Virology Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Virology is the study of viruses, their structure, classification, and the mechanisms by which they infect living organisms. This course provides an in-depth exploration of viral genetics, replication strategies, and the interactions between viruses and host cells. Students will learn about the molecular biology of viruses, immune responses to viral infections, techniques for virus detection and characterization, and the development of vaccines and antiviral therapies. The course also covers the roles of viruses in disease outbreaks, public health, and biotechnology applications.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms Global 14th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what/which domain(s)of life is/are microorganisms represented?
A) Archaea
B) Bacteria
C) Eukarya
D) Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
Answer: D
Q2) Archaea and Bacteria are unified as prokaryotes in lacking ________ which Eukarya contain,such as golgi.
A) membranes
B) nuclei
C) membrane-enclosed organelles
D) nuclei and membrane-enclosed organelles
Answer: D
Q3) Today,the enrichment culture technique developed over a century ago by Martinus Beijerinck remains a feasible approach to discovering bacteria capable of degrading pollutants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some archaea have unique phospholipids in their cytoplasmic membrane that
A) form a monolayer due to the presence of diglycerol tetraethers.
B) form a bilayer due to the presence of sterols.
C) form a stable ring structure due to the presence of crenarchaeol.
D) form a bilayer due to the presence of phosphatidylethanolamine.
Answer: A
Q2) In general,most cell inclusions function as energy reserves or as a reservoir of structural building blocks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The membrane of a gas vesicle is composed of A) various phospholipids.
B) proteins.
C) carbohydrates.
D) both glycoproteins and phospholipids.
Answer: B
Q4) Explain the differences between uniporters,symporters,and antiporters.
Answer: Answers should highlight differences in transport direction and energy input.
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Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial isolate that grows better on a nutrient agar plate supplemented with amino acids but still grows in a nutrient agar plate lacking amino acids suggests amino acids are trace nutrients for the isolate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Categorize the circumstances under which the same substance (molecule)can be either an electron donor or an electron acceptor.
Answer: Answers should explain that not all molecules are strictly one or the other,and each molecule must be compared to the other in a pair to determine which is the electron acceptor and which is an electron donor.
Q3) Nitrogenases not only reduce N but also can act on acetylene (C H ).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Explain what an enzyme must accomplish to catalyze a specific reaction.
Answer: Answers will vary,but the focus of the answer should be on overcoming the required activation energy.
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Chapter 4: Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is TRUE regarding protein synthesis?
A) Ribosomal proteins catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
B) The 23S rRNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
C) Transfer RNAs catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
D) Messenger RNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
Q2) You are trying to design a protein that will be expressed in Escherichia coli and secreted outside of the cell for purification and use as a pharmaceutical.E.coli is a gram-negative cell and the protein folds after it has exited the cell.Which secretion system would work best for this project? Support your answer with evidence based on the properties of E.coli,the protein,and the secretion system.
Q3) The flow of biological information begins with
A) DNA replication.
B) RNA transcription.
C) mRNA translation.
D) transcriptional regulation.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enumerating cells in a biofilm is especially challenging for A) microscopic direct counting.
B) measuring turbidity.
C) viability counts with spread plating.
D) microscopic direct county, measuring turbidity, and viability counts with spread plating.
Q2) Explain the difference between the division rate and the generation time.
Q3) A microbe growing in a refrigerator is likely
A) psychrophilic.
B) mesophilic.
C) psychrotolerant or psychrophilic.
D) hyperthermophilic.
Q4) For most purposes of studying bacterial isolates,viable counting usually gives accurate information about the number of active cells present in a culture volume.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain our present understanding of molecular adaptations to the cytoplasmic membrane that are present in thermophiles.
Q6) Explain why a hyperthermophile is unlikely to be a human pathogen.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The science that applies powerful computational tools to DNA and protein sequences for the purpose of analyzing,storing,and accessing the sequences for comparative purposes is known as
A) metagenomics.
B) proteomics.
C) bioinformatics.
D) genomics.
Q2) A surprising finding of environmental metagenomic studies is that a majority of genes in the environment are A) from microbes grown in the lab.
B) viral in origin.
C) eukaryotic in origin.
D) from extinct microorganisms.
Q3) Recommend what type of data should be collected and analyzed in a systems biology approach to investigate how a non-pathogenic bacterial strain becomes pathogenic.Describe what scientific fields and methods would be involved in your recommendation.
Q4) Some virulence genes are carried on plasmids or lysogenic bacteriophages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Metabolic Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterium that either partially or fully catabolizes an acyl-homoserine lactone will likely disrupt
A) attenuation.
B) chemotaxis.
C) endospore formation.
D) quorum sensing.
Q2) The actual residues in a DNA-binding protein that interacts with DNA usually correspond to each other according to the amino acids encoded by the DNA.For example,a DNA sequencing containing AGC-AGA-CAG which encodes for Ser-Arg-Gln would likely have a DNA-binding protein with Ser-Arg-Gln bind to it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is the leucine zipper formed,and what is its function?
Q4) During chemotaxis,attractants increase the rate of autophosphorylation whereas repellants decrease this rate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using the tryptophan operon as a model,explain a transcription pause site and the formation of a stem-loop.
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral proteins are categorized as early,middle,and late.Early proteins typically are necessary for
A) production of viral mRNA.
B) packaging of DNA into the nucleocapsid.
C) copying the viral genome.
D) production of viral mRNA and copying the viral genome.
Q2) The use of ________ is the easiest and most effective way of studying many animal and plant viruses.
A) bacterial cultures
B) tissue or cell culture
C) live hosts
D) prophages
Q3) What genome composition makes viruses most susceptible to destruction by prokaryotic restriction endonucleases?
A) dsDNA
B) ssDNA
C) dsRNA
D) ssRNA
Q4) What are the potential advantages of lysogeny compared to lysis for a temperate virus?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Viral Genomes and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A negative-stranded RNA virus produces a complete positive-stranded RNA virus that serves as template DNA for other proteins in order to replicate the complete negative-stranded RNA genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Spindle-shaped viruses have been shown to infect only
A) Eukarya.
B) Bacteria.
C) Archaea.
D) plants.
Q3) Of the phage listed below,which creates mutations in its host genome via transposition?
A) lambda
B) M13
C) Mu
D) T7
Q4) Some virus shapes that infect members of Archaea are unique from other viruses that infect eukaryotes and bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most similar to lysogeny?
A) Hfr state
B) F state
C) F state
D) F' state
Q2) A typical mutation rate for a bacterium is in the range of 10 to 10 per kbp.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When damaged or single-stranded DNA activates the RecA protein,the RecA protein stimulates the cleavage of LexA.This results in
A) repression of polymerase V and activation of endonuclease.
B) activation of the Hfr system.
C) derepression of the SOS system.
D) increased transduction and recombination.
Q4) In transformation experiments using a variety of Bacteria,it has been noted that essentially all of the cells in a population can become competent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
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Chapter 11: Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What molecular mechanism/feature does site-directed mutagenesis exploit to introduce a mutation at a specific site?
A) flanking complementary bound nucleotides permit non-complementary base pairing
B) methylated nucleotides disrupt DNA polymerase's proofreading
C) nucleotide substitution when one is depleted
D) transposase-induced base pair changes
Q2) Describe the procedure used for colony hybridization and why it is useful.
Q3) What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than transcripts in bacteria?
A) Eukaryotic transcripts are not methylated but their genes are often methylated.
B) Larger transcript size in eukaryotes enables easy size-selection methods.
C) mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes.
D) Transcripts are the most abundant RNAs in eukaryotes.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a common step in creating a genomic library?
A) Fragment DNA into small segments.
B) Hybridize DNA sequences to form inserts of a target size range.
C) Ligate DNA into vectors.
D) Transform the vectors into a host.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The early energy reactions used hydrogen,which is a powerful ________ and could have been used to form ________.
A) oxidant / the proton motive force
B) electron donor / the proton motive force
C) electron acceptor / oxygen
D) oxidant / oxygen
Q2) The atmosphere of primitive Earth is usually classified as an oxidizing atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compared with today,the temperature on Earth during its first half-billion years was probably
A) considerably warmer.
B) considerably colder.
C) about the same as today.
D) about the same as today on average, but the diurnal fluctuations were much greater.
Q4) All unicellular organisms belong to the same domain of life.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whether an organism is classified as a photoheterotroph or a photoautotroph depends on its
A) energy source.
B) carbon source.
C) oxygen requirements.
D) carbon and energy sources.
Q2) How is ATP made by an acetogen during CO fixation?
A) Electrons from metal cofactors energize the electron transport chain and drive the proton motive force to activate ATP synthase.
B) Substrate-level phosphorylation of ADP occurs when coenzyme A is removed from acetyl-CoA.
C) It is made by substrate-level phosphorylation and a Na -translocating ATPase.
D) The energized CO-CH3 complex during thioesterification drives a Na -translocating ATPase.
Q3) When elemental sulfur is provided externally as an electron donor,the organism must attach itself to the sulfur particle because of the extreme insolubility of elemental sulfur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Functional Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Akinetes and hormogonia are specialized cells,found in some cyanobacteria,that facilitate nitrogen fixation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Cyanobacteria are united by their ________,but their ________ is very diverse.
A) physiology / morphology
B) morphology / physiology
C) ecology / physiology
D) SSU rRNA sequences / physiology
Q3) The ecological diversity of phototrophic bacteria is illustrated by the different ________ that allow them to perform photosynthesis in low light environments such as deep in the ocean,in various sediments,and in thick layered mats.
A) nitrogen fixation strategies
B) bacteriochlorophyll and photosystems
C) specialized stalked cells
D) endospores and resistant cell types
Q4) What is convergent evolution and how is it different from horizontal gene transfer?
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Chapter 15: Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even to a well-trained microbiologist,isolates of Streptomyces when grown on a nutrient agar plate can appear as though they are fungi.Describe key similarities of how these two unrelated groups can so easily be mistaken for each other,and then propose methods to conclusively distinguish between them.
Q2) Which of the following traits is NOT characteristic of Caulobacter?
A) abundant in aquatic habitats rich in nutrients
B) produces a cytoplasmic outgrowth (prostheca)
C) attaches to surfaces in nature
D) asymmetric cell division
Q3) Deinococcus radiodurans is capable of withstanding especially high levels of radiation,and the carotenoids they produce enhance this resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chlamydiae are MOST commonly transmitted throughout environments by insects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pseudomonads are aerobic,gram-positive,polar flagellated,bacillus-shaped cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cytoplasmic proteins of Halobacterium are
A) highly acidic.
B) highly basic.
C) generally neutral.
D) variable, depending on the species.
Q2) Proteins known as ________ function to refold partially denatured proteins.
A) histones
B) chaperonins
C) HU proteins
D) histones and chaperonins
Q3) What makes the lifestyle and genome of Nanoarchaeum equitans unique?
Q4) Which of the following metabolisms is NOT found in Archaea?
A) photosynthesis
B) chemolithotrophy
C) chemoorganotrophy
D) aerobic respiration
Q5) Most of the Archaea are phenotypically quite similar.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Detail the mechanism by which halophilic Archaea obtain energy from light.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Silica is a characteristic component of diatom and oomycete cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In contrast to bacterial endospores,fungal spores LACK ________ resistance.
A) chemical
B) desiccation
C) heat
D) freezing
Q3) Which statement is TRUE regarding fungal spores?
A) Conidia are asexual spores.
B) Ascospores are sexual spores.
C) Basidiospores are sexual spores.
D) Conidia are asexual spores, and both ascospores and basidiospores are sexual spores.
Q4) The earliest diverging lineage of fungi are the
A) chytridiomycetes.
B) zygomycetes.
C) glomeromycetes.
D) ascomycetes.
Q5) How does the genus Pfiesteria cause problems in both humans and fish?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When laser tweezers are used,the laser beam traps
A) isolated single-copy genomes.
B) a single microbial cell.
C) a single microbial colony on a plate.
D) multiple cells of the same type.
Q2) Metatranscriptomics and metaproteomics are favored over metagenomics when ________ is of more interest than ________.
A) gene presence / phylogeny
B) phylogeny / gene presence
C) function or gene expression / gene presence
D) gene presence / function or gene expression
Q3) Which approach would help to identify biologically produced sulfur in a sediment sample?
A) enrichment
B) isotopic fractionation
C) microautoradiography
D) microelectrodes
Q4) Describe what an ITS region is in the context of prokaryotes,and explain the significance of the ITS region for microbial ecology.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microbial oxygen-consuming capacity of a water sample is called its
A) chemical oxygen demand.
B) biochemical capacity.
C) biochemical oxygen demand.
D) chemical capacity.
Q2) According to bacterial abundance studies done so far on soils,the ________ represent the most abundant phylum.
A) Proteobacteria
B) Acidobacteria
C) Actinobacteria
D) Firmicutes
Q3) Microenvironments of soil exist where ________ concentrations greatly vary.
A) oxygen
B) nitrate
C) sulfur
D) oxygen, nitrate, and sulfur
Q4) In the context of nutrients,a sink is one that slowly releases a particular nutrient over time.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Nutrient Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would the result be when a soil is supplemented with S ?
A) dimethyl sulfide production due to mixotrophs
B) organic carbon production due to anaerobes
C) soil acidification due to chemolithotrophs
D) syntrophic utilization of sulfite
Q2) In the natural carbon cycle,carbon dioxide is returned to the atmosphere by the respiration of animals and chemoorganotrophic microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mercury-resistant bacteria detoxify mercury by producing Hg .
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how syntrophy helps explain why certain enrichments yield consortia and never an individual species.
Q5) How would Si depletion in the photic zone of the open ocean affect the biological pump and the C cycle?
Q6) Most chemolithotrophic bacteria that oxidize sulfur are aerobes.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbial plastics are composed of
A) polysaccharides.
B) polyhydroxyalkanoates.
C) polyaromatic hydrocarbons.
D) xenobiotics.
Q2) Water distribution systems contain
A) very few bacteria or other microorganisms.
B) biofilms that may harbor opportunistic pathogens.
C) numerous grazing protists that consume bacteria.
D) biofilms that may harbor opportunistic pathogens and numerous grazing protists that consume bacteria.
Q3) Pyrite (FeS )is common in bituminous coal and metal ores and is a critical component of the microbial leaching of ores and acid mine drainage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Secondary treatment may be aerobic or anoxic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is souring of crude oil and how does the petroleum industry control it?
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Chapter 22: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) Bacteria associated with plants fix very small amounts of nitrogen,therefore they do NOT contribute significantly to the global N cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which compounds serve as major sources of energy for ruminant animals?
A) acetic acid and glucose
B) acetic, butyric, and propionic acids
C) dimethylsulfoniopropionate, gluconate, and protocatechuate
D) glucose and sucrose
Q3) Which of the following is a common feature of primary insect symbionts?
A) accelerated mutation rates
B) extreme genome reduction
C) high A+T / low G+C content
D) accelerated mutation rates, extreme genome reduction, and high A+T / low G+C content
Q4) How is a bacteroid distinguished from a bacterial cell?
A) 16S rRNA gene sequencing
B) biochemical tests
C) cell morphology
D) 16S rRNA gene sequencing, biochemical tests, and cell morphology
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Interactions With Humans
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus produces ________,leading to fibrin clots that protect them from attack by host cells.
A) collagenase
B) coagulase
C) lipase
D) amylase
Q2) Which of the following hemolysins is a phospholipase?
A) lecithinase
B) Streptolysin-O
C) Staphylococcal -toxin
D) leukocidin
Q3) Clostridium botulinum cannot produce toxins in improperly preserved foods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The number of Vibrio cholera cells necessary to produce cholera in an exposed individual is drastically reduced if the individual is malnourished.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how diet plays a role in host susceptibility to infection.
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Chapter 24: Immunity and Host Defense
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Q1) Differentiate between T-cytotoxic (TC)cells and T-helper (TH)cells.
Q2) A woman is being treated for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).She has an increased risk of opportunistic infections.Based on what you know about SLE and the treatment for it,propose why she has an increased risk of opportunistic infections.
Q3) All the following can cause contact dermatitis EXCEPT A) jewelry.
B) latex gloves.
C) poison ivy.
D) superantigens.
Q4) A toxoid is an attenuated form of a toxin that retains both its antigenicity and toxicity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of these is often used as a prophylactic measure to protect a person against future attack by a pathogen?
A) antiserum injection
B) artificial passive immunity
C) vaccination
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 25: Immune Mechanisms
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Q1) ________ are cytotoxins produced by Tc cells that cause apoptosis.
A) Perforins
B) Granzymes
C) Phagocytes
D) Macrophages
Q2) A cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR and
A) a heterologous antigen.
B) a homologous antigen.
C) either a heterologous or homologous antigen.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) CD4 and CD8 proteins are used for in vitro tests as T cell markers to differentiate TH cells from TC cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plasma cells usually live for about one
A) week.
B) month.
C) year.
D) decade.
Q5) How is immune memory beneficial to a host organism?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Molecular Immunology
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Q1) Describe the signal transduction pathway that is activated when LPS binds to TLR-4.
Q2) Predict the consequence for an individual of a deleterious genetic mutation in the gene for TLR-4.
Q3) The main bonds present in the C domain of antigen-binding proteins are
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) intrachain disulfide bonds.
C) ionic bonds.
D) van der Waals forces.
Q4) In B cell selection and tolerance,if no signal is generated from ________ cells,the B cells remain unresponsive.
A) TC
B) TH
C) B
D) CD
Q5) Immunoglobins associate with the adapter molecules Ig and Ig .
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the effect of an antigen binding a membrane protein on adapter molecules?
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Chapter 27: Diagnostic Microbiology
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Q1) Obligately anaerobic normal flora are found in ________,which is an/are anoxic habitat(s)of the body.
A) the kidneys
B) the skin
C) portions of the oral cavity
D) the lungs
Q2) The component that enriches chocolate agar is
A) chocolate.
B) methyl brown indicator dye.
C) heat-lysed blood cells.
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) To detect antibodies in human serum,the direct EIA is most commonly employed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compared with other precipitation tests,agglutination tests are
A) more sensitive.
B) less sensitive.
C) about equally sensitive.
D) highly variable in sensitivity, and thus the sensitivities cannot be compared.
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Chapter 28: Epidemiology
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Q1) Which stage of an acute infectious disease occurs between the time the organism begins to grow in the host and the appearance of disease symptoms?
A) acute period
B) decline period
C) infection
D) incubation period
Q2) Which group of organisms is difficult to control through immunization because of their rapid and unpredictable genetic mutations?
A) vector-borne organisms
B) RNA viruses
C) Archaea
D) DNA viruses
Q3) The basic reproduction number of a pathogen
A) can vary during an epidemic based on infection control measures.
B) can be determined experimentally in the lab.
C) is usually high for pathogens that are transmitted through direct contact.
D) can be determined experimentally and is usually high for pathogens that are transmitted through direct contact.
Q4) Explain the concept of coevolution in terms of host-pathogen interactions.
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Chapter 29: Person-To-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Individuals who have an active case of tuberculosis may spread the disease simply by ________ uninfected individuals.
A) coughing near B) shaking hands with C) hugging
D) sexual contact with
Q2) Consider mumps.What is the causative agent? How is this disease spread? What happens in the body during the course of this disease? What type of immunity is conferred or used for this disease? Why is the prevalence of mumps in developed countries generally low?
Q3) In the context of the influenza virus,describe the mechanistic difference between an antigenic drift and an antigenic shift.Also indicate the result of each.
Q4) Explain the pathology,diagnosis,and treatment of gastric ulcers caused by Helicobacter pylori.
Q5) Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles,how each is contracted,and how each can be prevented.
Q6) Describe three antiretroviral drug types that are commonly used in highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
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Chapter 30: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following diseases CANNOT easily be controlled by vector elimination?
A) yellow fever
B) dengue fever
C) rabies
D) plague
Q2) Which disease(s)has/have been mistakenly diagnosed as measles or scarlet fever due to similarities in rash appearance?
A) Lyme disease
B) Q fever
C) rickettsial diseases
D) typhus
Q3) If you were exposed to a sick animal that was found to have negri bodies in its nervous system in a postmortem examination,how would you be treated to prevent disease?
A) passive and active immunization against rabies
B) antibiotics to treat Lyme disease
C) antiviral medication
D) observation to detect tick or lice bites
Q4) Using a specific example,explain the term "accidental host."
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Chapter 31: Water and Food As Vehicles of Bacterial Diseases
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Q1) Why is Staphylococcus aureus often described as an international picnic pest?
Q2) The U.S.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)regulates the concentration of Escherichia coli in public recreational waters as well as private swimming pools,spas,and hot tubs to minimize waterborne disease outbreaks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Escherichia coli is found naturally in the intestines of birds,humans,and animals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The MOST important potential common source of infectious disease is A) industrial waste.
B) arthropod reservoirs found near surface water supplies.
C) water.
D) human and animal wastes.
Q5) Gram-negative bacteria are responsible for causing MOST foodborne diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why are antibiotics of little value by themselves in the treatment of cholera?
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Q7) Why are enteric bacteria such as Escherichia coli common meat contaminants?
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Chapter 32: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungal and Parasitic Diseases
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Q1) You and your friends are hiking the Appalachian trail in North Carolina.You run out of water and your friends want to fill up from a beautiful clear stream in the middle of the forest.What precautions should you take before drinking the water and why?
Q2) Which of the following is considered an opportunistic pathogen?
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Trichomoniasis vaginalis
C) Candida albicans
D) Plasmodium vivax
Q3) MOST fungi are harmless to humans,although certain superficial infections are quite common.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Giardia cysts are able to withstand
A) chemical disinfection.
B) filtration.
C) clarification.
D) chemical disinfection, filtration, and clarification.
Q5) How does insect ecology and the life cycle of Plasmodium impact the epidemiology and pathogenesis of classic malaria?
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