Women's Health in Primary Care Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the unique health needs and challenges facing women within the context of primary care. It covers the biological, psychological, and social aspects of womens health, emphasizing preventive care, reproductive health, chronic disease management, and health promotion across the lifespan. Students will examine current evidence-based guidelines for screening, diagnosis, and management of common conditions affecting women, as well as the impact of genetic, environmental, and cultural factors. The course also addresses health disparities, patient-centered communication, and strategies for advocating for womens health within diverse communities.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing 4th Edition by Dunphy
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21 Chapters
549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Chapter 3: Health Promotion
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
A)Fluid restriction
B)Hemodialysis 4 days a week
C)High-protein diet
D)Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80
Answer: B
Q3) A pandemic affects many communities in a short period of time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Prevalence is the number of new cases of a particular disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Care
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level V evidence?
A)Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies
B)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
C)Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies
D)Single descriptive or qualitative study
Q2) Nursing research should be utilized by:
A)Nurses at the bedside
B)Advanced practice nurses
C)Nurse researchers
D)Nurses at all levels of practice
Q3) Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VII evidence?
A)Well-designed controlled trials without randomization
B)Opinion of authorities and expert committees
C)Well-designed case control or cohort studies
D)Single descriptive or qualitative study .
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Chapter 6: Neurological Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
A)MRI
B)CT
C)Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
D)EEG
Q2) A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer's disease:
A)SLUMS
B)MoCA
C)FAST
D)MMSE
Q3) Which drug for Alzheimer's disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
A)Cholinesterase inhibitors
B)Anxiolytics
C)Antidepressants
D)Atypical antipsychotics
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Chapter 7: Skin Problems
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bulla is:
A)A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter
B)An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular
C)A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid
D)Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent
Q2) An example of ecchymosis is:
A)A hematoma
B)A keloid
C)A bruise
D)A patch
Q3) Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?
A)35
B)50
C)70
D)85
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Chapter 8: Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of stomatitis results in necrotic ulceration of the oral mucous membranes?
A)Vincent's stomatitis
B)Allergic stomatitis
C)Apthous stomatitis
D)Herpetic stomatitis
Q2) The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss.The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient's mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus.The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away.This is an example of which type of test?
A)Weber test
B)Schwabach test
C)Rinne test
D)Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
Q3) Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
A)Perforation of the tympanic membrane
B)Otosclerosis
C)Cholesteatoma
D)Presbycusis
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Chapter 9: Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily.During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting.What should you do?
A)Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.
B)Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.
C)Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.
D)Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.
Q2) Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
A)Glaucoma
B)Increased sperm quality
C)Bladder cancer
D)Eczema
Q3) Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma.What additional medication should she be taking?
A)Inhaled corticosteroid
B)Leukotriene receptor antagonist
C)Systemic corticosteroid
D)Methyl xanthenes
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Chapter 10: Cardiovascular Problems
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?
A)It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.
B)Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.
C)It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.
D)None of the statements are true.
Q2) Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?
A)A physiologic split S2
B)A fixed split S2
C)S3
D)S4
Q3) Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?
A)T-wave inversion
B)ST-segment elevation
C)Significant Q wave
D)U-wave
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Problems
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain that is radiating to the middle of the back.The NP suspects acute cholelithiasis.The NP should expect which of the following laboratory findings?
A)Decreased alanine aminotransferase and decreased aspartate aminotransferase
B)Elevated alkaline phosphatase
C)Elevated indirect bilirubin
D)Decreased white blood cells
Q2) A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation.The patient lists all of the following medications.Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?
A)Multivitamin
B)Magnesium hydroxide
C)Pepto-Bismol¨
D)Ibuprofen
Q3) Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?
A)Eliminate coffee.
B)Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.
C)Recline and rest after meals.
D)Limit the amount of antacids.
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Chapter 12: Renal Problems
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is seen in the clinic and diagnosed with Stage I renal cancer.The provider should refer the patient to a nephrologist for which of these treatments?
A)Chemotherapy
B)Nephrectomy
C)Palliative treatment
D)Radiation
Q2) A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy.Which of the following actions should be taken next?
A)Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.
B)Increase the dose of antibiotic.
C)Order a cytoscopy.
D)Order a different antibiotic.
Q3) Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
A)Kidneys, ureter, bladder x-ray
B)Cystoscopy with biopsy
C)Magnetic resonance imaging
D)Urine tumor marker (NMP22)
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Chapter 13: Mens Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Chlamydia trachomatis
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum.The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum.In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
A)The scrotum will be dark.
B)The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
C)The scrotum will appear milky white.
D)The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Q3) Patients treated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae also should be treated for Chlamydia trachomatis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 14: Womens Health Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge.On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae.Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
A)Fluconazole
B)Estrogen vaginal cream
C)Metronidazole
D)Doxycycline
Q2) A woman taking estradiol is at risk for developing endometrial cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass.Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
A)"It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass."
B)"We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis."
C)"We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure."
D)"Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer."
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Chapter 15: Musculoskeletal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which stage of Paget's disease is characterized by elevated numbers of osteoblasts, resulting in abnormal increases in bone remodeling and leading to an irregular deposition of collagen fibers?
A)Lytic
B)Mixed
C)Sclerotic
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
A)Decreased C-reactive protein
B)Hyperalbuminemia
C)Morning stiffness
D)Weight gain
Q3) Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women.Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?
A)By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts
B)By promoting osteoclastogenesis
C)By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis
D)All of the above
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Chapter 16: Endocrinemetabolic Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus.Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
A)Anxiety disorder
B)Pheochromocytoma
C)Psychosis
D)All of the above
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism.Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
A)Sinus bradycardia
B)Atrial fibrillation
C)Supraventricular tachycardia
D)U waves
Q3) The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?
A)Low-dose aspirin
B)Thiazide diuretics
C)Ethambutol
D)All of the above
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Chapter 17: Hematologic and Immune Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spontaneous bruising may be seen with platelet counts below what level?
A)100,000 cells/mL
B)75,000 cells/mL
C)50,000 cells/mL
D)30,000 cells/ml
Q2) Which test is diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis?
A)Rheumatoid factor
B)ESR
C)CRP
D)Anti-CCP titers
Q3) An important complication of antiretroviral (ARV) therapy in patients with advanced AIDS is which of the following?
A)Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
B)Improvement in opportunistic infections
C)Restoration of immune system to preinfection status
D)Progression to AIDS
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Chapter 18: Psychosocial Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
A)2 weeks
B)3 weeks
C)4 weeks
D)5 weeks
Q3) Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to K bler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
A)Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
B)Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
C)Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
D)Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
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Chapter 19: Emergency Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level correlates with the clinical symptoms of confusion, lethargy, and ST-segment depression on the electrocardiogram?
A)Less than 10%
B)20% COHb
C)30% COHb
D)40% to 60% COHb
Q2) A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?
A)CN II
B)CN III
C)CN IV
D)CN V
Q3) Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress.What should be your first step?
A)Remove the insect with tweezers.
B)Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
C)Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
D)Shine a light in the ear for the insect to "find its way out."
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Chapter 20: Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen has shown no benefit in alleviating dyspnea in patients without hypoxemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?
A)Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
B)Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
C)Identifying and managing complications of care
D)All of the above
Q3) A patient is receiving long-acting oxycodone for pain control.The clinician thinks that he also will benefit from a short-acting oxycodone for breakthrough pain.How will the clinician figure out what the dose of short-acting oxycodone should be?
A)The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
B)The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of the total 24-hour long-acting dose.
C)The short-acting dose should be 10% to 20% of each long-acting dose.
D)The short-acting dose should be 40% to 50% of each long-acting dose.
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Chapter 21: Ethical and Legal Issues of a Caring-Based Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three components must be present to establish malpractice.Which one does NOT apply?
A)The APRN must be paid for the services in question.
B)The provider must have a duty to the patient.
C)The standard of care must have been deviated from or breached.
D)Harm or damages must have occurred as a result of the duty and a breach of the standards of care.
Q2) Which board administers and defines advanced nursing practice in all states?
A)The Board of Nursing
B)The Board of Medicine
C)The Board of Pharmacy
D)It is different for each state.
Q3) Which insurance plan was the first to allow members to choose nurse practitioners as their primary care provider and pay them the same rate as physicians for the same care?
A)Blue Cross/Blue Shield
B)Medicare/Medicaid
C)The Oxford Health Plan
D)United Health Insurance
Page 20
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Chapter 22: Business of Advanced Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) All health-care practices should develop a compliance plan.Compliance plans offer practice safeguards that prevent which of the following?
A)Malpractice claims
B)Conflict of interest claims
C)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act violations
D)Occupational Safety and Health Administration violations
Q2) Accounting keeps track of the financial state of a business.The accounting report that demonstrates the growth in assets is:
A)Net income statement
B)Balance sheet
C)Cash flow statement
D)Operating statement
Q3) Medicare benefits were offered to U.S.beneficiaries beginning in 1965.What was the service added with the Medicare D plan in 2006?
A)Health-care screening
B)Health-care education
C)Pharmaceutical coverage
D)Durable medical equipment coverage
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Chapter 23: The 15-Minute Hour
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Sample Questions
Q1) BATHEing the patient refers to:
A)A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral
B)A technique used to facilitate cultural understanding
C)A technique used to perform psychotherapy
D)A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems
Q2) The primary purpose of the "Positive BATHE" is intended to help patients by:
A)Focusing on autonomy and accomplishment
B)Creating a stronger therapeutic alliance
C)Helping the patient change negative behaviors
D)Engaging the patient during the psychosocial assessment .
Q3) Integrating mental health techniques and approaches, such as the 15-minute hour, into the primary care patient encounter is important for a number of reasons.These include:
A)Decreasing the patient's stress and increasing your reimbursement
B)Encouraging coping strategies and increasing professional satisfaction
C)Assisting patients in reliving traumatic experiences
D)Decreasing care clinician stress
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Page 22
Chapter 24: Putting Caring Into Practice: Caring for Self
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Sample Questions
Q1) The World Health Organization defines self-care as:
A)An important global activity for all health-care providers
B)A set of deliberate actions that all individuals, families, and communities should engage in to maintain good health
C)Essential to efficacious advanced practice nursing (APRN) practice
D)An awareness by the APRN of their self-care behaviors as related to diet, activity, and mental attitude
Q2) Self-care and personal development are built into the standards of practice of:
A)The American Holistic Nurses Association
B)The American Nurses Association
C)The American Association of Nurse Practitioners
D)The American Academy of Nursing
Q3) Qualities associated with resilience include:
A)Hope, self-efficacy, and optimism
B)Stick-to-it-ness, belief in a higher power
C)Education, self-regulation, and use of activity to decrease stress
D)Ability to take vacations and the availability of support systems and a secure work environment
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