Women's Health Nursing Chapter Exam
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Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women across their lifespan, addressing the unique health needs and challenges they face. The course covers topics such as reproductive health, pregnancy and childbirth, gynecological disorders, menopause, preventive care, and health promotion. Students will learn evidence-based nursing interventions, patient education strategies, and the importance of cultural sensitivity in delivering holistic care. Emphasis is placed on advocating for women's health rights, understanding the impact of social determinants on health outcomes, and promoting wellness in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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Q1) Evidence-based care
A)A practice model that uses a systematic approach to identify specific patients and manage their care in a coordinated way
B)Identifies desired patient outcomes, specifies timelines for achievement of those outcomes, directs appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, includes interventions from a variety of disciplines, promotes collaboration, and involves a comprehensive approach to care
C)Develops clinical practice guidelines to provide safe and effective care
Answer: C
Q2) Diagnosis-related groups
A)This includes health maintenance organizations (HMOs), point of service plans (POSs), and preferred provider organizations (PPOs).
B)The payer of the health insurance (usually the employer or the government) pays a set amount of money each year to a network of primary care providers (PCPs).
C)Medical diagnoses are classified based on the type of complexity of services generally required.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Q1) Pinpointing
A)Calling attention to differences or inconsistencies in statements
B)Using nonverbal responses or succinct comments to encourage the person to continue
C)Restating in words other than those used by the woman what she seems to express; a form of clarification
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following indicates a nurse's role as a researcher?
A) Reading peer-reviewed journal articles
B) Working as a member of the interdisciplinary team to provide client care
C) Helping client to obtain home care post-discharge from the hospital
D) Delegating tasks to unlicensed personnel to allow for more teaching time with clients
Answer: A
Q3) Which nursing intervention is correctly written?
A) Force fluids as necessary.
B) Observe interaction with the infant.
C) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.
D) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Q1) The RN is delegating tasks to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks can the nurse delegate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Teaching the client about breast care
B) Assessment of a client's lochia and perineal area
C) Assisting a client to the bathroom for the first time after birth
D) Vital signs on a postpartum client who delivered the night before
E) Assisting a postpartum client to take a shower on the second postpartum day
Answer: D, E
Q2) Which client will most likely seek prenatal care?
A) Janice, 15 years old, tells her friends, "I don't believe I am pregnant."
B) Carol, 28 years old, is in her second pregnancy and abuses drugs and alcohol.
C) Margaret, 20 years old, is in her first pregnancy and has access to a free prenatal clinic.
D) Glenda, 30 years old, is in her fifth pregnancy and delivered her last infant at home with the help of her mother and sister.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) A newly pregnant client asks the nurse, "What is the false pelvis?" Which is a correct statement that the nurse should give the client?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Q2) A young female client comes to the health unit at school to discuss her irregular periods. In providing education regarding the female reproductive cycle, the nurse describes the regular and recurrent changes related to the ovaries and the uterine endometrium. Although this is generally referred to as the menstrual cycle, the ovarian cycle includes which phases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Follicular
B) Ovulatory
C) Luteal
D) Proliferative
E) Secretory
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Q1) An infant is born with blood type AB. The father is type A and the mother is type B. The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from that of the parents. The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that which is true?
A) Both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) Types A and B are recessive when linked together.
C) The baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
D) Type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
Q2) A client presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with: A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) dominant alleles.
D) recessive traits.
Q3) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene will usually be:
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Q1) Intervillous spaces
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q2) An expectant father asks the nurse, "Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosomes?" What is the best response by the nurse?
A) X-bearing sperm
B) The tail of the sperm
C) The head of the sperm
D) The middle portion of the sperm
Q3) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Q1) A client, gravida 2, para 1, comes for a prenatal visit at 20 weeks of gestation. Her fundus is palpated 3 cm below the umbilicus. This finding is:
A) appropriate for gestational age.
B) a sign of impending complications.
C) lower than normal for gestational age.
D) higher than normal for gestational age.
Q2) What is the best explanation that you can provide to a pregnant client who is concerned that she has "pseudoanemia" of pregnancy?
A) Have her write down her concerns and tell her that you will ask the physician to respond once the lab results have been evaluated.
B) Tell her that this is a benign self-limiting condition that can be easily corrected by switching to a high-iron diet.
C) Inform her that because of the pregnancy, her blood volume has increased, leading to a substantial dilution effect on her serum blood levels, and that most women experience this condition.
D) Contact the physician and get a prescription for iron pills to correct this condition.
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9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Q1) A pregnant client relates a story of how her boyfriend is feeling her aches and pains associated with her pregnancy. She is concerned that her boyfriend is making fun of her concerns. How would you respond to this client statement?
A) Tell her not to worry because it is natural for her boyfriend to make her feel better by identifying with her pregnancy.
B) Refer the client to a psychologist for counseling to deal with this problem because it is clearly upsetting her.
C) Explain that her boyfriend may be experiencing couvade syndrome and that this is a normal finding seen with male partners.
D) Ask the client specifically to define her concerns related to her relationship with her boyfriend and suggest methods to stop this type of behavior by her significant other.
Q2) Which client may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?
A) A primipara from an upper income family
B) A primipara who comes from a large family
C) A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother
D) A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Q1) Which food selections would lead to enhanced iron absorption during pregnancy?
A) Eating additional fiber and grains in the diet
B) Drinking coffee with meals
C) Drinking orange juice
D) Including spinach in the diet two to three times a week
Q2) When planning a diet with a pregnant client, what should the nurse's first action be?
A) Teach the client about MyPlate.
B) Review the client's current dietary intake.
C) Instruct the client to limit the intake of fatty foods.
D) Caution the client to avoid large doses of vitamins, especially those that are fat-soluble.
Q3) When explaining the recommended weight gain to your client, the nurse's teaching should include which statement?
A) "All pregnant women need to gain a minimum of 25 to 35 pounds."
B) "The fetus, amniotic fluid, and placenta require 15 pounds of weight gain."
C) "Weigh gain in pregnancy is based on the client's prepregnant body mass index."
D) "More weight should be gained in the first and second trimesters and less in the third."
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a client for a non-stress test (NST). Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ensure that the client has a full bladder.
B) Plan approximately 15 minutes for the test.
C) Have the client sit in a recliner with the head elevated 45 degrees.
D) Apply electronic monitoring equipment to the client's abdomen.
E) Instruct the client to press an event marker every time she feels fetal movement.
Q2) Which clinical conditions are associated with increased levels of alpha fetoprotein (AFP)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Down syndrome
B) Molar pregnancy
C) Twin gestation
D) Incorrect gestational age assessment of a normal fetus-estimation is earlier in the pregnancy
E) Threatened abortion
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Q1) A relaxation technique that can be used during the childbirth experience to decrease maternal pain perception is:
A) using increased environmental stimulation as a method of distraction.
B) restricting family and friends from visiting during the labor period to keep the client focused on breathing techniques.
C) medicating the client frequently to reduce pain perception.
D) assisting the client in breathing methods aimed at taking control of pain perception based on the contraction pattern.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the option of childbirth classes with a patient in her second trimester. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has understood the teaching?
A) "My labor will likely be shorter if I go to classes."
B) "I will likely perceive less pain during labor if I go to classes."
C) "I will likely be more satisfied with my labor if I go to classes."
D) "I will likely use fewer medications during labor if I go to classes."
Q3) Dick-Read childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Q1) A 28-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client who is at term calls the labor and birth unit stating that she thinks she is in labor. She states that she does have some vaginal discharge and feels wet but it is not bloody in nature. She relates a contraction pattern that is irregular, ranging from 5 to 7 minutes and lasting 30 seconds. What questions would be used during the process of phone triage by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ask her if her if she thinks that her membranes have ruptured.
B) Ask her if she has any evidence of bloody show.
C) Have her keep monitoring her contraction pattern and call you back if they become more regular.
D) Ask her when her she has her next scheduled visit with her health care provider.
E) Tell her to come into the hospital for evaluation.
Q2) The laboring client asks the nurse how the labor contractions work to dilate the cervix. The best response by the nurse is that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by:
A) promoting blood flow to the cervix.
B) contracting the lower uterine segment.
C) enlarging the internal size of the uterus.
D) pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac.
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Q1) Which nursing diagnosis would take priority in the care of a primipara client with no visible support person in attendance who has entered the second stage of labor after a first stage of labor lasting 4 hours?
A) Fluid volume deficit (FVD) related to fluid loss during labor and birth process
B) Fatigue related to length of labor requiring increased energy expenditure
C) Acute pain related to increased intensity of contractions
D) Anxiety related to imminent birth process
Q2) The labor nurse is reviewing the cardinal maneuvers with a group of nursing students. Which maneuver will immediately follow the birth of the baby's head?
A) Expulsion
B) Restitution
C) Internal rotation
D) External rotation
Q3) Which should the nurse recognize as being associated with fetal compromise?
A) Active fetal movements
B) Fetal heart rate in the 140s
C) Contractions lasting 90 seconds
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Q1) Which of the following is the priority intervention for a supine client whose monitor strip shows decelerations that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends?
A) Increase IV infusion.
B) Elevate lower extremities.
C) Reposition to left side-lying position.
D) Administer oxygen per face mask at 4 to 6 L/min.
Q2) Which can be determined only by electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Variability
B) Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Fetal response to contractions
Q3) Early decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
Q4) Variable decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Q1) A labor client, gravida 2, para 1, at term has received meperidine (Demerol) for pain control during labor. Her most recent dose was 15 minutes ago and birth is now imminent. Maternal vital signs have been stable and the EFM tracing has not shown any baseline changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate would be required in the birth room for administration?
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Naloxone (Narcan)
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Oxygen
Q2) Which clinical effect can occur in the presence of increased maternal pain perception during labor?
A) Increase in uterine contractions in response to catecholamine secretion
B) Decrease in blood pressure in response to alpha receptors
C) Decreased perfusion to the placenta in response to catecholamine secretion
D) Increased uterine blood flow, causing increase in maternal blood pressure
Q3) Childbirth pain is different from other types of pain in that it is:
A) less intense.
B) associated with a physiologic process.
C) more responsive to pharmacologic management.
D) designed to make one withdraw from the stimulus.
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Q1) A vaginal exam for a laboring multipara client who is 42 weeks' gestation reveals the following information: 4 cm, minimal effacement, -2 station. Which clinical factors would affect the clinical management decision not to rupture membranes with an AmniHook?
A) Vaginal dilation
B) Client is a multipara
C) Presenting part is at -2 station
D) Gestational age
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal prostaglandin preparation to ripen the cervix of a client. With which client should the nurse question the use of vaginal prostaglandin as a cervical ripening agent?
A) The client who has a Bishop's score of 5
B) The client who is at 42 weeks of gestation
C) The client who had a previous low transverse cesarean birth
D) The client who had previous surgery in the upper uterus
Q3) Which event indicates a complication of an external version?
A) Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm
B) Fetus returning to the original position
C) Increased maternal anxiety after the version
D) Fetal bradycardia persisting 10 minutes after the version
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Q1) A pregnant client asks when the dark line on her abdomen (linea nigra) will go away. The nurse knows the pigmentation will decrease after birth because of:
A) increased estrogen.
B) increased progesterone.
C) decreased human placental lactogen.
D) decreased melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
Q2) Which fundal assessment finding at 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
A) The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
B) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
C) The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
D) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
Q3) Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complication?
A) Fever and increased blood pressure
B) Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia
C) Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture
D) Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Q1) The nurse is teaching new parents about behavior cues that indicate their infant has had enough stimulation. Which cues should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The infant kicks his legs.
B) The infant is quiet and alert.
C) The infant splays his fingers.
D) The infant looks at their faces.
Q2) Which client is most likely to have the least stress adjusting to her role as a mother?
A) A 26-year-old woman who is returning to work in 10 weeks
B) A 35-year-old anxious mother who has had no contact with babies or children
C) A 16-year-old teenager who lives with her parents and has a strained relationship with her mother
D) A 25-year-old woman who knew at 16 weeks of gestation that she was pregnant with twins, who were delivered by cesarean birth
Q3) Letting-go
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Q1) Which organs are nonfunctional during fetal life?
A) Eyes and ears
B) Lungs and liver
C) Kidneys and adrenals
D) Gastrointestinal system
Q2) A reported hematocrit level for a newborn vaginal birth is 75%. Based on this lab value, which complication is the newborn least at risk to develop?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Respiratory distress
C) Infection
D) Jaundice
Q3) A multiparous patient arrives to the labor unit and urgently states, "The baby is coming RIGHT NOW!" The nurse assists the patient into a comfortable position and delivers the infant. To prevent infant heat loss from conduction, what is the priority nursing action?
A) Dry the baby off.
B) Turn up the temperature in the patient's room.
C) Pour warmed water over the baby immediately after birth.
D) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen after the cord is cut.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
Q2) Which are early signs of hypoglycemia in the newborn for which the nurse should assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Jitteriness
B) Poor feeding
C) Respiratory difficulty
D) An increase in temperature
E) A capillary refill of 2 seconds
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a male infant for circumcision. On review of the chart, the nurse notes that the consent has been signed, vitamin K has been administered, the temperature has been between 36.8° to 37° C (98.2° to 98.6° F), and the heart rate range is 126 to 144 beats per minute (bpm). Which finding, if omitted from the chart, would cause the nurse to have to cancel the circumcision?
A) Consent
B) Vitamin K
C) Heart rate
D) Temperature
Q2) Which newborn testing must be performed prior to discharge from the hospital? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Hearing
C) Guthrie
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Galactosemia
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
Q2) How many milliliters per kilogram (mL/kg) of fluids does a newborn need daily for the first 3 to 5 days of life?
A) 20 to 30
B) 40 to 60
C) 60 to 100
D) 120 to 150
Q3) How many kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg) of body weight does a full-term formula-fed infant need each day?
A) 50 to 75
B) 100 to 110
C) 120 to 140
D) 150 to 200
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which statement made by a parent indicates a need for the nurse to teach safety and accident prevention?
A) "I always take the phone off the hook when I give my baby a bath so I won't be disturbed."
B) "I'm going to buy a backpack for my 2-week-old baby so I can carry her in it whenever she gets fussy."
C) "I've been reading about what new things my baby will be learning to do in the next month or two, so I'll know what to expect."
D) "I make sure I always raise the side of the crib when I put my baby to sleep, even though newborns don't move around as much as older infants."
Q2) The nurse is calling a new mother to schedule a routine home visit planned for 48 to 72 hours after discharge. What is the nurse's priority question to help determine the best time for the visit?
A) "When will the baby's father be home?"
B) "Do you plan on having any visitors in the day or two?"
C) "At approximately what time do you think you will be nursing your baby?"
D) "When will your home be presentable enough for me to come and visit?"
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) Which environment can assist a pregnant teen to achieve the task of establishing a stable identity?
A) Home schooling
B) Alternative education program
C) School-based mothers' program
D) Continuing mainstream high school classes
Q2) Women who become pregnant after the age of 35 are more likely to:
A) have multiple births because of increased fertility rates.
B) be hypotensive during the pregnancy.
C) have fewer obstetric complications due to stronger pelvic structure.
D) have a child who has a trisomy 21 abnormality.
Q3) A client at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. Which is the reason the nurse should give to counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake?
A) The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth.
B) The fetus is at risk for severe nervous system injury.
C) The client will be at risk for abusing other substances as well.
D) A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism.
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26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) A client who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the following assessments. The vaginal exam is deferred until the physician is in attendance. The client is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The client is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the client complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The client is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
A) Placental previa
B) Active labor has started
C) Placental abruption
D) Hidden placental abruption
Q2) An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called:
A) inevitable.
B) missed.
C) incomplete.
D) threatened.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
B) Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
C) Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
D) Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Q2) Which factor is most important in diminishing maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a pregnant client with diabetes?
A) Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist
B) The client's stable emotional and psychological status
C) Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy
D) Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits
Q3) Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoinsulinemia
D) Hypobilirubinemia
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2138
Sample Questions
Q1) Which intervention would be most effective if the fetal heart rate drops following a spontaneous rupture of the membranes?
A) Apply oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min.
B) Stop the Pitocin infusion.
C) Position the client in the knee-chest position.
D) Increase the main line infusion to 150 mL/hr.
Q2) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
Q3) Which is (are) the priority nursing assessment(s) for the client having tocolytic therapy with terbutaline (Brethine)?
A) Intake and output
B) Maternal blood glucose level
C) Internal temperature and odor of amniotic fluid
D) Fetal heart rate, maternal pulse, and blood pressure
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a late postpartum hemorrhage is documented on a client who delivered 3 days ago, the nurse recognizes that this hemorrhage occurred:
A) on the first postpartum day.
B) during recovery phase of labor.
C) during the third stage of labor.
D) on the second postpartum day.
Q2) To prevent infection of the reproductive tract, the nurse should instruct the client to:
A) change the peripad once per shift.
B) cleanse the perineum from front to back.
C) perform pericare at least twice during the shift.
D) increase fluid intake to 2500 to 3000 mL/day.
Q3) To determine an adverse response to carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), the nurse should frequently assess:
A) temperature.
B) lochial flow.
C) fundal height.
D) breath sounds.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because:
A) Surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) Surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) Surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) Surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q2) Which preterm infant should receive gavage feedings instead of bottle feedings?
A) Sucks on a pacifier during gavage feedings
B) Sometimes gags when a feeding tube is inserted
C) Has a sustained respiratory rate of 70 breaths/min
D) Has an axillary temperature of 98.4° F, an apical pulse of 149 beats/min, and respirations of 54 breaths/min
Q3) To determine a preterm infant's readiness for nipple feeding, the nurse should assess the:
A) Skin turgor.
B) Bowel sounds.
C) Current weight.
D) Respiratory rate.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
Q2) Newborns whose mothers are substance abusers frequently have which behaviors?
A) Hypothermia, decreased muscle tone, and weak sucking reflex
B) Excessive sleep, weak cry, and diminished grasp reflex
C) Circumoral cyanosis, hyperactive Babinski reflex, and constipation
D) Decreased amounts of sleep, hyperactive Moro reflex, and difficulty feeding
Q3) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is leading a discussion regarding birth control measures. Which method is considered the most reliable method?
A) Coitus interruptus
B) Breastfeeding
C) Natural family planning
D) Intrauterine device
Q2) A client presents to the Women's Health Clinic for continuation of her contraceptive method. She has been using Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) for 24 months. In preparation for instituting a plan of care, the nurse would consider which option as a priority?
A) Schedule the client for follow-up baseline diagnostic testing to confirm that the client is not pregnant.
B) Obtain information for an alternate contraception method.
C) Ask the client for additional information related to her menstrual cycle.
D) Inspect the skin for site selection of contraceptive method.
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of conization of the cervix
B) History of pelvic surgical procedures
C) Incompetent cervix
D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure
E) Endometriosis
Q2) A newly married woman states, "My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don't understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant." The nurse's best response is:
A) "Your friend may be right. The disease may affect your ability to conceive."
B) "Pelvic inflammatory disease may damage the ovaries and prevent ovulation."
C) "Your friend has been misinformed. Fallopian tube damage occurs only following gonorrhea."
D) "Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus."
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
Q2) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is:
A) fibroadenoma.
B) ductal ectasia.
C) intraductal papilloma.
D) chronic cystic disease.
Q2) Which statement is true about primary dysmenorrhea?
A) Primary dysmenorrhea is experienced by all women.
B) It is unaffected by oral contraceptives.
C) It occurs in young multiparous women.
D) It may be caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin.
Q3) Which should the nurse stress in teaching a client to deal with the symptoms of PMS?
A) Decrease her consumption of caffeine.
B) Drink a small glass of wine with her evening meal.
C) Decrease her fluid intake to prevent fluid retention.
D) Eat three large meals a day to maintain glucose levels.
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