Veterinary Pathology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Veterinary Pathology is the study of disease processes in animals, focusing on the causes, development, and effects of diseases at molecular, cellular, tissue, and organ levels. This course provides foundational knowledge in lesion identification, pathogenesis, and the interpretation of pathological changes in various animal species. Students will learn to recognize patterns of tissue injury, inflammation, degeneration, and neoplasia, as well as to correlate clinical signs with pathologic findings. The course also emphasizes laboratory techniques, necropsy procedures, and diagnostic methods vital for disease investigation and animal health management.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old man who was on renal dialysis was admitted to the hospital for evaluation of nausea and vomiting. A gastric biopsy was performed. The gastric mucosa contained foci of amorphous, bluish (basophilic) material forming aggregates 10-20 mm in diameter. These aggregates were seen mostly in the stroma between the foveolar cells. No other abnormalities were seen, and the pathologist concluded that these changes represent evidence of
A) Helicobacter pylori infection
B) peptic ulcer formation
C) dystrophic calcification
D) metastatic calcification
E) apoptosis
Answer: D
Q2) Uptake of bacteria into the cytoplasm of neutrophilic leukocytes is called
A) Autophagocytosis
B) heterophagocytosis
C) exocytosis
D) pinocytosis
E) involution
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bradykinin is produced from a high-molecular weight kininogen circulating in the blood. This reaction is mediated by
A) coagulation factor X
B) kallikrein
C) Hageman factor
D) complement C3
E) protein C
Answer: B
Q2) C-reactive protein binds to the surface of microbes in tissues acting as
A) a caspase
B) a peroxidase
C) an opsonin
D) an anaphylatoxin
E) a membrane attack protein
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old woman fractured her leg, and a few days later developed a diffuse petechial rash in the nondependent areas of the body. She was short of breath and had minor neurologic symptoms. Laboratory studies showed thrombocytopenia. These findings are most consistent with
A) air embolism
B) bone marrow embolism
C) fat embolism
D) talc embolism
E) cholesterol crystal embolism
Answer: C
Q2) Which form of hemorrhage is most typical of defective platelet function seen in uremia (end stage kidney failure)?
A) Multiple petechiae
B) Multiple ecchymoses
C) Solitary ecchymoses
D) Hematoma
E) Hemarthrosis
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibody can most effectively activate complement by the alternate pathway, even without prior forming an antigen-antibody complex?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q2) A 10-year-old girl presented with lilac or heliotrope discoloration of the upper eyelids, muscle weakness, and dusky red patches over the knuckles, elbows, and knees. Which antibody was most likely found in this patient's blood?
A) Anti-histidyl-t-RNA synthetase
B) Anti-double-stranded DNA
C) Anti-single-stranded DNA
D) Anti-topoisomerase
E) Anti-ribonucleoprotein antibody SS-A (Ro)
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6
Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Germ line mutation of the Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) gene is associated with formation of retinal angiomas and
A) glioblastoma multiforme
B) oligodendroglioma
C) neurinomas
D) ependymomas
E) cerebellar hemangioblastomas
Q2) Homogeneous staining regions (HSR) of chromosome 2p, the site of the N-mycgene, are adverse prognostic signs if found in neuroblastoma cells. HRS are evidence of gene
A) deletion
B) amplification
C) point mutation
D) translocation
E) inversion
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone can suppress surfactant production in fetal lungs?
A) Cortisol
B) Estrogen
C) Insulin
D) Glucagon
E) Androgens
Q2) A 7-year-old child complained of frequent muscle cramps during play. A muscle biopsy revealed accumulation of glycogen in the skeletal muscle cells and a lack of muscle phosphorylase. Which form of glycogenosis is this?
A) Type I (von Gierke disease)
B) Type II (Pompe disease)
C) Type III (Cori-Forbes' disease)
D) Type IV (Andersen disease)
E) Type V (McArdle disease)
Q3) Which of the following diseases is caused by a trinucleotide repeat mutation?
A) Marfan syndrome
B) Achondroplastic dwarfism
C) Fanconi syndrome
D) Fragile X syndrome
E) Hemophilia B
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xerophthalmia and night blindness typically result from deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q2) Which is the most common preventable form of mental retardation in the United States?
A) Fetal rubella infection
B) Fetal toxoplasmosis
C) Fetal alcohol syndrome
D) Fetal cytomegalovirus infection
E) Fetal herpesvirus infection
Q3) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics is caused by a deficiency of
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppurative nail infection (paronychia) and abscesses of fingertips ("felons") are most likely caused by
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Schistosoma mansoni infection causes liver changes that present histologically as A) granulomas that also contain eosinophils
B) abscesses
C) suppurative cholangitis
D) centrolobular necrosis of liver cells
E) centrolobular fibrosis
Q3) Which of the following is a preventable cause of blindness in Africa?
A) Giardiasis
B) Onchocerciasis
C) Filariasis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
E) Schistosomiasis
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of vasculitis is typically associated with bronchial asthma?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q2) Aneurysms caused by weakening or destruction of the arterial wall by bacteria are called
A) berry aneurysms
B) fusiform aneurysms
C) saccular aneurysms
D) mycotic aneurysms
E) cirsoid aneurysms
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
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Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common genetic mutation found in congenital hypertrophic cardiomyopathy involves the gene encoding
A) troponin T
B) troponin I
C) -tropomyosin
D) myosin-binding protein C
E) ß-myosin heavy chain
Q2) Stable angina, the most common form of angina pectoris, is caused by A) stenosis of coronary arteries
B) Lipid-rich atheromas
C) ruptured atheromas
D) thrombi overlying partially ruptured atheromas
E) no pathologic changes in the coronary arteries
Q3) The most common location of atrial septal defects is in the area of the A) fossa ovalis
B) sinus venosus
C) septum primum
D) coronary sinus
E) supravalvular endocardium
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the United States?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
C) Mantle cell lymphoma
D) Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
E) Angiocentric lymphoma
Q2) Normocytic normochromic anemia, associated with low serum iron, reduced total-iron binding capacity, and abundant iron stores, as seen in the bone marrow biopsy, are laboratory findings typically found in anemia of
A) iron deficiency
B) chronic disease
C) thalassemia minor
D) thalassemia trait
E) vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
Q3) Which test is abnormal in hemophilia A?
A) Bleeding
B) Platelet count
C) Prothrombin time
D) Partial thromboplastin time
E) Clot retraction
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Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lung diseases is classified as restrictive rather than obstructive?
A) Asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Pneumoconiosis
E) Emphysema
Q2) Which one of the following lung tumors has the best prognosis?
A) Mesothelioma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Large cell carcinoma
E) Carcinoid tumor
Q3) Hyaline membranes in the alveoli of lungs affected by acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are composed of
A) surfactant
B) eosinophils
C) fibrin
D) fungi
E) collagen
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which kidney disease characterized by nephrotic syndrome, microscopic hematuria, and glomerular deposits of C3 complement and properdin is caused by an autoantibody called C3 nephritic factor?
A) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type II
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) IgA nephropathy
E) Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis
Q2) A 30-year-old heroin addict who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is hospitalized because of generalized edema. Laboratory studies show proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be diagnosed by a biopsy of the kidney?
A) Lipoid nephrosis
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) IgA nephropathy
E) Amyloidosis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polyps of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are best classified as
A) serrated adenomas
B) hyperplastic polyps
C) tubular adenoma
D) villous adenomas
E) hamartomas
Q2) Basal zone hyperplasia exceeding 20% of the thickness of the esophageal epithelium, accompanied by elongation of lamina propria papillae and by inflammatory infiltrates that contain eosinophils is a histologic finding most typical of which disease?
A) Reflux esophagitis
B) Viral esophagitis
C) Barrett esophagus
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E) Boerhaave syndrome
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16
Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obese 50-year-old woman, whose height is 5 ft 4 in (160 cm) and weight is 220 lb (100 kg), decided to lose weight. She lost 45 lb (approximately 20 kg) over a period of 6 months, and then had an attack of biliary colic and required a cholecystectomy. The gallbladder stones identified by the pathologist were most likely
A) pigmented stones
B) calcium oxalate stones
C) cholesterol stones
D) bilirubin carbonate stones
E) lithocholate stones
Q2) Ascending cholangitis is most often caused by
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Salmonella typhi
E) Ascaris lumbricoides
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17
Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
Q2) Which of the following genes is the most frequently mutated oncogene in ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
A) p53
B) K-RAS
C) MYC
D) RB1
E) SMAD4
Q3) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old man sees his physician because of painful enlargement of the testis. On gross examination, the tumor measures 4 cm in diameter and is dark red. Histologically, it is composed of mononuclear cytotrophoblastic and multinucleated syncytiotrophoblastic cells surrounded by blood and necrotic tissue. Serologic studies would most likely show that the patient's blood contains elevated levels of which of the following hormones?
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Androstenedione
D) Estriol
E) Inhibin
Q2) Nephrotic syndrome related to minimal change disease, combined with acute renal failure related to acute interstitial nephritis, is a well-documented adverse reaction to which of the following drugs?
A) Methicillin
B) Ampicillin
C) Rifampin
D) Ibuprofen
E) Hydrochlorothiazide
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old woman sees her physician because she has noticed a bloody discharge from the left nipple. Upon physical examination, there are no palpable masses in the breast. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this discharge?
A) Solitary cyst
B) Fibrocystic change
C) Acute mastitis
D) Intraductal papilloma
E) Carcinoma
Q2) A high level of expression of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN will most likely be found in which of the following?
A) Normal proliferative phase endometrium
B) Uterine ligaments
C) Complex atypical endometrial hyperplasia
D) Endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia
E) Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best characterized molecular abnormality in pituitary adenomas involves which of the following?
A) Cell surface receptors
B) G-proteins mediating signal transduction
C) Adenylate cyclase related cytoplasmic effectors
D) Nuclear receptors
E) DNA repair enzymes
Q2) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trinucleotide CTG repeat expansion plays a role in the pathogenesis of which of the following muscle diseases?
A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) Becker muscular dystrophy
C) Autosomal dominant limb girdle muscular dystrophy
D) Autosomal recessive limb girdle muscular dystrophy
E) Myotonic dystrophy
Q2) A 20-year-old man is being treated for a soft tissue tumor of the lower extremity. The tumor is composed of malignant spindle-shaped cells and epithelial cells that form gland-like structures. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Leiomyosarcoma
B) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
C) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
D) Synovial sarcoma
E) Rhabdomyosarcoma
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q2) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
Q3) Which of the following is the dominant protein component of neuritic plaques in the brain in Alzheimer disease?
A) Apoprotein
B) Tau protein
C) Neurofibrillin
D) Microtubules-associated protein 2 (MAP2)
E) A derived from amyloid precursor protein (APP)
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Chapter 23: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
Q2) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
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