Virology Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Virology is the study of viruses and virus-like agents, including their structure, classification, evolution, and methods of infection and reproduction within host organisms. This course explores the molecular biology of viral replication, pathogenesis, and the interactions between viruses and host immune systems. Students will examine a variety of medically and agriculturally important viruses, modes of transmission, techniques for detection and diagnosis, and strategies for prevention and control, such as vaccines and antiviral therapies. Emphasis is also placed on emerging viral diseases, virus-host coevolution, and the societal impacts of viral outbreaks.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) Microbiology is the study of bacteria,algae,fungi,viruses and protozoa. Most of these are single-celled,except for which two:
A) bacteria (some of which are multicellular) and algae (which are nonliving proteins)
B) viruses (which are not cells) and fungi (some have many cells)
C) protozoa (which are not made up of cells) and fungi (which are free nucleic acids)
D) bacteria (some of which have no cells) and viruses (made of many cells)
Answer: B
Q2) While a doctor may diagnose and treat a patient who presents with a disease,an epidemiologist
A) helps in the development and use of vaccines
B) investigates what organism is responsible for a particular patient's disease
C) figures out how to use microorganisms to clean up the environment
D) studies the frequency and distribution of the disease in the community
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Q1) Chemical reactions occur:
A) between elements that have magnetic repulsion.
B) rarely as very few elements have electrons in their outer shell.
C) during metabolism as they are necessary for making the substance of cells.
D) only in eukaryotes as they require a nucleus.
Answer: C
Q2) Chemically stable atoms are inert or less likely to form chemical bonds. What characterizes a chemically stable element?
A) has eight electrons in the outer shell
B) has the same number of protons as electrons
C) atomic number is equal to the atomic mass
D) forms hydrogen bonds
Answer: A
Q3) Water plays an important role in the chemical reactions in cells,including
A) denaturing proteins
B) stabilizing the primary structure of a protein
C) forming covalent bonds with proteins
D) breaking down large proteins into amino acids in hydrolysis reactions
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) A microscope in which light rays pass directly through a specimen is a ________ microscope.
A) bright field
B) dark field
C) phase-contrast
D) Nomarski
Answer: A
Q2) A compound light microscope can generally see objects no smaller than
A) a ribosome
B) a large protozoa
C) a small bacterium
D) a typical virus
Answer: C
Q3) The total magnification of a specimen being viewed with a 10X ocular lens and a 40X objective lens is
A) 4X
B) 40X
C) 400X
D) 4000X
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Bacterial ribosomes
A) have a sedimentation rate of 70S
B) Are made up of 30S and 40S subunits
C) have a sedimentation rate of 80S
D) Are made up of 50S and 30S subunits
Q2) Which is the correct ordering of cell wall components starting from outside the cell and going inward?
A) in gram positive bacteria: peptidoglycan, cell membrane
B) in gram negative bacteria: peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharide, periplasmic space, outer membrane, cell membrane
C) in acid fast bacteria: peptidoglycan, lipid layer, cell membrane
D) in gram negative bacteria: peptidoglycan, periplasmic space, lipid membrane
Q3) Which of the following structures is not normally part of a bacterial flagellum?
A) hook
B) filament
C) basal body
D) anchor
Q4) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) Animals (humans for example)are
A) photoautotrophs
B) photheterotrophs
C) chemoautotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
Q2) How is ATP formed from the electron transport chain?
A) charge difference of outer and inner membrane gives motive force to generate ATP
B) nitrates are used as their final electron acceptor
C) the last step involves H O to be split into O
D) all of the metabolites enter the Krebs cycle
Q3) The green sulfur and purple sulfur bacteria are capable of
A) carrying out photosynthesis
B) only obtaining energy from organic molecules
C) bypassing glycolysis for the Krebs cycle
D) metabolizing without enzymes
Q4) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) An obligate psychrophile would produce a turbid culture at ________ degrees Celsius.
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Q2) The pour plate method of isolating pure cultures
A) relies on the fact that liquid agar will solidify as it cools
B) is useful for growing microaerophiles
C) results in some organisms growing embedded in the agar
D) all of the above
Q3) When a bacterial cell divides into two new cells,the new cells are called
A) daughter cells
B) sister cells
C) son cells
D) father cells
Q4) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria don't continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days,can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4?
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Genes with different information at the same locus are called
A) chromosomes
B) homologs
C) plasmids
D) alleles
Q2) RNA polymerase uses ________ as a template to synthesize ________.
A) RNA, proteins
B) RNA, DNA
C) DNA, RNA
D) DNA, proteins
Q3) Amino acids move from the cytoplasm to the ribosome with the help of
A) mRNA's
B) tRNA's
C) siRNA's
D) rRNA's
Q4) A permanent alteration in the DNA of an organism is called a/n
A) mutation
B) hereditary marker
C) replicon
D) allele
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) RFLP's are the result of
A) treating cells with enzymes that remove their cell walls
B) fusing two cells together
C) genes being transferred by a virus
D) cutting DNA with restriction enzymes
Q2) "Specialized" transduction refers to the fact that
A) it only happens at specific times in the cell cycle
B) only specific bacteria take part as hosts
C) only specific genes are transferred
D) only specific viruses take part in the process
Q3) Bacteriocins
A) are resistance molecules found on plasmids
B) are inhibited by UV exposure
C) are growth-inhibiting proteins that inhibit strains closely related to the producer
D) only exist in eukaryotic organisms
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) To classify new microbes,modern genetic techniques are employed. Why would the evolutionary relatedness of genes (genetic homology)be more useful than morphology? How are ribosomal RNAs used to study evolutionary relationships among organisms?
Q2) In DNA hybridization experiments,DNA from two closely related organisms will show A) very little annealing
B) a high percentage of annealing
C) 100% annealing
D) it is impossible to tell
Q3) The science of classification is generally known as
A) nomenclature
B) taxonomy
C) morphology
D) dichotomy
Q4) Which groups of animals are not usually of concern to the microbiologist?
A) ticks
B) tapeworms
C) fleas
D) moth
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is not caused by a poxvirus?
A) smallpox
B) chickenpox
C) cowpox
D) monkeypox
Q2) Which of the following explains how DNA tumor viruses may cause human cancers?
A) viral proteins infect other uninfected host cells
B) viral proteins block the effect of tumor-suppressor genes which prevent uncontrolled cell division
C) viral particles infect sex cells and transmit the virions to offspring.
D) use viral reverse transcriptase to integrate the DNA tumor viruses into the host chromosome
Q3) Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by
A) host cell lysis
B) host cell rupture
C) budding
D) animal viruses never leave the host cell
Q4) Why was it previously believed that only DNA viruses can cause cancer? How can RNA viruses cause cancer?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Many protists have shells of calcium carbonate called A) exoskeletons
B) carapaces
C) tests
D) plastrons
Q2) Parasites are dependent on their hosts for survival. Which organism do you think is better adapted to a parasitic lifestyle,one that is virulent and often kills its host,or one that only causes mild chronic illness in its host? For vector-transmitted parasites there are two hosts involved in the lifecycle,how does that complicate adaptation to the human host?
Q3) Mushrooms,as well as the human pathogen Cryptococcus are classified in the phylum
A) Zygomycota
B) Ascomycota
C) Basidiomycota
D) Deuteromycota
Q4) Outline or illustrate in detail form the life cycle of the malaria parasite,naming the stages and the various host organisms involved. Describe another protozoa that causes human diseases.
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Microwave radiation
A) damages DNA by ionizing radiation.
B) destroys bacterial endospores.
C) produces peroxides, which oxidize molecules.
D) when tuned to energy levels of water releases the energy as heat.
Q2) Which sterilization technique would you use on pharmaceutical products?
A) autoclaving
B) ionizing radiation
C) ultrasonic waves
D) detergent
Q3) What is the most susceptible phase of growth for most microorganisms by an antimicrobial agent?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
Q4) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Tetracyclines interfere with
A) the effectiveness of birth control pills
B) transcription
C) patients with heart defects
D) metabolic reactions
Q2) A Candida albicans infection of the intestine,vagina or oral cavity is commonly treated with
A) cefotaxime
B) rifampin
C) streptomycin
D) nystatin
Q3) Because the tetracyclines are effective against a large variety of different organisms,they are considered to
A) be narrow-spectrum drugs
B) have a therapeutic dosage level
C) be bacteriocidal
D) be broad-spectrum drugs
Q4) Describe three mechanisms for antibiotic resistance. If exposure to antibiotics does not induce drug-resistant mutations to occur,why do we see so many more drug-resistant strains today?
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct pairing of a disease with its classification?
A) sickle cell anemia - degenerative disease
B) anemia - mental disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob - mental disease
D) emphysema - idiopathic
Q2) Attenuation
A) is the increase in the pathogenicity of a microbe
B) is the process that weakens the disease-producing ability of a pathogen
C) does not affect the capacity to produce disease
D) is the process that decreases the number of organisms that enter the body
Q3) The spreading of exotoxins from the site of infection via the blood is called:
A) septicemia
B) toxemia
C) colonization
D) adherence
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections?
Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Factors that increase the likelihood of an epidemic include all of the following except A) overcrowding
B) migration
C) lack of vaccination
D) access to medical care
Q2) The incidence rate of chicken pox in the United States
A) includes both old and newly diagnosed cases of disease
B) shows a pattern of pandemics
C) has been increasing for the last ten years
D) shows a seasonal variation
Q3) The total number of people infected within a population at a given time is the A) incidence
B) etiology
C) prevalence
D) morbidity
Q4) Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) Which statement about chemical barriers is false?
A) high salt content of sweat inhibits the growth of bacteria
B) chemical barriers include mechanisms to limit free iron
C) secreted defensins form pores in microbes' membranes
D) chemical barriers include acute phase proteins and interferons
Q2) All of the following are components of the nonspecific host defenses except
A) fever
B) mucus
C) antibodies
D) interferon
Q3) What is the body's first line of defense against microbial danger? Why are these considered non-specific? Why are these considered innate? Is non-specific a better description than innate?
Q4) What area of the body is drained by the right lymphatic duct?
A) upper right torso
B) right leg
C) left leg
D) upper left torso
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) The role of activated macrophages is to
A) produce polyclonal antibodies
B) produce toxic hydrogen peroxide and accelerate the inflammatory response
C) bind to the MHC II molecule and T cell receptor molecule not in the receptor site
D) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about antigenicity is false?
A) normal host tissue is referred to as self
B) foreign substances are referred to as non-self
C) all bacteria have antigens and are seen as non-self
D) transplanted organs have no antigens and are seen as self
Q3) The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed,thus producing tolerance in the host is
A) heterogeneity
B) memory
C) primary response
D) clonal deletion
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) Which of the following agglutination reaction terms is matched incorrectly?
A) seroconversion-antibodies found in serum after exposure to infectious agent
B) hemagglutination inhibition test-used to diagnose measles and influenza
C) Coomb's antiglobulin test-used to detect ABO blood group antibodies
D) complement fixation test-used to diagnose syphilis, pertussis, and gonorrhea
Q2) All of the following are Type III hypersensitivities except
A) granulomatous reactions
B) serum sickness
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) lupus erythematosus
Q3) In an effort to have a successful tissue transplant,the _____ of the recipient and the donor are matched.
A) IgD antibodies
B) Seroantigens
C) Human leukocyte antigens
D) two of the above
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Which viral disease is seasonal with incidence highest in March and April?
A) moluscum contagiosum
B) smallpox
C) chickenpox
D) human papillomavirus
Q2) Scarlet fever can lead to serious complications including A) glomerulonephritis
B) meningitis
C) rheumatic fever
D) two of the above
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of measles or rubeola except A) Koplik's spots
B) upper respiratory and middle ear infections
C) stillborn, heart abnormalities or low birth weight
D) red raised rash caused by T cells interacting with virus-infected cells in small blood vessels
Q4) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Chancroid is characterized by
A) a rash
B) a gumma
C) a painless chancre lesion
D) a painful chancre lesion
Q2) Which of the following groups has the most problem with UTIs?
A) females, infants
B) males, infants
C) females, over 60 years
D) males, adults
Q3) Cytomegalovirus causes
A) severe disease in fetuses, neonates and immunocompromised people
B) frothy, fishy-smelling discharge
C) painful bleeding lesions on genitals
D) warts on genitals and intense itching
Q4) Diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginitis is made by the appearance of
A) anaerobes in a microscope slide
B) clue cells
C) epithelial cells
D) endotoxin
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Otitis media is caused most often by
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) two of the above
Q2) Prevention of pneumonia is difficult because
A) the vaccine only protects against 23 strains
B) the vaccine covers all the strains, but boosters must be administered
C) there is no vaccine
D) the vaccine is only given to adults
Q3) Which of the following statements related to Rhinoviruses is incorrect?
A) Rhinoviruses grow best at 33 - 34 C.
B) Antibiotics are not useful in treating the common cold.
C) There are at least 113 different Rhinoviruses.
D) Rhinoviruses are very resistant to acid.
Q4) Lung fluke infection is associated with
A) Paragonimus westermani
B) larvae maturing in bronchioles
C) chronic cough, bloody sputum and difficulty breathing
D) all of the above
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which hepatitis decrease in reported cases in the United States since 1990 is not due to the introduction of a vaccine?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis C
D) two of the above
Q2) Staphylococcus food poisoning is caused by
A) enterotoxins
B) exotoxins
C) toxins that cause neural stimulation of the vomiting center of the brain
D) all of the above
Q3) All of the following are diagnosed by proglottids in the feces of infected patients except
A) Diphyllobothrium latum
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Balantidium coli
D) Taenia solium
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Which fever causes severe bone and joint pain along with other symptoms (headache,nausea,weakness,rash),its main vector is Aedes aegypti and vaccines are only available for two strains?
A) Yellow fever
B) Colorado Tick fever
C) Dengue fever
D) Ehrlichiosis
Q2) Which of the following is most prevalent during rabbit-hunting season and causes high fever,headache and buboes?
A) Francisella tularensis
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Borrelia burgdorferi
Q3) Which infection refers to inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart?
A) septicemia
B) rheumatic fever
C) bacterial endocardiatis
D) puerperal fever
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is an emerging viral encephalitis that has recently spread across the United States?
A) JC virus
B) rabies
C) mad cow disease
D) West Nile arbovirus
Q2) While over 90% of populations that live in closed environments (such as military bases,dormitories and day-care centers)are carriers,only 1 of 1000 carriers will have meningitis. This statement refers to
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Haemophilus influenzae type B
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae type F
Q3) What are the two vaccines developed to prevent polio? Which vaccine would be recommended for an immunocompromised child? How about in an area where it is difficult to get to and vaccine coverage is poor? Why are there still cases of polio in the United States if vaccine coverage is excellent?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The sulfur cycle is of special importance to
A) terrestrial life
B) Pseudomonas
C) proteolytic bacteria
D) aquatic life
Q2) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is
A) Escherichia coli
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Poliovirus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
Q4) In the phosphorous cycle,inorganic phosphates are converted to _____,a water-soluble nutrient used by both plants and microorganisms.
A) phosphorous
B) hydrophosphates
C) orthophosphate
D) betaphosphate
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following can be transmitted to humans who eat infected meat?
A) anthrax
B) Q fever
C) listeriosis
D) all of the above
Q2) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?
Q3) Canned goods
A) will not spoil unless they are dented or improperly canned at the factory
B) will not spoil because of the high salt content
C) will remain edible for years
D) have been subjected to dry heat under very low pressure but high oxygen treatment
Q4) Ionizing radiation has been used as a food preservative for
A) controlling microbial growth on fresh fish
B) killing insects in spices
C) reducing spoilage of fresh fruits and vegetables
D) all of the above
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