Women's Health Nurse Practitioner
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
The Women's Health Nurse Practitioner course prepares advanced practice nursing students to deliver comprehensive primary care to women across the lifespan. The curriculum focuses on health promotion, disease prevention, diagnosis, and management of common and complex conditions affecting women, including reproductive and gynecologic health, prenatal and postpartum care, and management of menopause and related disorders. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, patient education, and collaborative care, while considering the unique physiological, psychological, cultural, and socio-economic factors influencing womens health. Upon completion, students are equipped with the clinical skills and professional competencies required for certification and practice as Womens Health Nurse Practitioners in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy
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549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Chapter 3: Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endemic is the term used when the presence of an event is constant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) "There are 1,185,000 cases of HIV/AIDS in the United States" is an example of the morbidity rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency?
A)Calcium supplementation
B)Testicular self-examination
C)Bone density test
D)Digital rectal examination
Answer: A
Q4) Prevalence is the number of new cases of a particular disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most important question to ask in nursing research?
A)What findings constitute evidence?
B)How will the findings be used?
C)Is this a randomized controlled trial?
D)What theory is being utilized?
Q2) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level III evidence?
A)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
B)Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
C)Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
D)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
Q3) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VI evidence?
A)Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Well-designed case control or cohort studies
D)Single descriptive or qualitative study
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4
Chapter 6: Neurological Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
A)Epidural hematoma
B)Subdural hematoma
C)Subarachnoid hematoma
D)Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Q2) Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?
A)Resting tremor
B)Bradykinesia
C)Rigidity
D)Postural instability
Q3) The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
A)No activity at all
B)A blank stare
C)Urine is usually voided involuntarily
D)The attack usually lasts several minutes
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Chapter 7: Skin Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?
A)They have an increased number of melanocytes.
B)Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.
C)Their skin is thicker.
D)Their immune system is stronger.
Q2) Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region.You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
A)Filiform/digitate wart
B)Dysplastic cervical lesion
C)Condyloma acuminata
D)Koilocytosis
Q3) Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?
A)0.05% liquid formulation
B)0.1% cream
C)1% foam
D)0.02% cream
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Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?
A)The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.
B)Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.
C)Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.
D)Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.
Q2) The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
A)Pharyngitis
B)Allergies
C)Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
D)Perforation of the eardrum
Q3) Severe pain associated with acute otitis media signifies perforation of the tympanic membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically.How do you instruct her to take them?
A)Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
B)Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.
C)Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.
D)Take them with food to prevent nausea.
Q2) The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:
A)Chronic coughing
B)Hyperinflation
C)Polycythemia
D)Pulmonary hypertension
Q3) Jason, age 62, has obstructive sleep apnea.What do you think is one of his contributing factors?
A)He is a recovering alcoholic of 6 years.
B)His collar size is 17 inches.
C)He is the only person in his family who has this.
D)He is extremely thin.
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Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the "A" stands for:
A)Anticoagulation
B)Autoimmune disease
C)Age
D)Antihypertension
Q2) When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid.Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
A)1 month
B)3 months
C)6 months
D)As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Q3) Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
A)Greater than 30
B)Greater than 40
C)Greater than 50
D)Greater than 60
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Page 9
Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain.Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness.At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
A)Endometriosis
B)Colon cancer
C)Diverticulitis
D)All of the above
Q2) A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals.She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea.She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement.She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension.She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool.This problem has gone on for about 6 months.What should the next step be?
A)Obtain a complete history.
B)Order a barium enema.
C)Schedule a BernsteinÕs test.
D)Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
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Page 10
Chapter 12: Renal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria.To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?
A)"Do you have a history of liver disease?"
B)"What medications are you currently taking?"
C)"Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?"
D)All of the above
Q2) The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?
A)Recent heat stroke
B)Nephrolithiasis
C)Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment
D)All of the above
Q3) Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for CRF.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The urine osmolality is greater than 500 mOsm/L in patients with postrenal ARF.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Chlamydia trachomatis
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?
A)3 to 7 days
B)14 to 21 days
C)3 to 6 weeks
D)6 to 12 weeks
Q3) Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
A)Absent cremasteric reflex
B)Pain relieved on testicular elevation
C)Testicle very low in the scrotum
D)Swollen scrotum with "red dot sign"
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Page 12
Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea.Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
A)Ceftriaxone
B)Doxycycline
C)Acyclovir
D)Metronidazole
Q2) Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
A)Metronidazole
B)Ceftriaxone
C)Diflucan
D)Doxycycline
Q3) Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
A)Pregnancy
B)Estrogen level
C)Progesterone level
D)LH level
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Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
A)There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
B)Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
C)Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?
A)Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
B)An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
C)Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
D)All of the above
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Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
A)A<sub>1</sub>C 7.0 on one occasion
B)Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
C)Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions
D)Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Q2) A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM).Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL.What is the best initial treatment?
A)No treatment at this time
B)Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
C)Diet, exercise, and oral medication
D)Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Q3) A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine.Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
A)Ketoacidosis
B)Cirrhosis
C)Hypoglycemic episodes
D)All of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When analyzing synovial fluid, if it is opaque, white, or translucent; has 5,000 leukocytes/Ml; 80% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN); and a low red blood cell count, it may be indicative of which of the following conditions?
A)This is a normal result.
B)Scleroderma
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Sickle cell disease
Q2) Dryness of the eyes and mouth is typical of which condition?
A)Sjögrens syndrome
B)CFS
C)FMS
D)Hypothyroidism
Q3) Which of the following disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs is a folic acid antagonist?
A)Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
B)Etanercept (Enbrel)
C)Rituximab (Rituxan)
D)Anakinra (Kineret)
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Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to K bler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
A)Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
B)Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
C)Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
D)Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Q2) Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
A)GABA
B)Acetylcholine
C)Dopamine
D)Serotonin
Q3) It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors.Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?
A)Depression
B)Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C)Substance abuse
D)PTSD
Q4) A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Emergency Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the epithelialization phase of wound healing, the wound will have only what percent of its normal tensile strength at 3 weeks?
A)Less than 15%
B)15% to 20%
C)25% to 40%
D)Greater than 50%
Q2) When giving discharge instructions to a patient with a laceration injury to his lower leg, which is the most important one?
A)Recommend isometric exercises to prevent a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
B)Recommend cleansing the wound every 4 hours to prevent an infection.
C)Keep the leg elevated at waist level to prevent any edema.
D)Keep the leg completely immobile to prevent extension of the laceration.
Q3) What percentage of all visits to the emergency department (ED) are related to wounds?
A)5%
B)12%
C)18%
D)24%
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Chapter 20: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycopyrrolate (Robinul) is one drug of choice to manage which of the following conditions that can contribute to dyspnea?
A)Copious secretions
B)Cough
C)Anxiety
D)Effusion
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding pain?
A)If a patient complains of pain but has no physical signs, he or she is most likely exhibiting drug-seeking behaviors.
B)Acute pain is more intense and severe than chronic pain.
C)Pain is a subjective experience related to actual or potential tissue damage.
D)All of the above
Q3) What would be an appropriate dose of morphine to give an opioid-na ve patient to manage tachypnea associated with dyspnea?
A)5 mg PO every 4 hours
B)15 mg PO every 4 hours
C)30 mg PO every 4 hours
D)40 mg PO every 4 hours
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Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which insurance plan was the first to allow members to choose nurse practitioners as their primary care provider and pay them the same rate as physicians for the same care?
A)Blue Cross/Blue Shield
B)Medicare/Medicaid
C)The Oxford Health Plan
D)United Health Insurance
Q2) A situation that requires informed consent involves:
A)Therapeutic privilege
B)An emergency situation
C)Invasive procedures
D)The therapeutic use of placebos
Q3) In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
A)Failure to treat a condition
B)Failure to diagnose correctly
C)Ordering the wrong medication
D)Failure to manage care
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Page 20
Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medicare advantage plans, also called Medicare HMO Plans, are plans approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as alternative carriers for Medicare beneficiaries.Which of the following is not a characteristic of these plans?
A)Offer additional benefits
B)Offer lower copayments
C)Follow Medicare benefit rules
D)Follow the Commercial Carriers rules
Q2) Accounting keeps track of the financial state of a business.The accounting report that demonstrates the growth in assets is:
A)Net income statement
B)Balance sheet
C)Cash flow statement
D)Operating statement
Q3) Patients require insurance counseling prior to accessing health-care services for the following reason:
A)Many patients do not understand policy benefits and payment responsibility.
B)Services may change across the beneficiary year.
C)Copayments and deductibles may have already been met by the patient.
D)Coding may need to be adjusted to meet the terms of the patient's benefits.
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Page 21
Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour
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Sample Questions
Q1) BATHEing the patient refers to:
A)A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral
B)A technique used to facilitate cultural understanding
C)A technique used to perform psychotherapy
D)A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems
Q2) The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
A)Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
B)Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
C)Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
D)Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
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22
Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patsy, a 42-year-old experienced APRN, is orienting a new APRN to the Minute Clinic, where she has worked for more than 5 years.Patsy loves her work and was concerned when the new APRN, Sue, expressed her dissatisfaction with this setting."I hate the idea of being here on my own, with no back-up and support after orientation" was one of Sue's concerns.Sue confessed that this was the only job she could find.Patsy felt good in her independent role and felt she had worked to create a positive atmosphere for her patients at all times.She derived joy and satisfaction from her ability to do this for her patients.Patsy found Sue's endless complaints debilitating.Patsy demonstrated resiliency by using which of the following strategies?
A)Patsy distanced Sue by listening to her as little as possible.
B)Patsy openly shared her positive feelings about the work environment and took a risk by sharing with Sue that she found her endless complaining draining.
C)Patsy spoke privately with their supervisor, Pamela, stating that she did not think Sue could be successful in this environment.
D)Patsy requested that Sue be assigned to a different APRN for orientation.
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