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Western Civilization I Final Exam - 2141 Verified Questions

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Western Civilization I Final Exam

Course Introduction

Western Civilization I explores the development of Western societies from ancient times through the early modern period, covering key civilizations such as Mesopotamia, Egypt, Greece, Rome, and medieval Europe. The course examines significant political, social, economic, religious, and cultural transformations that shaped the Western world, including the rise and fall of empires, the evolution of philosophical and religious ideas, and the foundations of modern institutions. Through primary sources and scholarly interpretations, students gain insight into the events, people, and ideas that have profoundly influenced Western heritage and continue to impact contemporary society.

Recommended Textbook

Western Civilization 10th Edition by Jackson J. Spielvogel

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30 Chapters

2141 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: The Ancient Near East: The First Civilizations

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Q1) Egypt's Old Kingdom ended for all of the following EXCEPT

A)foreign invasion.

B)a drought caused by low levels of the Nile.

C)a decline in rainfall.

D)economic troubles.

E)decline of centralized authority.

Answer: A

Q2) One of the few female pharaohs was A)Ramses.

B)Hatshepsut.

C)Menes.

D)Amenhotep.

E)Isis.

Answer: B

Q3) The great literary epic of the ancient Sumerians was known as the Book of the Dead.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: The Ancient Near East: Peoples and Empires

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Q1) The Assyrian army was able to conquer and maintain an empire due to

A)its ability to use diversified military tactics.

B)its avoidance of siege warfare.

C)its lenient treatment of rebellious subjects.

D)Assyria's naturally protected boundaries.

E)its reliance exclusively upon massive armies of infantry soldiers.

Answer: A

Q2) The most tolerant and efficient of the Near Eastern empires was the A)Egyptian.

B)Assyrian.

C)Chaldean.

D)Persian.

E)Babylonian.

Answer: D

Q3) Ahuramazda was the supreme Persian god.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: The Civilization of the Greeks

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Q1) The Greek historian Thucydides differed from Herodotus in that the former

A)was unconcerned with divine forces as a factor in history.

B)devoted much of his writing to economic history.

C)never wrote about warfare but only about political and cultural matters.

D)was unconcerned with teaching lessons based on history.

E)exhibited a critical attitude toward his sources but Herodotus did not.

Answer: A

Q2) All of the following are prominent features of Greece's topography EXCEPT A)extensive open plains.

B)bays and harbors.

C)mountains.

D)valleys.

E)long seacoast.

Answer: A

Q3) The geography of Greece is characterized by smooth, well-watered plains and fields.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: The Hellenistic World

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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes Hellenistic cities?

A)They were small and governed by a military elite.

B)They served as important centers of administration, most of which were dominated by Greeks and Greek culture.

C)Their inhabitants spoke only their native tongue.

D)They had a population of 10,000 and were dominated by a trading class.

E)Most were ruled by non-Greeks.

Q2) Alexander the Great's conquests in Asia occurred despite

A)his lack of military expertise prior to his father's assassination.

B)the Persian king Darius III's refusal to make any peace settlements and resort to guerilla warfare.

C)the lack of a strong cavalry and inability to capture Egypt.

D)his eventual difficulties in convincing his troops to fight so far from home.

E)violent opposition back in Greece by most of the city-states.

Q3) Of all the many varieties of products traded in the Hellenistic world, the greatest trade was in gold.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Why did Alexander of Macedonia's empire not last beyond his lifetime?

Q5) Did women's lives improve during the Hellenistic Era? Why or why not?

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Chapter 5: The Roman Republic

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Q1) Which of the following statements about Roman names is INCORRECT?

A)Three names became common in the later Republic.

B)The praenomen was the forename or personal name.

C)The nomen was the hereditary family name.

D)The cognomen was the hereditary family name.

E)Women usually had one name, the feminine form of the father's nomen.

Q2) Which of the following statements best applies to Roman education?

A)Foreigners were not allowed to become teachers.

B)Boys and girls were educated through a rigorous public school system borrowed from the Spartans.

C)The wealthy classes wanted training in Greek and mastery of rhetoric, or persuasive public speaking, for their children.

D)Study of foreign languages was prohibited to purify the Latin language.

E)There were many public schools, with scholarships made available to the poor.

Q3) The college of augurs existed to

A)keep wine used in religious ceremonies pure.

B)keep the Roman supply of water fresh and available.

C)interpret auspices-signs sent to humans by the gods.

D)keep track of the official system of weights and measures.

E)provide assurance that Roman architecture was aligned with religious precepts.

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Chapter 6: The Roman Empire

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Q1) Which one of the following mystery cults had a great following, especially among the urban poor?

A)Dionysus

B)Mars

C)John the Baptist

D)Horus

E)Isis

Q2) In what ways did imperial governance in the Age of Augustus and the Early Empire address the problems and weaknesses that led to the collapse of the Republic?

Q3) Which of the following trends developed during the reigns of the Julio-Claudian emperors?

A)Emperors took more and more actual ruling power away from the old Senate.

B)All efforts to achieve bureaucratic organization of imperial government eventually failed.

C)Emperors turned over more and more of the daily affairs of government to the Senate.

D)The power of imperial military forces stationed in Rome declined.

E)The Senate seized political power, against the wishes of the weak emperors.

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Chapter 7: Late Antiquity and the Emergence of the Medieval World

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Q1) Compare and contrast Byzantine and Islamic civilizations of the east with the civilization developing in western Europe.

Q2) What were the major accomplishments of Justinian? In what ways did those achievements burden and help transform the Roman Empire in the east?

Q3) Augustine wrote that marriage and the rejection of celibacy allowed for the perfect form of Christian living.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Muhammad was born in A)Jerusalem.

B)Rome.

C)Yathrib.

D)Constantinople.

E)Mecca.

Q5) Beginning with Justinian, the center of the Byzantine presence in Italy was Rome. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: European Civilization in the Early Middle Ages, 750-1000

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Q1) The first Frankish king to be anointed in holy ceremony by an agent of the pope was A)Zacharias.

B)Charlemagne.

C)Charles Martel.

D)Pepin.

E)Louis the Pious.

Q2) Muslims contributed little of importance in mathematics or philosophy, because of their refusal to draw on the texts and learning of other civilizations.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the Early Middle Ages, books were written on sheepskin, as papyrus was too expensive to be imported from Egypt, then under Muslim control.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Discuss the changing relations between Islam and the Byzantine Empire between 750 and 1000.

Q5) How did Viking raids and settlements impact the development of medieval Europe?

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Chapter 9: The Recovery and Growth of European Society

in the High Middle Ages

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Q1) All of the following were consequences of the revival of trade EXCEPT

A)the development of a money economy.

B)the establishment of trading companies and banking firms.

C)the use of contracts and insurance.

D)the final abandonment of old Roman cities.

E)the creation of new techniques such as double-entry bookkeeping.

Q2) The "new agriculture" of the High Middle Ages

A)resulted from a sharp decline in the total acreage available for farming.

B)was in part brought about by a change from the two-field to the three-field system.

C)led to the demise of the cooperative agricultural villages.

D)was in large part due to the development of a cheap, nonwheeled wooden plow for peasants.

E)was the result of grain imported from the east.

Q3) Discuss the structures and changes in daily life of the ordinary European medieval village in the High Middle Ages.How did most Europeans live, and what were the material factors shaping their behavior at the communal level?

Q4) What were some of the reasons for the revival of Classical antiquity in the High Middle Ages?

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Chapter 10: The Rise of Kingdoms and the Growth of Church Power

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Q1) The investiture controversy was resolved in 1122 by a compromise agreement known as the Concordat of

A)Rome.

B)Canossa.

C)Verdun.

D)Worms.

E)Cologne.

Q2) The Capetian king who wrested control of several French territories from King John of England was

A)Louis VII.

B)Philip II.

C)Louis IX.

D)Philip IV.

E)Henry IV.

Q3) Frederick II of Hohenstaufen

A)allowed his kingdom to fall into chaos by leading military ventures in Italy.

B)was considered incompetent by his contemporaries.

C)was a brilliant scholar who wrote treatises on political philosophy.

D)was perhaps the greatest military leader of the Middle Ages.

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E)led the Fourth Crusade against Constantinople.

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Chapter 11: The Later Middle Ages: Crisis and Disintegration in the Fourteenth Century

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Q1) Joan of Arc

A)was captured by the Burgundians and turned over to their English allies.

B)was handed over to the Inquisition on charges of witchcraft.

C)was considered transgressive because she wore men's clothing.

D)was condemned as a heretic and burned at the stake.

E)All of these are correct.

Q2) Economically, the great plague and the crises of the fourteenth century

A)devastated peasants but not nobles.

B)brought an economic boom to landlords.

C)caused only minor changes in agricultural practices.

D)raised wages because of a scarcity of labor.

E)had little impact.

Q3) In Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua took the position that

A)popes have authority over the commoners but not over nobles.

B)the church must consign itself solely to spiritual functions.

C)popes have ultimate authority over all men, even kings.

D)the church was entirely illegitimate.

E)each king ought to establish his own church in his country.

Q4) Evaluate the social, military, economic, and political consequences of the introduction and use of cannons and gunpowder.

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Chapter 12: Recovery and Rebirth: the Age of the Renaissance

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Q1) The Renaissance figure in the following list who was NOT a leading painter was A)Raphael.

B)Michelangelo.

C)Petrarch.

D)Leonardo.

E)Botticelli.

Q2) Western Europe in the Renaissance saw

A)a decline in serfdom.

B)a decline in centralized royal government.

C)a reduction in urban trade networks.

D)a rise in famine.

E)an increase in the manorial system.

Q3) The Book of the Courtier was a

A)primer on military training for nobles.

B)popular handbook laying out the new skills in politics, the arts, and personal comportment expected of Renaissance aristocrats.

C)sharp denunciation of the wasteful noble life.

D)treatise against active participation in public life.

E)work on how to achieve political power and then keep it.

Q4) How did the artistic Renaissance differ in Italy and northern Europe?

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Chapter 13: Reformation and Religious Warfare in the

Sixteenth Century

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Q1) The Reformation affected the development of education in Europe by A)rejecting higher education as unnecessary in a faith dominated by works.

B)restricting access to Protestant schooling to the nobility and wealthier urban patricians.

C)eradicating all humanist influences in schooling.

D)expanding public access to primary schooling and improving secondary schooling through the gymnasium.

E)the exclusive use of textbooks in Latin.

Q2) England's break with the Roman church became official with the passage of the A)Act of Union.

B)Six Articles.

C)Act of Toleration.

D)Act of Succession.

E)Act of Supremacy.

Q3) Protestant schools in Germany avoided teaching the liberal arts, choosing instead to focus on their most important book, the Bible.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter

1500-1800

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Q1) Between the sixteenth and the nineteenth centuries, the number of African slaves shipped to the New World is estimated at

A)one million.

B)two million.

C)five million.

D)ten million.

E)twenty-five million.

Q2) What were the principle doctrines of mercantilism, and how do they differ from those of capitalism?

Q3) Printed editions of Ptolemy's Geography did not become available until 1600, too late to make any significant difference in the efforts of early European explorers.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The first major Portuguese settlement in India was at Calicut. A)True

B)False

Q5) Given its relatively small population and lack of obvious resources, why was the Dutch Republic so successful in establishing a profitable overseas empire?

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Chapter 15: State Building and the Search for Order in the

Seventeenth Century

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Q1) Gustavus Adolphus, king of Sweden, developed the first standing army of conscripts, an army notable for its flexible tactics.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The Fronde, an uprising in France that nearly overthrew Louis XIV early in his reign, was a revolt of the French A)peasants.

B)clergy.

C)nobility.

D)urban workers.

E)All of these are correct.

Q3) The Austrian monarchy never became a highly centralized, absolutist state, in part because it included too many different national groups.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Thirty Years' War has often been called the "last of the religious wars."

A)True

B)False

Q5) Why were women the prevalent victims of Europe's witch craze?

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Sample Questions

Q1) What did Paracelsus, Vesalius, and Harvey contribute to a scientific view of medicine? Be specific and give examples.

Q2) Which one of the following comments best summarizes the impact of the Scientific Revolution on Western Civilization?

A)It created a new "heaven" but had little impact on conceptions of the earth.

B)It slightly modified the medieval, Aristotelian-Ptolemaic worldview.

C)It was a major turning point that represented cooperation in the pursuit of new knowledge.

D)It forcefully and deliberately attacked the moral foundation of a Christian civilization.

E)It created a new "earth" but had little impact on conceptions of the universe.

Q3) The scientist whose work led to the law that states that the volume of a gas varies with the pressure exerted upon it and who argued that matter is composed of atoms, later known as the chemical elements, was

A)William Harvey.

B)Paracelsus.

C)Andreas Vesalius.

D)Robert Boyle.

E)Antoine Lavoisier.

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Chapter 17: The Eighteenth Century: An Age of Enlightenment

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Q1) European intellectual life in the eighteenth century was marked by A)growing anti-Semitism and sharper persecution of minorities in universities.

B)the emergence of secularization and a search to find the natural laws governing human life.

C)sophism and the mockery of past traditions.

D)a return of monastic schools and medieval modes of training religious thinkers.

E)an intense pessimism about the possibility of human progress.

Q2) In reaction to significant elements of rationalism and deism, in what two countries did some ordinary Protestant churchgoers choose new religious movements?

A)Scotland and Ireland

B)France and Austria

C)Italy and Spain

D)Sweden and Poland

E)England and Germany

Q3) What ideas and values defined the Enlightenment?

Q4) Compare and contrast the contributions of the French philosophes and Britain's Enlightenment figures.How do they differ, if they do, and why?

Q5) Did the Enlightenment represent a new era for women? Why or why not?

Page 19

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Chapter 18: The Eighteenth Century: European States, International Wars, and Social Change

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Q1) Given the numerous social and economic changes of the eighteenth century, those at the bottom of society often found themselves much worse off than in earlier centuries.Why?

Q2) A key financial innovation of the eighteenth century was

A)the creation of insurance policies.

B)the circulation of paper banknotes compensating for a lack of coinage.

C)the establishment of a new international currency to facilitate trade.

D)deficit spending by enlightened monarchs to pay for vital government reforms.

E)the increased use of bullion in preference to less reliable paper money.

Q3) The dismemberment of Poland in the late eighteenth century

A)occurred after decades of warfare between its neighbors.

B)was reversed by the successful rebellion of General Kosciuszko.

C)showed the necessity of a strong, centralized monarchy to defend a state in the period.

D)resulted from the Polish king's repeated insults and attacks on his neighbors.

E)was reversed as the result of the Council of Berlin.

Q4) Compare and contrast the development of the two Atlantic seaboard states of France and Great Britain during the eighteenth-century.How were they alike? How were they different?

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Q5) Was there an agricultural revolution in the eighteenth century? Why or why not?

Chapter 19: A Revolution in Politics: The Era of the French Revolution

and Napoleon

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Q1) During the early stages of the "Radical Revolution," the National Convention

A)was controlled by the Mountain, which defeated the less radical Girondins.

B)successfully resisted the Parisians' radical attempts to control the Convention.

C)favored ending the disastrous European war.

D)failed to create any kind of large standing army.

E)requested that Napoleon become dictator.

Q2) The government of the Directory in the period of the Thermidorean Reaction

A)primarily relied on the support of the royalists.

B)was unicameral and directly elected by active citizens.

C)was characterized by honest leadership and wise economic plans.

D)increasingly had to rely on military support for its survival.

E)abolished the radical reforms of the Public Safety, including the Revolutionary Calendar.

Q3) The Committee of Public Safety's campaign of Terror was directed almost exclusively against the Catholic clergy and members of the aristocracy and wealthy bourgeoisie.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: The Industrial Revolution and Its Impact on European Society

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Q1) The so-called American System

A)involved the use of high tariffs to protect new industries.

B)reduced costs and revolutionized production through labor-saving innovations in manufacturing.

C)referred to the establishment of a common market for the western hemisphere.

D)embraced free trade and the absence of tariffs.

E)was reminiscent of the medieval guild system of wage and price controls.

Q2) A frequent method employed to make the many very young boys and girls working in new British industries obey the owner's factory discipline was

A)the promise of increased wages.

B)deportation to the colonies.

C)heavy fines for lost time.

D)lectures and schooling in the rules to parents.

E)repeated beatings.

Q3) The development of the railroads in the Industrial Revolution was important in

A)increasing British supremacy in civil and mechanical engineering.

B)increasing the size of markets and the price of goods.

C)bringing about the demise of joint-stock companies.

D)defeating Napoleon.

E)making London a great port city.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Reaction, Revolution, and Romanticism,

1815-1850

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Q1) The Congress of Vienna

A)gave Prussia complete control over Polish lands.

B)created policies that would maintain the European balance of power.

C)failed to achieve long-lasting peace among European nations.

D)treated France leniently following Napoleon's One Hundred Days.

E)sanctioned the political power of the bourgeoisie.

Q2) Suffrage had been extended to almost all white adult males in the United States by the

A)1780s.

B)1790s.

C)1820s.

D)1830s.

E)1840s.

Q3) What similarities do the revolutions of Latin America have with the revolutions of Europe during the early to middle decades of the nineteenth century? How did they differ?

Q4) Johann Wolfgang von Werther's The Sorrows of Young Werther served as an important model for Romantic writers.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: An Age of Nationalism and Realism, 1850-1871

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Q1) The reforms of Tsar Alexander II centered around

A)government sponsorship of popular societies like the Bolsheviks.

B)improvements in the military.

C)the abolition of serfdom.

D)the formation of local, self-governing assemblies called dumas.

E)nationalizing all the lands of Russia, putting them under state control.

Q2) The prime minister of Piedmont who organized the Italian unification movement was

A)Giuseppe Mazzini.

B)Giuseppe Garibaldi.

C)Camillo di Cavour.

D)Victor Emmanuel.

E)the Duke of Alba.

Q3) England and France entered the Crimean War in 1854 because they feared growing influence in the Mediterranean by A)Russia.

B)the Ottoman Empire.

C)Prussia.

D)Austria.

E)the United States.

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Chapter 23: Mass Society in an Age of Progress, 1871-1894

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Q1) Initially, trade unions in the first half of the nineteenth century functioned primarily as

A)political parties.

B)militant anarchist societies.

C)supporters of middle-class liberalism.

D)vehicles for leisure activities.

E)mutual aid societies.

Q2) Between 1871 and 1894, two major domestic political issues involved the achievement of liberal practices and the growth of political democracy.To what extent were these realized in Great Britain, France, Spain, and Italy?

Q3) Between 1850 and 1900, Britain and Germany doubled, perhaps tripled, their national incomes, and real wages in Britain increased by two-thirds during that period.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In most European countries, government and municipal authorities licensed and regulated prostitution.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: An Age of Modernity, Anxiety, and Imperialism,

1894-1914

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Q1) Maria Montessori exemplifies the "new woman" of modern times in that A)she became a leading advocate of the vote for women.

B)she entered Italian politics as a liberal.

C)she created the International Women's League for Peace and Freedom.

D)she obtained a professional degree and applied her expertise to new fields of inquiry like early childhood development.

E)she was the first professional woman who received equal pay for equal work.

Q2) The best example of Naturalism in literature can be found in the novels of A)Victor Hugo.

B)Charles Dickens.

C)Albert Camus.

D)Émile Zola.

E)Gustave Flaubert.

Q3) Clara Barton embodied the concept of the "new woman," having attended medical school and pioneered a new form of childhood education.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What did the New Physics and concepts of psychoanalysis contribute to Modernism?

Page 26

Q5) What were the causes and consequences of the Russian Revolution of 1905?

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Chapter

25: The Beginning of the Twentieth-Century Crisis:

War and Revolution

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Q1) The new state of Yugoslavia had as its nucleus

A)Latvia.

B)Lithuania.

C)Serbia.

D)Bosnia.

E)Austria.

Q2) Poison gas was introduced in

A)the U.S.Civil War.

B)the Boer War.

C)the Spanish-American War.

D)1915.

E)the waning months of World War I.

Q3) How did the Russian Revolution alter the dynamics of European statecraft and policy during the waning months of the war and into the time of the Paris Peace Conference?

Q4) What is meant by the concept of total war, and how applicable is that concept to World War I?

Q5) The Battle of Gallipoli marked the demise of the Ottoman Empire in World War I.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 26: The Futile Search for Stability: Europe Between

the Wars 1919-1939

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Q1) What explains the collapse of Weimar Germany? What does the Weimar Republic's failure suggest about the fragility of democracy in western Europe after World War I?

Q2) The dominant form of government in Eastern Europe in the 1920s and 1930s was A)authoritarianism.

B)Russian Soviet-style Communism.

C)parliamentary democracy.

D)Christian Socialism.

E)republicanism.

Q3) The film Triumph of the Will, which serves as an example of the propaganda potential of film, is a product of

A)Stalin's Soviet Union.

B)Mussolini's Italy.

C)Franco's Spain.

D)Hitler's Germany.

E)Salazar's Portugal.

Q4) Other than the Great War having ended, about what was there to be hopeful as the 1920s dawned?

Q5) What were the causes of the Great Depression? How did the European states respond to the Great Depression?

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Chapter 27: The Deepening of the European Crisis: World

War II

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Sample Questions

Q1) British statesmen who followed a policy of appeasement believed Germany served as a powerful bulwark against

A)the French Republic.

B)Fascist Italy.

C)Soviet communism.

D)Franco's Spain.

E)nationalism in the Balkans.

Q2) After the attack on Pearl Harbor, the main priority for the United States was

A)defeating Japan as quickly as possible.

B)recovering the Hawaiian Islands.

C)defeating Germany first and then turning its great naval war machine against Japan.

D)to remain neutral, while buying time to build up industrial and military supplies.

E)defending "Fortress America" from the expected combined Japanese and German invasion of the United States.

Q3) Most of the Holocaust death camps were in the Sudetenland.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Who bears responsibility for the enactment of the "Final Solution"?

Page 29

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Chapter 28: Cold War and a New Western World 1945-1965

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Sample Questions

Q1) The United States involved itself in the fate of Vietnam soon after the close of World War II by supporting French efforts to take back Vietnam as a colony.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962 concluded with

A)improved communications between the US and the Soviet Union to prevent nuclear war.

B)the installation of Soviet missiles in Cuba.

C)the United States overthrowing Cuba's Soviet-supported government.

D)John Kennedy backing down to the threats of Nikita Khrushchev.

E)Fidel Castro giving up his military authority in the Cuban government, although he retained political control.

Q3) The social structure of the postwar European society has been greatly affected by a dramatic increase in the number of

A)industrial workers.

B)rural, agricultural laborers.

C)government workers.

D)military personnel.

E)white-collar management and administrative personnel.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Protest and Stagnation: The Western World

1965-1985

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72 Verified Questions

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Q1) Compare and contrast the American war in Vietnam and the Soviet Union's conflict in Afghanistan.What does each reveal about the relationship between the superpowers and the limits of their power?

Q2) In the 1960s, Marshall McLuhan predicted that the scenario for the future would be

A)a clash of civilizations.

B)a global village.

C)the end of "history."

D)the victory for liberal democracy.

E)an age of terrorism.

Q3) The Reagan Revolution extended welfare benefits to the poor and balanced the federal budget.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The literary work employing "magic realism" is

A)Small is Beautiful.

B)One Hundred Years of Solitude.

C)The Unbearable Lightness of Being.

D)One-Dimensional Man.

E)All of these are correct.

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Chapter 30: After the Fall: The Western World in a Global Age

Since 1985

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Q1) After the fall of the Soviet Union, Russia struggled with all of the following EXCEPT:

A)a renewed Communist Party majority which took over the government.

B)organized crime.

C)an uprising in largely Muslim Chechnya.

D)economic hardships.

E)a president who was often ill.

Q2) The austerity measures put into place in the wake of the global financial crisis resulted in all of the following EXCEPT

A)increased homelessness.

B)mass protests.

C)reductions in pensions, wages, and health care services.

D)a speedy economic recovery for Europe and the United States.

E)the rise in Europe of political parties of the far left and right.

Q3) In 2004, Yugoslavia officially ceased to exist when it was renamed Serbia and Montenegro.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What role has popular culture played in the Western world since 1985?

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Q5) What attitudes and actions have determined American foreign policy since 1985?

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