Course Introduction
Virology Practice Exam
Virology is the scientific study of viruses and virus-like agents, encompassing their structure, genetics, classification, evolution, and mechanisms of infection and replication within host cells. This course explores the molecular biology of viruses, the diseases they cause in humans, animals, and plants, and the strategies used by the immune system to combat viral infections. Students will also examine techniques for virus detection, prevention, and control, as well as current challenges in virology such as emerging viruses and antiviral therapies.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did Sergei Winogradsky grow lithotrophs?
A) enrichment culture
B) organic media
C) pure culture
D) endosymbiosis
E) chain of infection
Answer: A
Q2) Viruses are:
A) infectious agents that infect multi-cellular organisms
B) noncellular particles that take over the metabolism of a cell to generate more virus particles
C) pathogens that replicate in complex growth media
D) cellular particles that belong to the archaea domain
E) microbes that consist of lipid membrane enclosed genomes
Answer: B
Q3) How do microbes help in the extraction of minerals?
Answer: Several lithotrophic bacteria help in the rapid oxidation of minerals, which generates strong acids that expedite the breakdown of mineral ore. Currently, approximately 20% of the world's copper, as well as some uranium and zinc, are produced by bacterial leaching.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wavelength interference results in small observed objects (like bacteria) being surrounded by:
A) a capsule
B) a membrane
C) an Airy disk
D) a dark field
E) a cell wall
Answer: C
Q2) Why do some bacteria appear purple after being Gram stained, while others appear pink?
Answer: Gram-negative cells have a few layers of peptidoglycan cell wall and an outer lipopolysaccharide membrane. Gram-positive organisms have several layers of peptidoglycan and no outer membrane. The multiple layers of peptidoglycan retain the crystal violet-iodine complex, so appear purple. Gram-negative cells do not retain the crystal violet because there are few layers of peptidoglycan and the outer membrane is disrupted by the decolorizer.
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4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The partition that is a result of the inward growth of the cell envelope from opposite directions is known as the:
A) divisome
B) septum
C) wall
D) colony
E) Z-ring
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following represent components of eukaryotic organisms that help avoid osmotic shock EXCEPT:
A) cellulose fibers
B) chitin
C) silicate exoskeleton
D) contractile vacuole
E) peptidoglycan
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ cell loses membrane integrity and cannot carry out the simple transport functions needed to support life.
A) depolarized
B) endospore
C) planktonic
D) heterocyst
E) dormant
Q2) A cafeteria worker who fails to wash his hands thoroughly and fails to wear gloves inoculates a quiche with four E. coli cells when he uses his finger to test whether it is done. By the time you purchase the quiche, there are 128 E. coli cells in it. How many generations did the cells go through?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 32
E) 64
Q3) E. coli reprograms during the stationary phase. What are some of the things it does to protect itself?
Q4) How do scientists know of the existence of "unculturable" organisms?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) During the starvation response, most organisms can do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) retool transport systems for the uptake of different nutrients
B) form metabolically inactive endospores
C) protect against reactive oxygen species
D) protect against temperature extremes
E) protect against pH extremes
Q2) How does pH affect proteins? Why do proteins have an optimum, minimum, and maximum pH at which they will function?
Q3) Why are many barophiles also psychrophiles, and how are the adaptations for barophiles and psychrophiles similar?
Q4) What alkaliphile do pink flamingos eat and how is it involved in making the flamingo pink?
Q5) Piezophile is another term for:
A) acidophile
B) halophile
C) psychrophile
D) barotolerant
E) barophile
Q6) What is biocontrol? Describe two examples.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Icosahedral viral capsids take the form of a polyhedron with 20 identical __________ faces.
A) helical
B) filamentous
C) rectangular
D) triangular
E) asymmetrical
Q2) So far, the known mechanisms of replication and mRNA expression define how many fundamental groups of virus species?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9
Q3) The genome of __________ ssRNA viruses can serve directly as mRNA.
A) positive-sense (+)
B) negative-sense (-)
C) all
D) double-stranded
E) prion
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thermal stability of the helix is predominantly due to the __________ of the hydrophobic base pairs.
A) attraction
B) binding
C) repulsion and hydrogen bonding
D) stacking and hydrogen bonding
E) transformation
Q2) The ability of cohesive ends of DNA from different organisms to __________ forms the basis of recombinant DNA technology.
A) be methylated
B) be cut
C) base-pair
D) repel
E) be sequenced
Q3) Describe three functions of DNA polymerase III.
Q4) Describe two ways that the study of bacteria and their processes has led to the development of molecular biology and revolutionized genetics.
Q5) Why is replication of the lagging DNA strand a problem, and how is this problem overcome?
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Transcription occurs in the __________ and translation occurs in the __________ of a eukaryotic cell.
A) nucleoid; cytoplasm
B) cytoplasm; cytoplasm
C) nucleus; cytoplasm
D) nucleus; nucleus
E) nucleoid; nucleoid
Q2) Why is protein degradation necessary to maintain cellular health?
Q3) Similar genes within the same organism that have different functions are referred to as:
A) homologs
B) orthologs
C) paralogs
D) homogenous
E) synonymous
Q4) Where is f-met used as the N-terminal amino acid? What does that mean for the human immune response?
Q5) How do sigma factors regulate major physiological responses?
Q6) How does mRNA compare to the template and nontemplate DNA strand?
Q7) Where is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence located and what is it responsible for?
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bacteria requires artificial assistance to become competent to take up DNA?
A) Bacillus
B) E. coli
C) Haemophilus
D) Neisseria
E) Streptococcus
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a transposon?
A) ability to move around a genome
B) presence of inverted repeats at each end
C) the ability to transfer via a phage head
D) genes coding for a transposase activity
E) presence of antibiotic resistance genes
Q3) Spontaneous mutations can be caused by:
A) tautomers having altered base pairings
B) acridine intercalating into DNA
C) UV causing pyrimidine dimers
D) 5-bromouracil
E) alkylating agents
Q4) How is the Ames reversion test performed, and what is it used to determine?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) The little amount of sigma H that is made at 30°C is __________ by the DnaK/GrpE/DnaJ chaperones.
A) enhanced
B) activated
C) degraded
D) protected
E) folded
Q2) The stringent response down-regulates rRNA synthesis. Does it similarly down-regulate ribosomal protein synthesis?
Q3) What does the gene inversion in Salmonella enterica accomplish with respect to its course of infection? Briefly describe how this mechanism works.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a process regulated via quorum sensing?
A) pathogenesis of Pseudomonas infection in a cystic fibrosis patient
B) antibiotic production by Streptomyces
C) bioluminescence by Vibrio
D) utilization of lactose by Escherichia coli
E) exotoxin production by Staphylococcus
Q5) Explain the process of bioluminescence in Allivibrio fischeri. How is this an example of a mutualistic relationship?
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) The cell membrane releases mature HSV-1 virions through:
A) endocytosis
B) exocytosis
C) lysis
D) budding
E) slow release
Q2) Which of the following mutants provides the best tools to decipher the genetic pathways of cells?
A) point mutation mutants
B) temperature-sensitive mutants
C) nonsense mutation mutants
D) suppressor ribosome mutants
E) RNA polymerase mutants
Q3) Hepatitis C virus belongs to the ___________ group.
A) orthomyxoviruses
B) togaviruses
C) flaviviruses
D) coronaviruses
E) filoviruses
Q4) Why are capsids of icosahedral symmetry so common among viruses?
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) The electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) is utilized to monitor molecular interactions between:
A) two proteins
B) RNA and protein
C) DNA and protein
D) DNA and RNA
E) none of the above
Q2) The following is correct regarding operon fusions:
A) They expose both transcriptional and translational controls.
B) Both target and reporter genes have their own promoter sequences.
C) Both target and reporter genes have ribosome-binding sites.
D) Only the reporter gene has a promoter.
E) They produce a single transcript and a single hybrid reporter-target polypeptide.
Q3) In isolating acid-sensitive Escherichia coli using tetracycline-resistant transposons, why is it necessary to screen first for tetracycline resistance and then for acid-sensitivity?
Q4) Describe the use of a primary and secondary antibody in a western blot.
Q5) Describe the whole-genome DNA-binding analysis using ChIP-on-chip technology.
Q6) Discuss possible disadvantages of the yeast two-hybrid system.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) In the pentose phosphate shunt (PPS), sugars exchange short carbohydrate moieties to form carbohydrates with varying chain lengths. What metabolic mechanisms allow these exchanges to occur? What are the metabolic advantages of the PPS pathway?
Q2) In their work with soil bacteria, McInerney and colleagues have found microorganisms that display metabolic pathways with net \(\Delta\)G values as small as -20 kJ/mol. This is an example of:
A) the capacity of microorganisms to conquer a wide variety of environments
B) microorganisms contradicting the laws of thermodynamics
C) growth near thermodynamic equilibrium
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) In an amphibolic pathway, some enzymes:
A) work only in the biosynthetic direction
B) work only in the catabolic direction
C) work in both directions
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Describe the Entner-Doudoroff (ED) pathway. What are the advantages to microorganisms that display the ED pathway?
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Explain what kind of reaction bacteriorhodopsin performs and what it accomplishes for the cell. What is the name of the bacteriorhodopsin homologs, in what type of organisms were they identified, and what led to their discovery?
Q2) Enzymes transferring electrons at the start of the ETS are referred to as __________, whereas enzymes transferring electrons to the terminal electron acceptor are designated as __________.
A) dehydrogenases; oxidases
B) oxidases; dehydrogenases
C) sulfatases; nitrogenases
D) none of the above
E) all of the above
Q3) The chemiosmotic model does NOT explain synthesis of ATP in:
A) the chloroplast thylakoid membrane
B) the inner mitochondrial membrane
C) substrate-level phosphorylations
D) the purple bacteria thylakoids
E) inner membranes of Gram-negative bacteria
Q4) Describe Peter Mitchell's chemiosmotic model for coupling the electron transfer system with ATP synthesis.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following pathways is NOT a route for CO<sub>2</sub> assimilation?
A) reductive acetyl-CoA pathway
B) gluconeogenesis pathway
C) hydroxypropionate cycle
D) reductive pentose phosphate cycle
E) reverse TCA cycle
Q2) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Q3) Briefly describe how NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> is assimilated into biomass by bacteria.
Q4) Briefly describe the biosynthetic pathway for arginine.
Q5) Which of the following drugs is a nonribosomal peptide antibiotic?
A) erythromycin
B) penicillin
C) tetracycline
D) vancomycin
E) ciprofloxacin
Q6) What is the significance of finding polyketide-synthesis gene clusters in the metagenome of the sponge Discodermia dissoluta?
Q7) How is fatty acid biosynthesis regulated in bacteria?
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Q8) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is classified as a form of single-celled protein?
A) Porphyra
B) Injera
C) Spirulina
D) Rhizopus
E) Macrocystis
Q2) Why aren't bacteria usually edible as isolated organisms? What problems could occur if a person ate large quantities of bacteria?
Q3) Which of the following microbes is responsible for the flavor of Camembert?
A) lactic acid bacteria
B) Propionibacterium
C) Saccharomyces
D) Penicillium
E) Aspergillus
Q4) Compare and contrast the primary and secondary fermentations involved in winemaking.
Q5) Why are wines different colors if they are all made from grapes?
Q6) With respect to an industrial process, what are upstream and downstream processing methods, and how do they differ?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) In the domains of life, Archaea and Bacteria differ from each other in that:
A) Archaea contain membrane bound organelles; Bacteria do not
B) Bacteria can be extreme thermophiles; Archaea cannot
C) Archaea contain ester-linked membrane fatty acids; Bacteria do not
D) Bacteria start protein production with formylmethionine; Archaea do not
E) Bacteria have introns; Archaea do not
Q2) The temperature of water cannot drop below freezing and sustain life because:
A) macromolecules will break down
B) nutrients would be trapped in the environment
C) metabolic precursors will become crystalline
D) plasma membrane will freeze
E) metabolic reactions cannot be maintained
Q3) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to define a prokaryotic species?
A) phylogenetic relatedness
B) that members of different species cannot interbreed
C) the average nucleotide identity (ANI) of orthologs95%
D) DNA hybridization70%
E) SSU rRNA similarity97%
Q4) How could catalytic activity in enzyme proteins have evolved from catalytic RNA?
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) In sewage-treatment systems, nitrifiers such as __________ are used to remove toxic ammonia.
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis
B) Thiobacillus spp.
C) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosolobus, and Nitrosovibrio
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The phylum Deinococcus-Thermus contains organisms that thrive in very different environments. Compare and contrast Deinococcus species and Thermus species. Why are these organisms assigned to the same phylum?
Q3) How could nitrifiers be utilized in treatment of wastewater?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
A) Mycobacterium smegmatis-commensal on human skin
B) Mycobacterium leprae-causes leprosy
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis-causes tuberculosis
D) Mycobacterium leprae-grows in armadillos
E) Mycobacterium smegmatis-an important human pathogen
Q5) After reading the news of an E. coli threat in the community, your family and friends ask you, "Is E. coli a pathogen?" What would you answer?
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the Thaumarchaeota?
A) They are extremophiles that live in hydrothermal vents.
B) They contain mesophilic marine ammonia oxidizers.
C) They contain symbionts of sponges.
D) A and B.
E) B and C.
Q2) Which of the following species is aerobic?
A) Aeropyrum
B) Thermococci
C) Thermosphera
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Which is the model haloarchaeon?
A) Haloarcula
B) Haloquadra
C) Halorubrum
D) Halobacterium
E) Halococcus
Q4) What is the Ancient Archaeal Group and what is known about these organisms?
Q5) Why are the archaea so difficult to classify?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Heterokont is a grouping of organisms based on which of the following structural characteristics?
A) They all inhabit the same ecological niche.
B) They all rely exclusively on photosynthesis for metabolism.
C) They all have or have had pairs of flagella of different shapes and lengths.
D) They all have a bipartite shell called a frustule.
E) They all move with similar locomotive structures.
Q2) Amoeboid movement is controlled by:
A) cytoplasmic streaming into the extending pseudopodia
B) paired flagella formations extending off of the cell membrane
C) cilia structures surrounding the cell
D) regulation of osmotic and gas vacuoles within the cytoplasm
E) barophilic pumps within the cell membrane
Q3) You have isolated a novel fungus and are now growing it under laboratory conditions on two separate media. The first medium is a simple glucose broth and the second is a more complex broth containing pectin and starch. Will this fungus differ in its ability to acquire nutrients from the two media? Why or why not? Will this media difference affect the fungal growth?
Q4) Compare and contrast the two major groups of shelled amebas: radiolarians and foraminiferans.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Describe the steps in sequencing a metagenome.
Q2) All of the following may be found among the benthic microbes EXCEPT:
A) barophiles
B) psychrophiles
C) thermophiles
D) phototrophs
E) methanogens
Q3) In wetlands, Beggiatoa bacteria oxidize H<sub>2</sub>S for energy. Removal of H<sub>2</sub>S enables growth of other microbes for which H<sub>2</sub>S is toxic. However, Beggiatoa derives no benefit from these microbes. This interaction is an example of:
A) syntrophy
B) mutualism
C) commensalism
D) amensalism
E) synergism
Q4) Compare and contrast the photic zones of pelagic and freshwater lake ecosystems.
Q5) What is responsible for the high species-species specificity of the Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis?
Page 23
Q6) Define cryptogamic crust and explain its vital role in desert ecosystems.
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Which of the following reservoirs contains the most rapidly cycled carbon?
A) the atmosphere
B) ocean biomass
C) ocean inorganic molecules
D) land biomass
E) crust below land and ocean
Q2) Which of the following spontaneously ignites with a green glow as it emanates from the ground?
A) pyrite
B) nitrous oxide
C) dimethyl sulfide
D) phosphine
E) dimethylmercury
Q3) Discuss how human activities have perturbed the nitrogen cycle.
Q4) Which of the following is a macronutrient?
A) carbon
B) iron
C) zinc
D) phosphorus
E) nitrogen
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following can interfere with adherence of phagocytic cells to the pathogen?
A) polysaccharide capsule of Streptococcus pneumonia
B) lipid cell wall produced by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) leukocidin released by Staphylococci sp.
D) lipopolysaccharide of Gram-negative bacteria
E) ability of Rickettsia rickettsii to prevent release of lysosomal enzymes
Q2) Discuss two methods by which bacteria resist or evade killing by phagocytosis.
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding inflammation?
A) The cardinal signs include rash.
B) Some of the phagocytes are stimulated to secrete antibodies specific for the invading pathogen.
C) The response is the same for Hepatitis virus, Escherichia coli bacteria, and/or cellular injury to the body.
D) Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells occurs at the site of infection.
E) AIDS patients have little or no inflammatory response when they are infected.
Q4) Describe antibody-induced opsonization, the process in which innate and adaptive immunity work together to engulf an invader.
Q5) Why is acne able to be treated with antibiotics?
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Staphylococcal exfoliative toxin (exfoliatin A) reacts in the human body as a superantigen. Intoxication with this means:
A) polyclonal T-cell stimulation by overriding the normal route of antigen presentation
B) monoclonal B-cell stimulation without T-cell signaling
C) direct overactivation of T<sub>H</sub>1 cells, causing a T<sub>C</sub> cell response only
D) dramatic down-regulation in genes that control all cells producing pro-inflammatory cytokines
E) decreased antigen presentation by the antigen-presenting cells, followed by autoantibody formation
Q2) The inflammatory antibody of someone undergoing an allergic reaction to cat dander would be found primarily:
A) in the lymph nodes
B) free-floating in the bloodstream
C) bound to mast cells and basophils
D) in mucus secretions
E) attached to T cells
Q3) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis, but NOT for atopic asthma?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The likely mode of transmission of a bacterial disease in which incidence increases with a prolonged warm summer is:
A) direct transmission
B) airborne transmission
C) insect vector transmission
D) common source fomite
E) sexual transmission
Q2) Cholera toxin, produced by Vibrio cholerae, deregulates host cell adenylate cyclase activity. How is this accomplished?
Q3) Which of the following bacteria would you expect to cause the most severe blood disease in a susceptible host?
A) a rapidly growing encapsulated bacteria
B) a flagellated acidophile
C) a barophilic strain
D) a piliated slow-growing bacteria
E) a halophilic psychrophile
Q4) What is the rationale for designating disease-causing protozoa and worms as parasites, not as pathogens?
Q5) Diphtheria toxin is a classic AB exotoxin. How does it cause host cell damage?
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) A 15-year-old female was said to have Koplik's spots after a doctor's examination. This suggests that:
A) she has measles caused by the rubeola virus
B) no antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection
C) she has a toxin-encoding phage which also encodes antibiotic degrading enzymes
D) the causative agent is a MRSA
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue has limited access to the antibiotic
Q2) Thrombocytopenia is a decreased number of:
A) red blood cells
B) natural killer cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) phagocytes
E) platelets
Q3) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigen phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) One way a macrolide-producing organism, such as Streptomyces sp., prevents its own demise from production of the antibiotic is to:
A) methylate its own RNA
B) change its peptidoglycan linkages
C) create an MDR pump
D) change its DNA structure
E) only produce the antibiotic during the death phase
Q2) If a drug were designed that only seemed to affect the growth of Burkholderia pseudomallei, this drug would be considered:
A) broad range
B) uni-narrow range
C) slightly narrow range
D) extremely narrow range
E) species sensitive range
Q3) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
Q4) If a Staphylococcus aureas bacterium was to become resistant to a newly discovered antibiotic, what are the four basic forms of resistance this bacterium could have acquired?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) A serum antibody ELISA would be looking for which of the following in a person who is presumed to have a necrotizing fasciitis infection?
A) anti-group A streptococcal antibodies
B) antimeningococcal antibodies
C) group A streptococcal-specific antigens
D) enzyme-linked antibody
E) anti-group B streptococcal antibodies
Q2) A person exhibiting glomerular nephritis and rheumatic fever must have had what type of previous infection?
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Escherichia coli
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) How have changes within our human culture caused new diseases to emerge? Explain your answer using a specific example that supports your statements.
Q4) How can reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) be used to determine the presence and viral load of HIV infection?
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) List three typical problems faced by for-profit organizations that marketing can solve.
Q2) Asking customers how they can be better served is an example of a product mix review.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The marketing mix includes product, price, advertising, and media placement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The world's best marketing organizations assess their marketing strategies, make changes, and focus on
A) new product development.
B) customer research.
C) functional plans.
D) sales training programs.
E) cross-functional alignment.
Q5) Recognizing different sets or groups of customers based on their needs is called target marketing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) By offering food services at movie theatre complexes so that patrons can get a meal before the show, movie theatre companies are creating value by
A) considering substitute industries.
B) offering complementary services.
C) targeting multiple audience segments.
D) making an emotional connection with audiences.
E) creating partnerships.
Q2) In ethnographies, the researcher becomes
A) the secondary source.
B) the moderator.
C) the customer.
D) the marketer.
E) the interviewer.
Q3) In ethnographies, the researcher becomes a customer to learn more about customer needs and value drivers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How did Starbucks decommoditize the coffee industry and broaden its appeal to customers?
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) Customer segments differ not only in needs, but also in their willingness to pay for your goods and services..
A)True
B)False
Q2) Segmenting by market, not by product, is a common pitfall in marketing segmentation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although customer needs change over time, market segments tend to stay relevant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a survey of executives at 200 large firms, this percentage reported they had conducted a major segmentation exercise during the previous two years.
A) 14%
B) 25%
C) 42%
D) 59%
E) 70%
Q5) Explain why segmenting customers by demographic variables is rarely effective.
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) A SWOT analysis is the section of the marketing plan that determines what the data actually means.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The section of the marketing plan that addresses technological factors is the A) market analysis.
B) competitor analysis.
C) customer analysis.
D) marketing--sales linkage.
E) marketing plan control.
Q3) To identify key issues, a business has to identify A) customer needs.
B) opportunities and threats.
C) marketing strategies.
D) marketing-sales linkages.
E) objectives.
Q4) The American Marketing Association has identified achieving marketing-sales linkage as a crucial topic for any business to tackle.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) One of the steps in the brand-building process is
A) focusing on the core product.
B) focusing on product attributes.
C) creating a brand identity.
D) executing a sales strategy.
E) developing a pricing strategy.
Q2) While brand identity is strategic, brand image is what actually is achieved in the marketplace.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Too many similar brands can
A) erode brand loyalty.
B) increase profitability.
C) lead to economies of scale.
D) build brand awareness.
E) reduce operational complexity.
Q4) "Products" are synonymous with "goods."
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the steps in the brand-building process.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) Rolex watches are priced at a premium to match a premium brand position the company wants to occupy in the marketplace. This demonstrates the
A) price sensitivity of today's consumers.
B) relationship between price and personal selling.
C) relationship between price and the company's marketing strategy.
D) relationship between the price and distribution.
E) relationship between advertising and price sensitivity.
Q2) The biggest drawback of cost-plus pricing is that it does not take into account
A) fixed costs.
B) variable costs.
C) competitors' pricing.
D) the break-even point.
E) brand strategy.
Q3) Research has shown that when demand is lower than expected, managers respond with
A) higher prices.
B) static prices.
C) excessively large price drops.
D) increased advertising.
E) price premiums.
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) List the six steps in the channel design process.
Q2) Despite focusing on the brand, innovation, and product quality, the Lego Group of Denmark was in trouble because its channel strategy
A) offered too many channels.
B) focused only on low-cost channels.
C) had not kept pace with the changing environment.
D) did not have buy-in from the sales force.
E) didn't touch customers at each point.
Q3) An important part of any channel strategy is
A) mitigating conflict.
B) segmenting customers.
C) identifying new opportunities.
D) focusing on low-cost channels.
E) conducting customer research.
Q4) The cost of going to market (the combined cost of sales and marketing expenses across all channels) is often a company's single largest expense.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is it important for channel strategies to evolve?
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) The right encoding mechanism for the message
A) suits the needs of the target.
B) has a broad appeal.
C) is the least expensive channel.
D) is mass media.
E) focuses on short-term promotions.
Q2) The message should be simple, to the point, and differentiated because the target
A) may question and doubt the message.
B) may ignore the message.
C) will accept the message as given.
D) is distracted by competing messages.
E) is distracted by the channel.
Q3) Today's marketing communications objectives focus on
A) a broad audience appeal.
B) short-term promotions.
C) long-term brand health.
D) a mass marketing approach.
E) fitting in with the crowd.
Q4) Describe three of the guiding principles of integrated marketing communications.
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) Without a process to align the sales and marketing functions, the organization will not be able to achieve its strategic goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One reason the misalignment between marketing and sales exists is because
A) marketing and sales roles are clearly defined.
B) both functions share equal ownership of the customer.
C) they have different views on an organization's strategy.
D) a process has been put in place to link them.
E) they share resources.
Q3) Recognizing that its sales and marketing functions were not aligned, IBM introduced a new function called channel enablement. This function's role was to
A) conduct marketing research.
B) execute sales strategies.
C) track competitive activity.
D) mediate conflicts between sales and marketing.
E) focus everyone's attention on the customer.
Q4) What is the role of marketing in the buying funnel?
Q5) What is the role of sales in the buying funnel?
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) Organizations using a customer-centric approach focus on new account development and market share growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A customer-centric approach
A) emphasizes selling products to whoever will buy.
B) is transaction oriented.
C) is internally focused.
D) is relationship oriented.
E) highlights product features and benefits in its positioning.
Q3) One reason that many companies are not customer focused is that the concept of customer focus is hard to understand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is the customer who determines what a business is, what it produces, and whether it will prosper.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the four key building blocks of building a customer-focused business.
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) One of the ways that Air Products and Chemicals Inc. focuses on opportunities through its customer loyalty process is to
A) identify areas of weakness among its sales force.
B) segment customers based on a loyalty index.
C) prioritize sales strategies with business objectives.
D) identify and foster organizational buy-in on critical customer requirements.
E) place an emphasis on external communications.
Q2) Traditional segmentation methods do not work on the internet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A typical customer satisfaction survey measures a customer's intention to repurchase from the firm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Being more price-insensitive is a characteristic of a A) browser.
B) mission shopper.
C) loyal customer.
D) competitors' customer.
E) dissatisfied customer.
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) If there is a lack of agreement on marketing's role, then the efforts to institute marketing metrics will fail.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Marketing is only about activities that generate immediate sales.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first key metric in demonstrating ROI is
A) purchase consideration.
B) purchase intent.
C) problem recognition.
D) information search.
E) repeat purchase decision.
Q4) Marketing's inability to document its contributions can force reductions in marketing spending and influence a transfer of funds to field sales.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List three of the major external changes that have bombarded the discipline of marketing in recent years.
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