the first 10 minutes
C) Slow, small, warm bolus feedings over 20 to 30 minutes
D) Cold, medium bolus feedings over 20 minutes
Q3) As with all aspects of care, strict handwashing is the single most important measure to prevent nosocomial infections.
A)True
B)False
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