Victimology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Victimology is the study of victims of crime, including their roles, experiences, and interactions with offenders, the criminal justice system, and society at large. This course explores the historical development of victimology, theoretical perspectives on victimization, patterns and trends, and the psychological, economic, and social impacts of crime on individuals and communities. Students will examine victim rights, advocacy movements, support services, and public policy responses. Through analysis of case studies and current research, the course aims to deepen understanding of how justice systems address victimization and the ongoing challenges faced by victims.
Recommended Textbook Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct pairing of psychologist to their work?
A)Munsterberg - On the Witness Stand
B)Varendonck - La Suggestibilite
C)Von Schrenck-Notzing - Measurements of Accuracy of Recollection
D)Cattell - retroactive memory falsification
E)Wigmore - Kriminal Psychologie
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is the correct pairing of psychologist to theory?
A)Sheldon - strain theory
B)Eysenck - chromosomal theory
C)Akers - social learning theory
D)Hirschi - biosocial theory
E)Sutherland - dyscontrol theory
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the "general acceptance test"? What is the main criticism associated with this test?
Answer: -The general acceptance test is a standard for accepting expert testimony.It states that expert testimony will be admissible in court if the basis of the testimony is generally accepted within the scientific community in which it belongs. -This test formed the basis for admissibility decisions for many years in the United States; however,the major criticism associated with it comes from the vagueness of terms such as "general acceptance" and "the particular field in which it belongs" and whether judges are able to appropriately determine the scope of these terms.
Q2) What are the four specific Daubert criteria defined by the U.S.Supreme Court that determine when scientific evidence is considered reliable?
Answer: 1.The research has been peer reviewed.
2.The research is tes (i.e.,falsifiable through experimentation).
3.The research has a recognized rate of error.
4.The research adheres to professional standards.
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Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common personality test used in police selection is the IPI.What does IPI stand for?
A)Inbau's Personality Index
B)Inwald Personality Inventory
C)Inwald's Policing Index
D)Iterative Policing Inventory
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) According to Sheehan and Cordner (1989),which of the following are arguments for the use of police discretion?
A)Law enforcement resources are limited and full enforcement of the law would overwhelm the criminal justice system.
B)Most law violations are minor and do not require strict enforcement all the time.
C)Some laws are vague and ill-defined,which makes discretion necessary.
D)Full enforcement of the law would alienate the public.
E)all of the above
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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Q1) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q2) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q3) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q4) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
Q5) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q6) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q7) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) As related to police interrogations,Kassin and his colleagues (2003)discovered several important findings regarding investigator bias.Which of the following was not one of their conclusions?
A)Interrogators with guilty expectations tend to use a higher frequency of interrogation techniques compared to interrogators with innocent expectations.
B)Suspects generally have accurate perceptions of the investigator's expectations of guilt or innocence.
C)Neutral observers tend to view interrogators with guilty expectations as more coercive,especially against suspects who are actually guilty.
D)Neutral observers tend to view suspects being interrogated by an officer with guilty expectations as being more defensive.
E)Interrogators with guilty expectations tend to ask more questions that convey their belief of guilt.
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
Q2) List five background characteristics that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five background characteristics that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q3) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
Q4) Distinguish between deductive criminal profiling and inductive criminal profiling.Identify a problem associated with each method.
Q5) List the two primary goals of a police interrogation.In addition,describe the three types of false confessions that can result from North American-style police interrogation techniques,making it very clear how they differ from one another.
Q6) What is the equation specified by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990)that describes the process of criminal profiling? Define or explain each component of the equation.
Q7) What are the three main categories of false confessions proposed by Kassin and Wrightsman (1985)? Describe each and identify the circumstances under which each are likely to arise.
Q8) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to your textbook,what is the most common physiological response measured when administering the Concealed Information Test (CIT)?
A)palmar sweating
B)heart rate
C)blood pressure
D)eye blinks
E)none of the above
Q2) Dr.Parsons conducted a study comparing a group of individuals diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder to a group of individuals believed to be faking post-traumatic stress disorder in order to obtain worker's compensation.What type of study design is Dr.Parsons using to investigate malingering?
A)known-groups
B)simulation
C)case study
D)cross-sequential
E)cross-sectional
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Chapter 4: B: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q2) Describe the Concealed Information Test (CIT),including its purpose and general form.Also provide several criticisms or limitations of the CIT and why it isn't used as much as the CQT.
Q3) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q4) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Q5) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q6) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Q7) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q8) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q9) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
Page 10
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding age and eyewitness identification?
A)Older adults are just as likely as younger adults to make a false positive decision from a target-absent lineup.
B)Generally,there are significant differences between younger and older adults' ability to make correct identifications.
C)Younger and older eyewitnesses do not differ in their correct identification rate or false positive rate.
D)Overall,older adult eyewitnesses have more difficulty than younger adult eyewitnesses in making correct rejection decisions.
E)none of the above
Q2) What has not been identified as a limitation of the standard police interview?
A)asking brief,direct questions
B)mixing visual and auditory questions
C)asking questions in a random order
D)asking very broad questions
E)frequent interruptions
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Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the correct decisions associated with both target-present and target-absent lineups.Also,list the potential errors that can be made in the lineup identification process and whether these errors are known or unknown to the police.
Q2) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q3) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q4) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
Q5) Distinguish between recall versus recognition tests of memory as dependent variables in research.Describe how recall and recognition responses made by witnesses can be examined.
Q6) What is the cross-race effect? Describe the three common explanations as to why the cross-race effect occurs.
Q7) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q8) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect
Q9) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Page 12
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a study by Brown and Pipe (2003),approximately how much information was reported by 6- to 9-year-olds trained with the narrative elaboration technique compared to the control condition without training on the technique?
A)half as much
B)twice as much
C)three times as much
D)four times as much
E)no difference in amount of information reported
Q2) According to a 2008 incidence report of child maltreatment cases in Canada,the most common form of abuse substantiated was:
A)sexual abuse
B)physical abuse
C)emotional maltreatment
D)neglect
E)all of the above had comparable substantiated rates
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13
Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Q1) What is the narrative elaboration interview procedure? Describe how this procedure works and what the research on this procedure suggests in terms of its usefulness in interviewing children?
Q2) What are the five criteria identified by Lindsay and Read (1995)that should be considered when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
Q3) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Q5) Discuss the prevailing view regarding child witnesses from the 1600-1900s.Identify the four factors outlined by Ceci and Bruck (1993)that led to the renewed interest in child witnesses.
Q6) Describe the changes made to the competency inquiry with the enactment of Bill C-2 (2006).
Q7) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q8) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freda is serving as a jury member in a murder trial.She strongly feels that the defendant is guilty when she hears evidence presented that is similar to what she has seen on her favourite crime drama Law and Order.Freda's judgment is likely influenced by what psychological phenomenon?
A)The story model
B)Jury nullification
C)The CSI effect
D)Leniency bias
E)Polarization
Q2) In R.v.Darrach,2000,the Supreme Court of Canada decided that the onus is on the ___________ to show the victim's sexual history is relevant in a sexual assault case.
A)Crown
B)defendant
C)victim
D)jury
E)police officer
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15
Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q2) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
Q3) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q4) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q5) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q6) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q7) List four functions of a jury.
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent research suggests that the public's perception of mental health courts is generally:
A)negative
B)positive
C)ambivalent
D)undecided
E)dismissive
Q2) Of the few defendants that raise the insanity defence in the United States,about _______ are successful.
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
E)25%
Q3) In Canada,the following elements must be present for criminal guilt:
A)a wrongful deed
B)mens rea
C)criminal intent
D)actus reus
E)all of the above
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Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q2) What are three explanations proposed by Bland et al.(1990)for the high rates of mental illness in offender populations in Canada?
Q3) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q4) What is the name of the current insanity defence in Canada? According to the Canadian Criminal Code,what are the criteria for insanity? Assuming you are the Crown prosecutor,identify two situations in which you may raise the issue of insanity.
Q5) What is the relationship between recidivism rates and offenders with mental disorders,as studied by Rice and Harris (1992)?
Q6) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q7) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
Q8) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of Canada's newest sentencing options,introduced in 1996,allows offenders to serve their sentence in the community.This option is referred to as:
A)restitution
B)an absolute discharge
C)a conditional discharge
D)specific deterrence
E)a conditional sentence
Q2) Aboriginal courts in Canada are sometimes referred to as:
A)Gladue courts
B)drug courts
C)Bill C-41 courts
D)Gregory courts
E)restorative justice courts
Q3) What is the most common procedure used to study sentencing disparity?
A)field studies
B)archival studies
C)simulation studies
D)use of official sentencing statistics
E)none of the above
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Page 19
Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Q1) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q2) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q3) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q4) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q5) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q6) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
Q7) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q8) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q9) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the VRAG,which of the 12 predictors of violence listed below is the most predictive of violent recidivism?
A)Age at index offence
B)Diagnosis of schizophrenia
C)Psychopathy score
D)History of alcohol problems
E)Elementary school maladjustment
Q2) Which of the following is not a factor influencing the recidivism process,according to Zamble and Quinsey's coping-relapse model?
A)cognitive and emotional appraisal
B)individual influences
C)environmental trigger
D)available response mechanisms
E)none of the above
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21
Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and explain the three main weaknesses of research on the prediction of violence.
Q2) What is actuarial risk assessment? Provide two advantages and two disadvantages associated with this method.What new method of risk assessment was developed in an attempt to address certain limitations associated with the actuarial approach?
Q3) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
Q4) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Q5) Using structured professional judgment,you wish to predict an offender's risk of violent recidivism (and not general recidivism).Of the assessment instruments described in your textbook,which one would you likely use? Provide a brief description of your chosen instrument.
Q6) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
Q7) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
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Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the three-dimensional factor structure of the Antisocial Process Screening Device?
A)Meanness,deceit,coldness
B)Callous-unemotional,impulsivity,narcissism
C)Narcissism,Machiavellianism,psychopathy
D)Impulsivity,antisocial acts,family relations
E)Coldheartedness,self-centered impulsivity,fearless dominance
Q2) A diagnosis of psychopathy does fulfill the disease of the mind requirement but it has never fulfilled the second requirement of:
A)knowing the victim
B)not appreciating the nature or quality of the act
C)previously having been committed in a psychiatric institute
D)having spent a night in a psychiatric facility
E)having a diagnosed mood disorder
Q3) Psychopaths differ from other offenders in what way?
A)They begin their criminal careers younger.
B)They persist longer.
C)Their use of violence lacks an emotional aspect.
D)They commit a greater variety of violent offenses.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
Q2) Explain why most researchers believe psychopaths cannot be treated.Describe one well-known study that lends support for this notion.
Q3) Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous.What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request?
Q4) Discuss several of the reservations that have been raised concerning applying the label of psychopath to children and adults,and what research has found regarding these concerns.
Q5) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q6) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
Q7) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
Q8) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
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Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) What is not true regarding assessing externalizing problems in children?
A)Parents,teachers and peers may be interviewed.
B)Behaviour should be considered within a developmental context.
C)The duration,severity,and frequency of troublesome behaviours should be measured.
D)The child/youth may not be aware of his/her behaviour.
E)All of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the developmental trajectory of youthful offenders?
A)Early onset of antisocial behaviour is usually more trea and less persistent than a later onset of antisocial behaviour.
B)Most young offenders begin committing antisocial acts in adolescence rather than childhood.
C)Most children with behavioural problems go on to become adult offenders.
D)Generally,levels of aggression exhibited in childhood and adolescence remain fairly s with age.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Q1) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
Q2) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q3) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA).
Q4) Name the two types of adolescent offenders described by Moffitt.Provide two characteristics associated with each type of adolescent offender.
Q5) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q6) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
Q7) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Q8) Describe primary,secondary,and tertiary intervention strategies.Describe an example of each strategy.
Q9) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective. Page 26
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Violence Against Women Survey (Johnson,1996),the majority of women who left their abusive partners returned home at least once for all of the following reasons except:
A)for the sake of the children.
B)because the partner promised to change.
C)a lack of money or no place to go.
D)to give the relationship another chance.
E)emotional dependency on the abuser.
Q2) ________________ is a set of cultural values and beliefs that support the dominance of women,and are thought to contribute to domestic violence.
A)The male-emotional funnel system
B)Observational learning
C)Patriarchy
D)Marxism
E)none of the above
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28
Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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Q1) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q2) Holtzworth-Munroe and Stuart (1994)developed a typology of male batterers based on the severity of violence,generality of violence,and personality disorder characteristics.Name and define each of the three types of batterers.
Q3) Kropp,Hart,and Lyon (2002)have formulated a typology that classifies stalkers into four categories based on their relationships with their victims.Name and describe the key characteristics of all four categories.
Q4) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
Q5) Name and briefly describe the levels that influence intimate violence in the nested ecological model proposed by Dutton (1995).Provide one example for each level.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the three-phase cycle of abuse proposed by Lenore Walker (1979).Discuss what happens at each phase.
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Page 29
Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obtaining sexual gratification by watching others naked,undressing,or engaging in sexual activity is called:
A)fetishism
B)exhibitionism
C)voyeurism
D)frotteurism
E)necrophilia
Q2) According to Groth's rapist typology,which type of rapist has the intention to assert dominance and control over the victim?
A)anger
B)vindictive
C)power
D)sadistic
E)opportunistic
Q3) Evolutionary theories of sexual offending focus on:
A)the offender's ability to overcome a child's resistance
B)the offender's level of maturity
C)how sexual offending may be a way of enhancing reproductive success
D)childhood experiences
E)emotional dysregulation
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Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
Q2) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q3) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q4) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders.In addition,distinguish between the terms lapse,relapse,and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.
Q5) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q6) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
Q7) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
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Page 31
Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40529
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of homicide occurs with approximately half of perpetrators committing suicide following the murder?
A)Familicide
B)Femicide
C)Mariticide
D)Uxoricide
E)Manslaughter
Q2) What is one feature of homicides that is more common in homicides committed by youth than those committed by adults?
A)Being acquainted with victim(s)
B)Being drunk or high
C)Having an accomplice
D)Killing a family member
E)Using reactive violence
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true concerning serial murder?
A)Most serial murderers in the United States operate on their own.
B)Most serial murderers in the United States are male.
C)Most serial murderers in the United States are members of a minority group.
D)Most victims of serial murder are young and female.
E)both a and d
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Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40530
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q2) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q3) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q4) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers.Describe the four major types of serial murderers and their motivations.
Q5) What are the four main types of homicide recognized by Canadian criminal law? Discuss the features of each including the definitions and penalties.
Q6) Identify the three categories of juvenile homicide offenders outlined by Cornell,Benedek,and Benedek (1987)and describe the circumstances of their offending.Which type is the most common among youth killers?
Q7) Distinguish between serial,mass,and spree murderers.Discuss the key elements that distinguish these types of multiple murderers from one another.
Q8) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
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