Women's Health Nurse Practitioner
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
The Women's Health Nurse Practitioner course is designed to prepare advanced practice nurses to provide comprehensive, evidence-based care to women across the lifespan. The curriculum emphasizes health promotion, disease prevention, diagnosis, and management of acute and chronic conditions specific to women's health, including reproductive, gynecological, and obstetric care. Students will develop advanced assessment, diagnostic, and clinical decision-making skills, along with a strong foundation in advocacy, patient education, and culturally competent care. The course integrates current research, ethical considerations, and interprofessional collaboration to prepare graduates for leadership roles in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy
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549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Chapter 3: Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency?
A)Calcium supplementation
B)Testicular self-examination
C)Bone density test
D)Digital rectal examination
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention in a 50-year-old woman?
A)Yearly mammogram
B)Low animal fat diet
C)Use of seat belt
D)Daily application of sunscreen
Answer: A
Q3) Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
A)Creating a physician expert panel
B)Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
C)Conducting an external review of a guideline
D)Developing evidence-based tables
Q2) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level II evidence?
A)Single descriptive or qualitative study
B)Well-designed case control or cohort studies
C)Single, well-designed, randomized clinical trial
D)Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
Q3) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence?
A)Single descriptive or qualitative study
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
D)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
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4
Chapter 6: Neurological Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?
A)1 hour
B)3 hours
C)6 hours
D)12 hours
Q2) Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis.She has not had a good response to interferon.Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?
A)Glatiramer acetate
B)Natalizumab
C)Fingolimod
D)Glucocorticoids
Q3) A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?
A)Spinothalamic dysfunction
B)Ratcheting
C)Cogwheeling
D)Hand tremors
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Chapter 7: Skin Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?
A)0.05% liquid formulation
B)0.1% cream
C)1% foam
D)0.02% cream
Q2) The "B" in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:
A)Biopsy
B)Best practice
C)Boundary
D)Border irregularity
Q3) Tinea unguium is also known as:
A)Onychomycosis
B)Tinea versicolor
C)Tinea manuum
D)Tinea corporis
Q4) Which statement regarding necrotizing fasciitis is true?
A)The hallmark of this infection is its slow and steady progression.
B)Once the border of the infection is "established," it does not spread.
C)Loss of life or limb is a potential complication.
D)The lesion is most dangerous, because it is painless.
Page 6
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Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy.Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause?
A)Gonorrhea
B)Mononucleosis
C)Influenza
D)Herpes zoster
Q2) You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help.Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye.The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick.You:
A)instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.
B)stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.
C)find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.
D)call 911.
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Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma.What additional medication should she be taking?
A)Inhaled corticosteroid
B)Leukotriene receptor antagonist
C)Systemic corticosteroid
D)Methyl xanthenes
Q2) The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:
A)Chronic coughing
B)Hyperinflation
C)Polycythemia
D)Pulmonary hypertension
Q3) Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough.You assess her for:
A)Asthma
B)Sinusitis
C)Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
D)Influenza
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Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications can cause hyperlipidemia?
A)Diuretics
B)NSAIDs
C)Opioids
D)Insulin
Q2) George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158.He is being treated for hypertension.You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him.Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?
A)His age
B)His cholesterol level
C)His systolic BP
D)The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication
Q3) In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?
A)First-degree AV block
B)Second-degree Mobitz I AV block
C)Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
D)Third-degree AV block
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Page 9
Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals.She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea.She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement.She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension.She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool.This problem has gone on for about 6 months.What should the next step be?
A)Obtain a complete history.
B)Order a barium enema.
C)Schedule a BernsteinÕs test.
D)Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett's epithelium.Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?
A)This is a premalignant tissue.
B)This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.
C)This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.
D)All of the above
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Chapter 12: Renal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 27-year-old female presents with a chief complaint of burning and pain on urination.She has no previous history of urinary tract infection (UTI).What are some additional symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of lower UTI?
A)Back and abdominal pain
B)Fever, chills, costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness
C)Blood in urine and frequency
D)Foul-smelling discharge, perineal itch
Q2) Which of the following are predisposing factors for pyelonephritis?
A)Pregnancy
B)Dehydration
C)Smoking
D)Alkaline urine
Q3) A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis.In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
A)Pancreatitis
B)Peptic ulcer disease
C)Diverticulitis
D)All of the above
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Page 11
Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
A)Radical orchidectomy
B)Lumpectomy
C)Radiation implants
D)All of the above
Q2) A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia.Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
A)Psychogenic nocturia
B)Urethral polyp
C)Irritative posterior urethral lesion
D)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Q3) During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer.What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
A)An enlarged rubbery gland
B)A hard irregular gland
C)A tender gland
D)A boggy gland
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Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding.Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
A)Pregnancy test
B)Pelvic ultrasound
C)Endometrial biopsy
D)Platelet count
Q2) A 60-year-old woman is seen for an annual checkup.Her obstetric history reveals para 6, gravida 6.She reports that she went through menopause at age 45.Her grandmother died at age 80 of colon cancer, and her father died of lung cancer.What in her history would be a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
A)Her numerous pregnancies
B)Her age at menopause
C)Her father's history of lung cancer
D)Her grandmother's history of colon cancer
Q3) Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
A)Metronidazole
B)Ceftriaxone
C)Diflucan
D)Doxycycline
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Page 13
Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis.The clinician has explained to Mr.Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility, minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life.Mr.Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis.What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician?
A)"Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful."
B)"I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition."
C)"I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you.Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy."
D)"It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition."
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Page 14
Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy.He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast.Which action should the clinician take first?
A)Check his blood sugar.
B)Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.
C)Call 911.
D)Ask him about his usual eating habits.
Q2) A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus.Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
A)Anxiety disorder
B)Pheochromocytoma
C)Psychosis
D)All of the above
Q3) Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug category of ARV therapy is generally effective in crossing the bloodÐbrain barrier and may be useful in managing HIV-associated dementia?
A)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B)Protease inhibitors
C)Integrase inhibitors
D)Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Q2) During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
A)IV
B)Abdomen
C)Upper lateral thigh
D)Deltoid
Q3) The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
A)Western blot
B)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C)Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
D)Viral load
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Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression.Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
A)SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
B)SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
C)SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.
D)SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Q2) A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking.Each episode lasted about 10 minutes.The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house.The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes.Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
A)Pheochromocytoma
B)Hyperthyroidism
C)Cardiac arrhythmias
D)All of the above
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Page 17
Chapter 19: Emergency Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
A)Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
B)The area will be super sensitive.
C)The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
D)The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Q2) Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
A)Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimin)
B)Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
C)Silver nitrate
D)Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Q3) Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
A)Dilute povidone-iodine solution
B)Hydrogen peroxide (H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>)
C)Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
D)Saline irrigation or soapy water
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Page 18
Chapter 20: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding pain?
A)If a patient complains of pain but has no physical signs, he or she is most likely exhibiting drug-seeking behaviors.
B)Acute pain is more intense and severe than chronic pain.
C)Pain is a subjective experience related to actual or potential tissue damage.
D)All of the above
Q2) A patient is receiving long-acting oxycodone for pain control.The clinician thinks that he also will benefit from a short-acting oxycodone for breakthrough pain.How will the clinician figure out what the dose of short-acting oxycodone should be?
A)The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
B)The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
C)The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of each long-acting dose.
D)The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of each long-acting dose.
Q3) Patients who are receiving life-prolonging therapies do not qualify for palliative care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the "C" of LACE represents?
A)Commitment
B)Consensus
C)Certification
D)Collaboration
Q2) The Nurse Practice Act of each state is responsible for:
A)Establishing the legal standards
B)Promoting high-quality nursing care
C)Protecting the public from unethical nursing practice
D)Exceeding the requirements of the Code of Ethics for Nurses
Q3) Which insurance plan was the first to allow members to choose nurse practitioners as their primary care provider and pay them the same rate as physicians for the same care?
A)Blue Cross/Blue Shield
B)Medicare/Medicaid
C)The Oxford Health Plan
D)United Health Insurance
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Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medicare advantage plans, also called Medicare HMO Plans, are plans approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as alternative carriers for Medicare beneficiaries.Which of the following is not a characteristic of these plans?
A)Offer additional benefits
B)Offer lower copayments
C)Follow Medicare benefit rules
D)Follow the Commercial Carriers rules
Q2) Identify the primary challenge for insurance carriers in today's health delivery model.
A)Preventing illness
B)Screening for disease
C)Educating the public
D)Reducing health-care spending
Q3) All health-care practices should develop a compliance plan.Compliance plans offer practice safeguards that prevent which of the following?
A)Malpractice claims
B)Conflict of interest claims
C)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act violations
D)Occupational Safety and Health Administration violations
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Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour
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Sample Questions
Q1) The BATHE technique was developed more than 20 years ago and has been used extensively in primary care and family practice.The new 'Positive BATHE' stresses:
A)A belief that all things are possible through positive affirmations
B)A belief that one should only refer to practitioners who embrace the viewpoint of positive psychology
C)Personal accomplishment, thankfulness, autonomy, and general positive effect
D)The patient's problems and concerns
Q2) Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the relationship between physical health and distress?
A)A patient's high calorie diet contributes to his diagnosis of type 2 diabetes.
B)A patient with an elevated HbA<sub>1</sub>C reports that he was recently evicted from his home.
C)A patient with depression reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
D)A patient reports feeling "numb" after learning her malignant tumor is inoperable.
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Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurse theorist Dorothea Orem defines self-care activities as:
A)Attainment of professional self-development goals
B)Ability to persevere through hardship
C)Striving to attain balance and harmony in one's life
D)Comprising activities that are performed independently by an individual to promote and maintain well-being throughout life
Q2) There are many pressures inherent in primary care practice today for APRNs.These pressures include all of the following:
A)Electronic medical record, the Affordable Care Act, and the implementation of socialized medicine
B)Patient care outcomes being tied to reimbursement, role diffusion with physicians and physician assistants
C)Uncertainty, the team approach to care, and the need for patient-centered care
D)Availability of medical information on the internet, educational programs for patients, and Medicare drug benefits
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