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Vocational Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge, hands-on skills, and foundational principles necessary for entry-level practice as a vocational nurse. The curriculum focuses on the care of patients across the lifespan and in various healthcare settings, covering subjects such as basic nursing skills, human anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing, maternal and child health, and mental health nursing.
Emphasis is placed on patient safety, ethical and legal considerations, cultural competence, and effective communication within a healthcare team. Through a blend of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and supervised clinical experiences, students are prepared to provide competent, compassionate care, and to succeed in licensure examinations required for practice.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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Q1) Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body?
A) gluteal
B) patellar
C) umbilical
D) sternal
Answer: A
Q2) What is another name for the frontal plane?
A) sagittal plane
B) cross section
C) transverse plane
D) coronal plane
Answer: D
Q3) In which cavity is the mediastinum located?
A) pelvic cavity
B) dorsal cavity
C) thoracic cavity
D) abdominal cavity
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent?
A) tincture
B) alkaline
C) acid
D) aqueous
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following can neutralize H ?
A) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B) Na
C) OH<sup>-</sup>
D) H2O
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is described by: one atom of oxygen bonds covalently with two atoms of hydrogen?
A) carbon dioxide
B) a tincture
C) water
D) neutralization of an acid with a base
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) These hairlike structures are located on the outer surface of the cell membrane.
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) cilia
D) centrioles
Answer: C
Q2) Identify the transport mechanism: a passive process that uses a carrier molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
A) osmosis
B) an ATP-driven pump
C) filtration
D) facilitated diffusion
Answer: D
Q3) The mitochondrion is called the power plant of the cell because
A) most of the ATP is produced within the mitochondrion.
B) all protein synthesis occurs within the mitochondrion.
C) all DNA is located within the mitochondrion.
D) all ribosomes are located within the mitochondrion.
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is not a carbohydrate term?
A) glycogen
B) monosaccharide
C) glycerol
D) sucrose,maltose,and lactose
Q2) Which of the following carries the individual amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome for assembly into a protein?
A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) mRNA
D) ATP
Q3) Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose?
A) steroids
B) lipids
C) sugars
D) disaccharides
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Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of staphylococci?
A) grapelike arrangement
B) bacterial
C) Gram (+)
D) underlying cause of rheumatic fever
Q2) Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) arthropods.
D) bacilli.
Q3) This "bad air" disease is caused by a plasmodium.
A) measles
B) tinea
C) tetanus
D) malaria
Q4) Ectoparasites are most likely to cause
A) itching and discomfort.
B) high fever.
C) paralysis.
D) loss of consciousness.
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Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) appearance of muscle:striated and smooth
B) types of cartilage:hyaline,elastic,fibrocartilage
C) types of epithelial membranes:cutaneous,mucous,serous
D) types of connective tissue:tendons,ligaments,fat,glia
Q2) What is the most abundant of the four types of tissue?
A) epithelial tissue
B) muscular tissue
C) connective tissue
D) nervous tissue
Q3) Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane?
A) dermis
B) lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body
C) skin
D) epidermis
Q4) Osseous tissue is
A) also called bone tissue.
B) formed from chondrocytes.
C) classified as squamous,cuboidal,and columnar.
D) classified as skeletal,smooth,and cardiac.
Page 8
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sebaceous,apocrine,and eccrine glands are
A) sweat glands.
B) endocrine glands.
C) sebum-secreting glands.
D) exocrine glands.
Q2) Ceruminous glands
A) secrete vernix caseosa.
B) are sebaceous glands.
C) secrete wax in the outer ear.
D) are responsible for the summer tan.
Q3) Which of the following is associated with tanning?
A) sudoriferous glands
B) apocrine glands
C) arrector pili muscles
D) melanocytes
Q4) Which of the following has the poorest prognosis?
A) freckles
B) vitiligo
C) melanoma
D) albinism

Page 9
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the outer lining of connective tissue that surrounds the diaphysis of a long bone and contains the blood vessels that supply the bone?
A) periosteum
B) endosteum
C) osteon
D) articular cartilage
Q2) The humerus
A) contains the olecranon process.
B) articulates distally with the ulna.
C) forms a ball-and-socket joint where the olecranon process articulates with the olecranon fossa.
D) articulates with the scapula at the sternomanubrial joint.
Q3) Which word(s)best reflect(s)the function of the epiphyseal disc?
A) blood cell formation
B) phagocytosis
C) secretion of synovial fluid
D) longitudinal growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) This muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities and is also the chief breathing muscle.
A) serratus anterior
B) intercostal muscle
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) diaphragm
Q2) What is the function of the masseter muscle?
A) adducts the thigh
B) chews food
C) lifts the eyelid
D) flexes the arm
Q3) Joey has had his leg in a nonweight-bearing cast for 8 weeks.When the cast is removed,the leg appears smaller than the uninjured leg.Which term best describes this observation?
A) contracture
B) hypertrophy
C) muscle dystrophy
D) disuse atrophy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inside of the unstimulated neuron is negative;this electrical charge is due to the outward leak of potassium and is called
A) depolarization.
B) the action potential.
C) the resting membrane potential.
D) the refractory period.
Q2) This structure plays a key role in personality development and emotional and behavioral expression;carries out the "executive" functions.
A) cerebellum
B) frontal lobe
C) basal ganglia
D) medulla oblongata
Q3) Frontal eye fields
A) perform a motor role regarding the eyes.
B) receive sensory information from the optic nerve.
C) allow the person to interpret visual information.
D) determine the color of the eyes.
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Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) cranial nerves:olfactory,optic,oculomotor
B) spinal nerves:phrenic,axillary,sciatic,vagus
C) plexuses:cervical,brachial,lumbosacral
D) states of paralysis:paraplegia,quadriplegia,hemiplegia
Q2) The oculomotor,trochlear,and abducens are cranial nerves that
A) innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball).
B) innervate the levator palpebrae superioris (lift the eyelid).
C) interpret sensory information from the optic nerve.
D) innervate the muscles of mastication.
Q3) Damage to this nerve causes crutch palsy.
A) sciatic nerve
B) radial nerve
C) axillary nerve
D) pudendal nerve
Q4) Which of the following is true of the spinothalamic tract?
A) sensory for touch,pressure,and pain
B) pyramidal tract
C) descending tract
D) stimulates the skeletal muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paravertebral ganglia
A) are part of the craniosacral outflow.
B) "drive" the vagus nerve.
C) are located within the organs of innervation.
D) are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.
Q2) A beta? adrenergic agonist
A) increases heart rate.
B) causes the release of acetylcholine.
C) blocks the effects of norepinephrine at its receptor site.
D) lowers blood pressure.
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) fight or flight
B) thoracolumbar
C) paravertebral ganglia
D) postganglionic fiber is cholinergic
Q4) Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)?
A) enzyme that degrades norepinephrine
B) found within all cholinergic nerve terminals
C) associated with sympathetic activity
D) associated with adrenergic fibers

Page 14
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myopia,farsightedness,and astigmatism are A) errors of refraction.
B) infections of the eye.
C) types of strabismus.
D) conditions of elevated intraocular pressure.
Q2) The malleus,incus,and stapes are called A) organ of Corti.
B) hearing receptors.
C) ossicles.
D) cartilage.
Q3) Olfaction refers to the sense of A) vision.
13-PAGE 5 Test Bank
B) taste.
C) smell.
D) equilibrium.
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Q1) Insulin,cortisol,thyroxine,and oxytocin
A) are hypothalamic releasing hormones.
B) are secreted by the adenohypophysis.
C) increase blood glucose.
D) are hormones.
Q2) This gland is associated with "sugar,salt,and sex."
A) adrenal cortex
B) pancreas
C) parathyroid gland
D) neurohypophysis
Q3) A deficiency of insulin causes
A) hypocalcemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) Cushing's syndrome.
D) adrenal shock.
Q4) Which of the following is least descriptive of the hypothalamus?
A) secretes releasing hormones
B) controls the secretion of the anterior pituitary gland
C) secretes ACTH,TSH,and gonadotropins
D) synthesizes oxytocin and ADH
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following causes granulocytopenia?
A) myelosuppression
B) hemolysis
C) infection
D) petechiae
Q2) Which of the following is least associated with hemostasis?
A) coagulation
B) platelet plug
C) jaundice
D) blood vessel spasm
Q3) What is another name for TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)?
A) anticoagulant
B) antiplatelet
C) "clot buster" (thrombolytic)
D) antihistamine
Q4) Monocytes and lymphocytes
A) contain hemoglobin.
B) are thrombocytes.
C) are nongranular leukocytes.
D) are hemostatic.

Page 17
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure "sees" oxygenated blood?
A) tricuspid valve
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) right semilunar valve
Q2) Which of the following is least descriptive of the myocardium?
A) cardiac muscle,composed of actin and myosin arranged in sarcomeres
B) thicker in the ventricles than the atria
C) thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle
D) thicker in the left atrium than the right ventricle
Q3) Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle?
A) coronary arteries
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) cardiac veins
Q4) Vessel(s)that carry(ies)blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium.
A) aorta
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) vena cava

18
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased blood flow through the coronary arteries is most likely to cause A) valve damage.
B) pulmonary edema.
C) angina pectoris.
D) bradycardia.
Q2) Which of the following contains 70 ml?
A) the cardiac output
B) the volume of a ventricle
C) an average stroke volume
D) the amount of blood that flows through the pulmonary capillaries in one minute
Q3) Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most likely to cause A) hypertension.
B) bradycardia.
C) tachycardia.
D) anemia.
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Q1) This blood vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the small intestine and parts of the large intestine.
A) iliac artery
B) dorsalis pedis artery
C) superior mesenteric artery
D) subclavian blood vessel
Q2) Blood pressure is lowest in the A) inferior vena cava.
B) aorta.
C) pulmonary capillaries.
D) femoral artery.
Q3) If the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth,blood shunts from the aorta to the A) pulmonary artery.
B) pulmonary veins.
C) coronary artery.
D) vena cava.
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Q1) Plasma oncotic pressure is due primarily to A) blood pressure.
B) plasma proteins,especially albumin.
C) lymph.
D) electrolytes such as sodium and chloride.
Q2) The characteristic of the arteriole that allows it to function as a resistance vessel is its
A) thin membrane.
B) porous membrane.
C) valves.
D) smooth muscle.
Q3) A pregnant woman notices that her ankles are swollen after standing for 6 hours at her place of employment.In the evening when she elevates her feet,the swelling diminishes because
A) capillary hydrostatic pressure in the blood vessels of the lower extremities decreases.
B) plasma oncotic pressure decreases.
C) plasma oncotic pressure increases.
D) lymphatic drainage decreases.
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Q1) What is the name of the lymph nodes that drain the head and neck region?
A) inguinal
B) cervical
C) thoracic
D) pelvic
Q2) A lacteal is located within the
A) adenoid.
B) tonsil.
C) thymus gland.
D) intestinal villus.
Q3) Which of the following is due to a viral infection involving the lymph nodes and is called the "kissing disease"?
A) Hodgkin's disease
B) elephantiasis
C) infectious mononucleosis
D) anaphylaxis
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Q1) A breastfed infant is initially immune to the same diseases as her mom.Which of the following describes the infant's immunity?
A) naturally acquired passive immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) artificially acquired active immunity
D) artificially acquired passive immunity
Q2) What is the name of a severe hypersensitivity reaction?
A) cyanosis
B) immunocompetence
C) autoimmunity
D) anaphylaxis
Q3) Because antibodies are carried by the blood,this type of immunity is also called A) immunotolerance.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) humoral immunity.
D) autoimmunity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A) prevents overinflation of the lungs.
B) is a chemical reflex;no nerves are involved.
C) is important only in disease states.
D) is only concerned with sneezing and coughing.
Q2) The respiratory passages are lined with A) pleura.
B) mucous membrane.
C) serous membrane.
D) muscle.
Q3) Hypoventilation decreases the respiratory excretion of A) oxygen.
B) water.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) albumin.
Q4) When the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, A) air moves out of the lungs.
B) inhalation occurs.
C) ventilation ceases.
D) chest volume increases.

Page 24
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enamel,dentin,and cementum are related to this structure.
A) tooth
B) liver
C) colon
D) villi
Q2) This is the site of absorption for most end-products of digestion.
A) duodenum
B) ileum
C) colon
D) stomach
Q3) The wall of this structure secretes cholecystokinin.
A) stomach
B) pylorus
C) duodenum
D) cecum
Q4) This is the chief organ of drug detoxification.
A) pancreas
B) cecum
C) liver
D) stomach
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Q1) A diuretic
A) causes the excretion of sodium and water in the urine.
B) causes hyperglycemia.
C) blocks the effects of PTH.
D) stimulates the reabsorption of sodium by the peritubular capillaries.
Q2) Which of the following is absorbed across the walls of the collecting duct under the influence of ADH?
A) potassium
B) urea
C) water
D) albumin
Q3) The detrusor muscle is located in the
A) urethra.
B) renal pelvis.
C) urinary bladder.
D) glomeruli.
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Q1) Which of the following forms the greatest extracellular fluid compartment?
A) lymph
B) interstitial
C) plasma
D) transcellular
Q2) This is the chief extracellular cation.
A) chloride
B) calcium
C) sodium
D) potassium
Q3) This ion determines the resting membrane potential of nerve and muscle.
A) sodium
B) calcium
C) hydrogen
D) potassium
Q4) Hyperkalemia refers to an increase in the blood levels of which ion?
A) hydrogen
B) bicarbonate
C) calcium
D) potassium
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes?
A) secrete gonadotropins
B) located in the pelvic cavity
C) called gametes
D) called gonads
Q2) Implantation
A) occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts.
B) is achieved by the morula.
C) is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst.
D) occurs within the ovaries.
Q3) Which term refers to the penis and scrotum?
A) external genitals
B) gonads
26-PAGE 2
Test Bank
C) gametes
D) zygotes
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Q1) In addition to acting as an exchange site between the mother and fetus,the placenta also secretes
A) estrogen and progesterone.
B) amniotic fluid.
C) vernix caseosa.
D) colostrum.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the amnion,chorion,yolk sac,and allantois?
A) primary germ layers
B) inner cell mass
C) dizygotic twins
D) extraembryonic membranes
Q3) What "lives" in the fallopian tube for a brief period of time?
A) an embryo
B) a fetus
C) a blastocyst
D) a zygote
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