Veterinary Pharmacology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Veterinary Pharmacology is an essential course that explores the principles of drug action, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in animals. The curriculum emphasizes the pharmacological profiles of commonly used therapeutic agents in veterinary medicine, covering their mechanisms of action, indications, contraindications, dosage regimens, adverse effects, and interactions. Case studies highlight differences in drug response among various animal species and practical considerations for safe and effective drug administration. This course equips students with foundational knowledge necessary for rational drug selection and responsible pharmacological management in veterinary practice.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Q1) What is meant by the term 'de facto direct-to-consumer advertising'?
A) When a professional pharmacy body advertises in a popular magazine about a particular medicine.
B) When a professional nursing body advertises in a nursing journal about a particular medicine.
C) When a pharmaceutical company provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
D) When a professional pharmacy body provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
Answer: C
Q2) A key feature of polypharmacy is:
A) self-diagnosing and medicating.
B) using many different pharmacies to purchase medicines.
C) the excessive or unnecessary use of medicines.
D) a reluctance to use complementary therapies.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Q1) Pharmacy medicines are substances that:
A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution, possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological dependence.
B) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
C) are provided on the order of persons permitted by legislation to prescribe and should be available from a pharmacist on prescription.
D) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
Answer: B
Q2) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess. C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Q1) Voluntary euthanasia involves the:
A) client's next-of-kin agreeing to an intervention that leads to the client's death.
B) client voluntarily and freely choosing to receive an intervention that leads to their death.
C) client being incapable of giving consent.
D) health professionals involved with the client's care choosing to administer an intervention that leads to the client's death.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the meaning of the term 'not for resuscitation (NFR)order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if they suffer a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q3) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1--3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
Q2) A nurse is allowed by law to administer a lethal dose of analgesic medication,when ordered by a doctor,to alleviate intractable suffering.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The target group for a medication review by pharmacists are individuals who:
A) are at risk of medication misuse due to age, social circumstances, complexity of their medication regimen, their health care status, and knowledge about their medicines.
B) are recommended to have a review by their general practitioner.
C) live in a nursing home.
D) live at home alone.
Q4) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Q1) Ointments are lipid-based preparations that act like an occlusive dressing to:
A) completely shut out the skin from the air but allow sweating to still occur.
B) partially shut out the skin from the air but allow sweating to still occur.
C) partially shut out the skin from the air and prevent sweating.
D) completely shut out the skin from the air and prevent sweating.
Q2) Suppositories,in general,when inserted into the lower third of the rectum:
A) always have a fast onset of action.
B) avoid the hepatic first pass.
C) are useful for ulcerative colitis.
D) are for laxative use only.
Q3) To avoid hydrolysis of aspirin tablets,the container should be kept in:
A) the bathroom.
B) the kitchen.
C) a coat pocket.
D) a cool, dry place.
Q4) Laxative enemas are hypertonic in order to:
A) draw water into the lower gastrointestinal tract to soften stool.
B) dissolve faecal matter to enable it to be excreted.
C) improve the fluid balance of the client.
D) bulk up the faeces in order to minimise diarrhoea.
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
Q2) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q3) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) Only one registered nurse's signature is sufficient for checking of documentation procedures of the following EXCEPT for:
A) blood transfusions.
B) orally administered drugs and intermittent intravenous drugs.
C) intravenous fluids.
D) once-only or nurse-initiated drugs.
Q2) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
Q3) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug Reactions
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Q1) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q2) A type A adverse drug reaction is:
A) a long-term effect that involves an interaction between circulating antibodies and a medication.
B) a delayed effect that occurs when a medication binds onto the surface of blood cells and induces an antibody reaction.
C) a predictable result based on the pharmacological profile of the medication.
D) an aberrant or idiosyncratic effect that is not predicted by the known pharmacology of a medication.
Q3) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)finds the number needed to treat with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300.This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:
A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
Q3) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is: A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.
Q4) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q2) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q3) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q2) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q3) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q4) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q2) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
Q3) To elicit a rapid systemic effect,the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral.
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q2) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
Q3) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q2) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria,sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q4) Some terms that describe interactions between drugs and receptors include: (Select all that apply)
A) antagonism.
B) agonism.
C) first mechanism
D) first messenger
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) The transfer of drugs from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation depends on the dose and physicochemical properties of the drug,and transplacental transport systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Into which medicines in pregnancy category is a drug assigned that has caused or is suspected of causing fetal harm,but not malformations?
A) Category B
B) Category C
C) Category D
D) Category X
Q3) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) Somatic gene therapy uses what form of cells?
A) Sperm cells
B) Psychosomatic cells
C) Somatic cells
D) Ovarian cells
Q2) A client that you are caring for has advanced kidney disease and is about to commence drug therapy.In order to maintain safe plasma drug levels,the prescriber might have to consider:
A) increasing the dosage.
B) decreasing the dosage.
C) increasing the frequency of dosing.
D) increasing the dose and frequency of administration.
Q3) One trial that clearly illustrated problems with gene therapy was among children with severe combined immunodeficiency. What was the serious secondary effect believed to be a result of this form of therapy?
A) Progression to HIV
B) Increased mortality from the initial diagnoses
C) Leukaemia
D) Heart failure
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
Q2) Which of the following would assist in medication adherence for the older person?
A) Simple medicine regimens
B) Use of medication aids
C) Improved communication
D) All of the above
Q3) Compared to a young adult,which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?
A) The rate of gastric emptying
B) Plasma protein concentration
C) Metabolic processes
D) Adipose tissue levels
Q4) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
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22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q2) Which of the following principles of emergency management is matched appropriately
A) Life support-gathering as much information as possible about the poison
B) Clinical assessments-ensuring a clear airway, maintaining effective respiration and circulation and addressing fluid or metabolic imbalances
C) Decontamination and detoxification-reducing the amount of poison absorbed
D)Neutralisation and elimination-providing hydration and electrolyte management
Q3) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
Q2) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
Q3) In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into the duodenum,an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be positioned:
A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position
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Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q2) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q4) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q3) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following adverse events are seen with dopamine administration?
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypotension
C) Nausea
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following effects will occur with \(\beta_{2} \) receptor stimulation?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Bronchodilation
C) Urinary retention
D) Decreased heart rate
Q3) A clinical use for \(\beta_{2} \) agonists is in the treatment of:
A) bronchial asthma.
B) hypotension.
C) hypertension.
D) nasal decongestion.
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Neuromuscular agents work on which receptors?
A) M<sub>1</sub>
B) M<sub>2</sub>
C) M<sub>3</sub>
D) Nicotinic
Q2) Stimulation of the M<sub>3</sub> receptors causes:
A) tear production.
B) urinary retention.
C) decreased gastric motility.
D) bronchodilation.
Q3) Which of the following receptors are activated by acetylcholine?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D) Nicotinic
Q4) Nicotinic agonists can be used in the management of:
A) tobacco dependence.
B) glaucoma.
C) smoking cessation.
D) peptic ulcer.
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q2) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q3) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q2) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q4) Antihistamines are used for the treatment of:
A) allergies.
B) anaphylactic reactions.
C) depression.
D) both A and B.
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for:
A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q2) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for: A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q4) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Q1) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?
A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most appropriate brain region
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as the initiation of skeletal muscle movement
D) A region involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement
Q2) One of the pharmacological issues associated with the widespread distribution of receptors for a particular transmitter throughout the brain is that:
A) the number of unwanted drug effects is low.
B) there is a need to develop more specific agents.
C) the drugs will not work on peripheral body receptors.
D) the receptors are all of the same subtype.
Q3) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Psychoses include the following conditions EXCEPT:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) severe agitation.
D) some forms of dementia.
Q2) An example of a psychosis is:
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety.
D) panic disorder.
Q3) Akathisia,dystonic reactions and tardive dyskinesia are extrapyramidal symptoms associated with:
A) antipsychotic use of some agents.
B) anxiolytics.
C) hypnotics.
D) tetracyclic antidepressants.
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Q1) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors,even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Buspirone
C) Barbiturates
D) Dexmedetomidine
Q2) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q3) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks
Q4) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Q1) Which of the following measures does NOT help to avoid the serotonin syndrome associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A) Co-administration of two SSRI preparations
B) Having a 'washout' period when switching drugs
C) Administering a therapeutic dose of a single SSRI agent
D) Tapering high doses of the SSRI agent
Q2) Which of the following practices is NOT associated with rational prescribing of antidepressants?
A) The use of a combination of antidepressant agents is the best way of treating depression.
B) When changing antidepressant agents, the patient should have a 'washout' period.
C) If one antidepressant does not work at therapeutic doses, the patient should be changed to another antidepressant.
D) Significant antidepressant benefit is not apparent immediately upon starting treatment. The prescriber should wait three to four weeks before assessing the benefit.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Parkinson's disease is a defect in the function of which transmitter system in the basal ganglia?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Which of the following is not an appropriate clinical management activity in relation to tetrabenazine therapy for Huntington's disease?
A) The client should avoid drinking alcohol with tetrabenazine.
B) Therapy is stopped if dysphagia or choking occurs.
C) If depression occurs, the dose of tetrabenazine is reduced or treatment is stopped.
D) The dose of tetrabenazine is reduced gradually over two days to prevent rebound involuntary movements.
Q3) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Q1) A seizure that manifests as muscle spasms of body parts in sequence is most likely a:
A) myoclonic seizure.
B) absence seizure.
C) psychomotor seizure.
D) Jacksonian seizure.
Q2) The therapeutic action of spasmolytic agents for epilepsy management is:
A) to increase muscle tone.
B) to inhibit muscular spasms.
C) to initiate the efflux of sodium from within cells.
D) none of the above.
Q3) Which of the following antiseizure drugs requires visual fields to be tested before commencing therapy and at regular intervals during therapy?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q3) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxycodone?
A) It has less of a hepatic first pass than morphine.
B) It has a shorter half-life than morphine.
C) It comes as a suppository formulation, which is useful for overnight analgesia.
D) It comes as a scored tablet formulation, which can be crushed and given with water to clients who have difficulties in swallowing tablets whole.
Q2) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
Q3) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
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Q1) The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.
A) tinnitus
B) renal failure
C) peptic ulceration
D) liver failure
Q2) Which micronutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate use?
A) Folate
B) Thiamin
C) Riboflavin
D) Pyridoxine
Q3) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
Q4) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Q1) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q2) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
Q3) Which substance enhances the absorption of ergotamine?
A) Apple juice
B) Sumatriptan
C) Dairy products
D) Caffeine
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q3) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q3) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an accumulation of lipid,collagen fibres and foam cells called?
A) Stoma
B) Atheroma
C) Sarcoma
D) Haematoma
Q2) High levels of which of the following lipoproteins can be beneficial?
A) VLDL
B) HDL
C) LDL
D) IDL
Q3) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of:
A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q4) An unwelcome but possibly benign effect of nicotinic acid treatment is:
A) petechiae.
B) constipation.
C) loose stools.
D) skin flushes and itching.
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q2) Which of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasodilation?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Endothelin-1
C) ANF
D) Vasopressin
Q3) Calcium channel blockers have which of the following effects?
A) Depressed cardiac contractility
B) Depressed cardiac conduction
C) Reduced vascular tone
D) All of the above
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as:
A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
Q2) The form of angina pectoris that is associated with coronary vasospasm is called ________ angina.
A) variant
B) exertional
C) classic
D) stable
Q3) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Q1) The antiplatelet agent abciximab is structurally related to A) calcium channel blockers.
B) a bacterial enzyme.
C) the ADP receptor.
D) a vaccine.
Q2) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
Q3) When a tissue is injured,the process of clotting begins.Which statement is true about that process?
A)Thrombin forms prothrombin.
B)The process is dependent on intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
C)Potassium ions play a crucial role in clotting.
D)Fibrin forms fibrinogen.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Q1) To avoid ototoxicity,intravenous (IV)frusemide must be injected no faster than 4 mg/min.If the dose ordered is 20 mg IV,how quickly can it be administered?
A) Over at least 5 minutes
B) Over at least 4 minutes
C) Over at least 12 seconds
D) Over at least 10 minutes
Q2) Metabolic imbalances associated with thiazides can be avoided by:
A) starting off with a small dose and titrating according to therapeutic response.
B) starting off with a high dose and gradually titrating according to therapeutic response.
C) administering the dose once a day.
D) administering the dose two times a day.
Q3) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Q1) Milrinone is an example of what type of cardiac drug?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Inotropic vasodilators
Q2) Clients who have renal impairment are at risk of developing ________ during treatment with ACE inhibitors.
A) hypokalaemia
B) hyperkalaemia
C) hyponatraemia
D) hypernatraemia
Q3) Adverse effects such as an unproductive cough and taste disturbances may occur from which category of medicine frequently used for treatment of heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Cardiac glycosides
D) ACE inhibitors
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of the cardiac action potential is characterised by the opening of the sodium channel activation gate?
A) Phase 0
B) Phase 1
C) Phase 2
D) Phase 3
Q2) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q2) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
Q3) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
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53
Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Q1) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
Q2) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
Q3) Which food is a natural source of folic acid?
A) Brussel sprouts
B) Chocolate
C) Limes
D) Barley
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about oxygen therapy is true?
A) Prolonged therapy with 100% oxygen can lead to toxicity regardless of underlying pathology.
B) Standard oxygen therapy for clients with long-term chronic obstructive airways disease will lead to hyperventilation.
C) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is useful in the care of premature infants.
D) Peak flow readings determine the level of oxygen therapy required.
Q2) Which one of the following respiratory illnesses affects approximately 10% of adult Australians?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q3) Which patient would most likely need a respiratory surfactant?
A)A premature infant
B)An infant born at term
C)A toddler
D)A preschool age child
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking: A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with: A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
Q3) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
Q2) In order to determine the effectiveness of Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy,which of the following tests is usually performed?
A) Gastroscopy
B) Barium swallow
C) Urea breath test
D) Gastrointestinal biopsy
Q3) Ranitidine is an example of which class of medicines?
A) Proton pump inhibitor
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist
C) Antacid
D) Prostaglandin
Q4) The use of sodium bicarbonate alone as an antacid should be discouraged because it can:
A) exacerbate pre-existing hypertension.
B) lead to rebound acidosis.
C) lead to the development of kidney stones.
D) inactivate antimicrobial agents.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Which bacterium is NOT known to be a cause of diarrhoea?
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) Clostridia
D) E. coli
Q2) In perianal disease,________ laxatives should be used to prevent straining.
A) stimulant
B) lubricant
C) bulk
D) softener
Q3) Use of which category of drugs would require concomitant treatment with laxatives or stool softeners?
A) Opioids
B) Oral hypoglycemics
C) Multivitamins without iron
D) NSAIDs
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q2) Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis.Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?
A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine
D) A hypnotic, midazolam
Q3) The coating of the gastric mucosa to protect it from acid and pepsin can be achieved with the use of:
A) cimetidine.
B) sucralfate.
C) misoprostol.
D) omeprazole.
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59
Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
Q2) At what rate are enteral feeds usually commenced?
A) 100 mL per hour.
B) 30 mL per hour.
C) 10 mL per hour.
D) 60 mL per hour.
Q3) What finding must be present in order to proceed with enteral feedings?
A) Bowel sounds
B) Normal blood sugar
C) Normal faeces
D) Sufficient kidney function
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pituitary hormones is a trophic hormone?
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Luteinising hormone
D) Growth hormone
Q2) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders
Q3) Ergot alkaloids are used to treat prolactin hypersecretion.Their mechanism of action is to:
A) activate dopamine receptors in the pituitary.
B) inhibit prolactin-releasing hormone from the pituitary.
C) increase the production of growth hormone, which is produced by the same cells in the pituitary gland.
D) act on the nipples to desensitise them to stimulation.
Q4) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
Q2) Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid hormones?
A) The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth
B) Glucose storage in the liver
C) The normal development of the nervous system
D) Normal lactation
Q3) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ideal glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)level is ________ per cent or less.
A) 7.0
B) 8.0
C) 9.0
D) 10.0
Q2) A drug group that tends to raise blood glucose levels is the:
A) anabolic steroids.
B) oral contraceptives.
C) NSAIDs in high dosage.
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Q3) An injection of glucagon would be appropriate for which of the following?
A) A person with type 1 diabetes mellitus who presents with a blood glucose reading above 18 mmol/L
B) A person with unstable diabetes insipidus
C) A person with drug-induced hypoglycaemia
D) A person with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has hypersensitivity reactions to metformin
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63
Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Prednisolone
D) Betamethasone
Q2) A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
A) hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
B) hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
C) nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
D) fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
Q3) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
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64
Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) Which one of the gonadal hormones induces effects that include increased libido,enhanced red blood cell production and raised basal metabolic rate?
A) Oestrogen
B) Testosterone
C) Progesterone
D) Inhibin
Q2) What is the efficacy rate for emergency contraception when used within 72 hours?
A) 70 per cent
B) 80 per cent
C) 90 per cent
D) 100 per cent
Q3) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q2) Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a serious adverse effect of which drug class?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Calcimimetic agents
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Calcitonin
Q3) Which finding would you expect to see with Paget's disease?
A)Hypocalcaemia
B)Hypercalcaemia
C) Decrease in osteoclasts
D)Hypervitaminosis D
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q2) Which of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) It is a product of pyrimidine-based nucleic acid metabolism.
B) It tends to crystallise at relatively low physiological temperatures.
C) Hyperuricaemia always results in gout.
D) Uric acid is very water-soluble in kidney filtrate.
Q3) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
Q2) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q3) Stimulant anorectics are only recommended for short-term treatment of obesity for a period of up to ________ weeks.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
Q4) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with a:
A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.
Q2) Which one of the following statements is relevant regarding antimicrobial drugs that are time-dependent?
A) It is important to measure peak and trough plasma concentrations.
B) The plasma drug concentration must be 60% of the maximum effective concentration for it to be effective.
C) An increase in dose will result in an increased effect.
D) The period above the minimum effective concentration determines the effectiveness of treatment.
Q3) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) Trimethoprim is best taken as a single daily dose:
A) in the morning.
B) at midday.
C) in the mid-afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Q3) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
Q4) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the indication for rifaxim?
A) Hepatic encephalopathy
B) Viral encephalitis
C) Hepatitis
D) Hepatic insufficiency
Q2) When a person commences therapy with tetracycline,they should be advised to:
A) cease therapy when they feel better.
B) avoid ingestion just before bedtime.
C) take it with meals.
D) regard abdominal pain as a tolerable side effect and not to bother their health professional about it.
Q3) How often should aminoglycoside antimicrobial agents be administered?
A) Once daily
B) Two times a day
C) Three times a day
D) Four times a day
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most active agent for leprosy is:
A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.
Q2) An antituberculotic drug with a sterilising action is:
A) isoniazid.
B) ethambutol.
C) rifampicin.
D) gentamicin.
Q3) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis,supplementation with ________ may be required:
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q2) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q3) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?
A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts
Q4) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) Which anthelmintic medication could also be classified as an antibiotic?
A) Ivermectin
B) Praziquantel
C) Tinidazole
D) Mefloquine
Q2) The species of malaria that causes the most infections is:
A) P. ovale
B) P. malariae
C) P. vivax
D) P. falciparum
Q3) A drug used to treat amoebiasis is:
A) vancomycin.
B) tinidazole.
C) lincosamide.
D) pyrantel.
Q4) Malaria can be caused by at least ________ species of Plasmodium.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) Enteric-coated capsules of the reverse transcriptase inhibitor didanosine,which can inhibit the replication of the HIV virus,should be taken:
A) on an empty stomach about 30 minutes before food.
B) with the midday meal.
C) with a fatty meal.
D) with a glass of milk.
Q2) What is a key difference between the common cold and influenza?
A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.
Q3) The only recognised use of foscarnet is treatment of CMV:
A) in otherwise healthy patients.
B) in pregnant patients.
C) in paediatric patients.
D) secondary to HIV.
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q2) The benefit of combining PEG with interferon is:
A) the dose interval is reduced.
B) influenza-type symptoms are reduced.
C) it can be produced by recombinant DNA technology.
D) it increases the activity of interferon.
Q3) Systemic candidiasis can be treated with parenteral:
A) amphotericin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) itraconazole.
D) terbinafine.
Q4) Tinea cruris is also known as:
A) athlete's foot.
B) ringworm.
C) onychomycosis.
D) jockstrap itch.
Page 76
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or bacterial infection,make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.
A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline
Q2) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
Q3) A clinical use of colony stimulating factors is to treat:
A) neutropenia.
B) some forms of leukaemia.
C) renal cell carcinoma.
D) chronic hepatitis.
Q4) The current hepatitis A vaccine is:
A) an inactivated virus.
B) a recombinant virus.
C) a capsular antigen.
D) a surface antigen.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are NOT Classic cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Colony stimulating factors
C) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents
D) Cell cycle-specific agents
Q2) Which of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors
B) Monoclonal antibodies
C) Radioactive samarium
D) Protein kinase inhibitors
Q3) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only be administered:
A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which topical preparation would be most difficult to completely absorb?
A) Gel
B) Lotion
C) Cream
D) Ointment
Q2) Children with eczema are more likely to develop:
A) skin cancer.
B) asthma.
C) verrucae.
D) alopecia.
Q3) Useful drugs in the management of baldness are those that:
A) act as oestrogen receptor antagonists.
B) stimulate the release of luteinising hormone.
C) inhibit the metabolism of testosterone.
D) have progestogenic activity.
Q4) Which non-drug product is considered the mainstay of eczema treatment?
A) Colloidal oatmeal
B) Coal tar
C) Emollients
D) Baking soda
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trachoma is associated with:
A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.
Q2) Which of the following drug groups can be used as mydriatic agents?
A) -blockers
B) Prostaglandin analogues
C) Muscarinic agonists
D) -adrenergic agonists
Q3) Which of the following is a drug group that is used in the treatment of glaucoma that decreases aqueous humour production?
A) Prostamides
B) Prostaglandins
C) Muscarinic agonists
D) -blockers
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Saw palmetto has been shown to be equivalent to which traditional medicine?
A) Finasteride
B) Oxybutynin
C) Tramadol
D) Metoclopramide
Q2) Tea tree oil has been proven to have a therapeutic effect for people suffering from:
A) acne.
B) vaginitis.
C) migraine headache.
D) osteoarthritis.
E) Breast cancer
Q3) Red clover should be avoided in individuals with: A) asthma.
B) breast cancer.
C) epilepsy.
D) clotting deficiency.
Q4) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
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