Course Introduction
Veterinary Microbiology
Exam Answer Key
Veterinary Microbiology is an in-depth exploration of the microorganisms bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that impact animal health. This course covers fundamental principles of microbial structure, function, and genetics, emphasizing pathogen-host interactions and mechanisms of disease. Students will learn diagnostic techniques for identifying infectious agents, antimicrobial resistance, and strategies for preventing and controlling infectious diseases in companion, farm, and wildlife species. The course integrates theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory skills, preparing students for clinical applications and research in veterinary medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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40 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The X-ray diffraction studies by which of the following scientists concluded that DNA was a double helix?
A) James Watson
B) Rosalind Franklin
C) Francis Crick
D) Maurice Wilkins
E) Kary Mullis
Answer: B
Q2) Is it true that only culturable bacteria contribute to ecology? Explain your answer.
Answer: No, this is not a True statement. It is estimated that barely 0.1% of microbial species can be cultured. The work of Winogradsky and later microbial ecologists showed that bacteria are necessary for geochemical cycling. Many of these organisms can't be grown in pure culture on laboratory media, but can be grown in enrichment culture such as a Winogradsky column.
Q3) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike transmission electron microscopy, cryo-electron microscopy:
A) requires making thin slices of the sample to be viewed
B) does not require staining with heavy metals
C) may be used to view living tissues
D) uses a weaker electron beam
E) can provide a color image of the microbial cell
Answer: B
Q2) Fluorescence microscopy using labeled antibodies is referred to as:
A) immunofluorescence
B) autofluorescence
C) confocal microscopy
D) phase-contrast microscopy
E) dark-field microscopy
Answer: A
Q3) Microbes were detected long before the invention of the microscope. How could this be?
Answer: Detection is the ability to observe the presence of an object, such as when we detect a group of bacteria in a culture tube or growing on a surface like a food product.
Even though we can detect the group, we can't resolve individual cells without the magnification afforded by microscopes.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why can't most kinds of bacteria be eaten as a major part of our diet?
Answer: Prokaryotes in general have a higher nucleic acid content than eukaryotes. This is advantageous to the microbe in that it maximizes reproduction of its chromosomes, but is toxic to humans. We lack the enzymes to digest the uric acid waste product of nucleic acids.
Q2) Profiles of which component of the membrane may be used to identify certain kinds of pathogens?
A) lipoproteins
B) proteins
C) fatty acids
D) polysaccharides
E) leaflets
Answer: C
Q3) Light is harvested by protein complexes called:
A) thylakoids
B) carboxysomes
C) gas vesicles
D) storage granules
E) magnetosomes
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time interval required for the formation of two cells from one is called the:
A) generation time
B) growth time
C) growth rate
D) exponential rate
E) log phase
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about the substrate-binding protein (SBP) of the ABC transport system?
A) It is found in the periplasm of Gram-negative cells.
B) It is found tethered in Gram-positive cells.
C) It binds to the periplasmic face of the channel and releases the solute.
D) It snags the appropriate solute.
E) It is required for both the uptake and efflux systems.
Q3) The time between inoculation and the beginning of growth is usually called the: A) lag phase
B) early log phase
C) late log phase
D) stationary phase
E) death phase
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are some organisms able to survive temporary exposures to elevated temperatures?
Q2) ____________________ is one of the important signaling molecules that controls global gene expression during starvation.
A) Cyclic AMP
B) ADP
C) ATP
D) Glucose
E) Water
Q3) Microbes accumulate __________ in the cell to prevent cell water loss in a hypertonic environment.
A) water
B) proteins
C) sugars
D) protons
E) compatible solutes
Q4) Why are many barophiles also psychrophiles, and how are the adaptations for barophiles and psychrophiles similar?
Q5) Describe three mechanisms organisms use to reduce osmotic stress.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of virus particles released at lysis is referred to as:
A) lytic number
B) burst size
C) lysogenic number
D) temperate number
E) release number
Q2) An open reading frame corresponds to a series of codons that are translated to amino acids, producing a(n):
A) RNA
B) protein
C) DNA
D) capsid
E) envelope
Q3) Compare and contrast the Baltimore classification of viruses to the proteomic analysis of bacteriophages. Which more accurately reflects the significant impact of phage evolution?
Q4) How does genome uncoating occur with animal viruses?
Q5) Discuss the role that marine viruses play in carbon balance.
Q6) What is the viral envelope composed of? How does it differ from the bacterial cell envelope?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing involves __________ that bring about chain termination.
A) 2' deoxyribonucleotides
B) 3' deoxyribonucleotides
C) 2', 3' dideoxyribonucleotides
D) 2' deoxyadenosine
E) 3' dideoxyadenosine
Q2) The lagging strand is synthesized __________ , while the leading strand can be synthesized __________.
A) continuously; discontinuously
B) discontinuously; continuously
C) 5'-to-3'; 3'-to-5'
D) 3'-to-5'; 5'-to-3'
E) quickly; slowly
Q3) Intestinal microbes contain __________ times more genes than the human genome?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 50
D) 100
E) 1,000
9
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The general secretion complex known as the SecYEG translocon is found in the:
A) nucleus
B) inner membrane
C) cell wall
D) periplasmic space
E) outer membrane
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to a discipline involving comparison of genes of different species?
A) annotation
B) bioinformatics
C) open reading frames (ORFs)
D) sequence homology
E) computer analysis
Q3) Which of the following is a ribozyme?
A) Clp protease
B) release factor
C) trigger factor
D) peptidyl transferase
E) aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
Q4) What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) In order to transfer, an F factor must have which of the following?
A) oriV and its own DNA polymerase
B) oriV and tra genes
C) oriT and tra genes
D) oriT and its own DNA polymerase
E) oriT, tra genes, and its own DNA polymerase
Q2) Which of the following forms of DNA repair is error-prone?
A) base excision
B) methyl mismatch
C) SOS repair
D) nucleotide excision
E) photoreactivation
Q3) During conjugation the DNA passes through the __________, NOT the __________.
A) membranes; pilus
B) pilus; membranes
C) pilus; phage
D) phage; pilus
E) F factor; phage
11
Q4) Describe two processes that may happen during the evolution towards pathogenicity.
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) In the regulation of chemotaxis, proteins are modified in which of the following ways?
A) phosphorylations
B) methylation
C) feedback inhibition
D) phosphorylation and methylation
E) feedback inhibition, phosphorylation, and methylation
Q2) Which form of control is the most rapid?
A) alterations of DNA sequence
B) control of transcription via activators and repressors
C) mRNA stability
D) translational control
E) use of various sigma factors
Q3) Which molecule is used for hybridization to DNA bound on a DNA microchip?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) mRNA
D) cDNA
E) any of the above
Q4) What is diauxic growth and why does it occur?
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) During latent herpes virus infections:
A) the virus produces early proteins but not late proteins
B) a latency-associated transcript is produced
C) no viral transcription occurs
D) virus DNA is integrated into host DNA
E) cell transcription machinery is silenced
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a picornavirus?
A) poliovirus
B) coxsackievirus
C) influenza virus
D) rhinovirus
E) aphthovirus
Q3) How can viruses be used to treat cancer? What are some features the viruses must have to be used in cancer therapy?
Q4) Describe retroelements that are found in the human genome. How do endogenous retroviruses and retrotransposons differ?
Q5) Why is it difficult to visualize the hepatitis C virus (HCV), even by transmission electron microscopy (TEM) and scanning electron microscopy (SEM)?
Q6) Describe the replication cycle of HIV.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) What is the basis for the use of the Bt toxin as an insecticide? What are some of the beneficial aspects of using Bt?
Q2) In the first stage of the western blot procedure, a technique known as SDS-PAGE is used to separate proteins according to:
A) their isoelectric point
B) their quaternary structure
C) their molecular weight
D) their amino acid sequence
E) their secondary structure composition
Q3) How is the concept of "logic gates" used in synthetic biology?
Q4) What is synthetic biology? Provide an example of its potential applications.
Q5) A protein of interest can be specifically detected on western blots; this technique requires:
A) primary antibodies produced against the protein under study
B) an enzyme-tagged secondary antibody, directed against the primary antibody
C) an easily detectable product formed by the enzyme in the tagged secondary antibody
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) The greatest amount of reduced coenzyme NADH + H<sup>+</sup> is produced during which stage of aerobic respiration?
A) glycolysis
B) pyruvate conversion to acetyl-S-CoA
C) tricarboxylic acid cycle
D) glyoxylate bypass
E) oxidative phosphorylation
Q2) Oxidative catabolism of toluene and other benzene derivatives proceeds through: A) benzoyl-S-CoA
B) aniline
C) catechols
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Glucose is activated by __________ phosphorylation(s) by ATP during the first stage of the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) none of the above
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) The F<sub>o</sub> portion of Escherichia coli ATP synthase that rotates while translocating protons is:
A) the \(\gamma\) drive shaft
B) the \(\alpha\) proton channel
C) a ring of 12 c subunits
D) an \(\alpha\)\(\beta\)-subunit
E) none of the above
Q2) In oxygenic photosynthesis, __________ is the electron donor, whereas in anaerobic photosynthesis it can be succinate or __________.
A) H<sub>2</sub>S; S<sup>0</sup>
B) O<sub>2;</sub> H<sub>2</sub>
C) O<sub>2;</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O
D) H<sub>2</sub>O; H<sub>2</sub>S
E) all of the above
Q3) What is the chromophore group in bacteriorhodopsin?
A) tocopherol
B) \(\beta\)-carotene
C) folic acid
D) retinal
E) none of the above
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most sensitive method to determine the presence of an isotope such as <sup>14</sup>C in a sample?
A) nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy
B) radioactive decay
C) mass spectroscopy
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Q3) Which of the following molecules provides a way to simultaneously assimilate one carbon atom and one nitrogen atom during purine biosynthesis?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) acetyl-ACP
C) malonyl-ACP
D) carbamoyl phosphate
E) NADPH
Q4) Tryptophan is among the so-called essential amino acids for humans, as we cannot produce it ourselves. Briefly describe tryptophan biosynthesis in bacteria. Why is it so energetically expensive to synthesize this aromatic amino acid?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of fungal fruiting bodies?
A) They ferment and spoil fruits.
B) They are poisonous to eat.
C) They produce antibiotics.
D) They generate spores.
E) They transfer genes to plants.
Q2) Why is it better nutritionally to ferment soybeans than to consume them without fermenting?
Q3) Alkaline fermentations raise pH through the catabolism of:
A) lipids
B) proteins
C) sugars
D) nucleic acids
E) starches
Q4) What categories of foods may be spoiled by psychrotrophs? Why are these organisms a particular problem with fish?
Q5) Why is Agrobacterium used in genetic engineering of plants? Briefly explain the Agrobacterium expression system.
Q6) What is pidan and how is it made?
Q7) What makes a company dealing with industrial microbiology a success?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Explain how banded iron formations could arise in the geologic record due to photoferrotrophy.
Q2) Molecular clocks use genes that:
A) code for TCA cycle enzymes
B) are found primarily on plasmid DNA
C) are involved in transcription and translation
D) are acquired though transduction
E) encode enzymes for glycolysis
Q3) Human diseases caused by defective mitochondrial DNA include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) sickle cell anemia
B) forms of ataxia
C) motor neuron disease
D) Parkinson's disease
E) All of the above are caused by defective mitochondrial DNA.
Q4) All life on Earth has been categorized into three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. There are many differences within each of these domains but all share some similarities. List four features that all cells of Earth share, regardless of which domain they belong to.
Q5) How could catalytic activity in enzyme proteins have evolved from catalytic RNA?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) How could Dehalobacter restrictus be used in bioremediation?
A) It respires by donating electrons to Cl atoms in tetrachloroethene, used in dry cleaning.
B) It is an anaerobe that quickly digests plastics in landfills.
C) It catabolizes aromatic compounds by reductive degradation.
D) It removes salt from salt marshes.
E) It is not applicable for use in bioremediation.
Q2) Bacteria in the genera __________ produce durable endospores that remain viable for millennia.
A) Carboxydothermus and Listeri
B) Lactobacillus and Streptococcus
C) Bacillus and Clostridium
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Why is it that the deep-branching thermophiles may appear to have diverged from other bacteria earlier than they actually did?
Q4) What bacterial groups use actin as a means to leave their host cells? What advantage does this type of cellular invasion provide to intracellular pathogens?
Q5) Describe the metabolic characteristics of Chlorobium species.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Where are methanogens found in nature? What are some of the problems they can cause in these habitats?
Q2) The thaumarcheal ammonia oxidizers contribute to the global cycling of:
A) phosphorus B) nitrogen C) sulfur D) oxygen E) hydrogen
Q3) The Sulfolobus species maintains an internal pH __________ that of its habitat. A) equivalent to B) higher than C) lower than D) variable enough that it cannot be measured against E) none of the above
Q4) Why has Sulfolobus been studied so much more extensively than many archaea, and what is known about it?
Q5) Discuss the role of the four different types of rhodopsins found in the Halobacterium species (bacteriorhodopsin, halorhodopsin, and sensory rhodopsins I and II).
Q6) What is the Ancient Archaeal Group and what is known about these organisms?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following could be classified in the clade Opisthokonta?
A) microsporidia
B) land plants
C) diatoms
D) slime molds
E) brown algae
Q2) The Rhodophyta algae Porphyra is known to colonize aquatic environments deeper than the Chlorophyta algae Spirogyra; why is this and what advantages does Porphyra have by claiming this niche?
Q3) Schizogony refers to which life-cycle stage in Plasmodium falciparum?
A) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; found in mosquito stage
B) mitotic reproduction to achieve large population within host; found in liver stage and RBC stage
C) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; found in RBC stage
D) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; found in RBC stage
E) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; found in mosquito stage
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) The depth of the photic zone in the coastal shelf of marine habitats is:
A) 100-200 m
B) 10-20 m
C) about 1 m
D) about 0.1 m
E) about 2 m
Q2) The vast majority of microbes in the ocean are:
A) psychrophiles
B) thermophiles
C) mesophiles
D) acidophiles
E) osmophiles
Q3) Define cryptogamic crust and explain its vital role in desert ecosystems.
Q4) Cryptogamic "soils" are found in dry, hot deserts. Which of the following is NOT true of cryptogamic crusts?
A) They develop very slowly.
B) They are made of lichens, mosses, and other algae and fungi.
C) They are quite resilient and not easily killed.
D) They play a vital role in protecting seeds for germination.
E) They help to prevent erosion in desert ecosystems.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Predict the relative levels of biological oxygen demand (BOD) of water flowing into and out of a municipal wastewater treatment plant. Why is this difference desirable?
Q2) Describe the wetland system set up by a hog farmer to treat his hog-farm waste.
Q3) How are wetlands similar to or different from commercial wastewater treatment plants?
Q4) Which of the following is a major concern regarding biogeochemical and industrial sources of atmospheric sulfur?
A) greenhouse effect
B) acid rain
C) ozone depletion
D) inhibition of photosynthesis
E) odor production
Q5) Which of the following is NOT an example of a reduced form of carbon in the carbon cycle?
A) methane
B) biomass
C) hydrocarbons
D) carbon dioxide
E) methanol
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Why is acne able to be treated with antibiotics?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT associated with the oxidative burst employed by phagocytic cells to kill bacteria?
A) hydrogen peroxide
B) oxygen radicals
C) NADPH oxidase
D) catalase
E) nitric oxide
Q3) How would you explain the distinguishing characteristics of innate and adaptive immunity?
Q4) Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial:
A) cell membrane
B) capsule
C) cell wall
D) DNA
E) ribosomes
Q5) Explain how differences in gut microbiota can account for obesity and leanness in humans.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Of the following cells, which could be considered a "professional" antigen-presenting cell?
A) neutrophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) natural killer cell
D) dendritic cell
E) fibroblast
Q2) The five classes of antibodies (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, and IgD) that can be produced during an immune response are based on:
A) differences in C<sub>L</sub> chain regions
B) differences in V<sub>H</sub> chain regions
C) differences in C<sub>H</sub> chain regions
D) differences in V<sub>L</sub> chain regions
E) differences in all constant and variable chain regions
Q3) How can a person who has taken penicillin for a childhood ear infection later develop an allergy to penicillin when prescribed that drug again?
Q4) If a person was unable to undergo negative selection during T-cell education, what is T-cell education and why would this be a severe immune problem?
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) What are ubiquitination signals? Describe how a microbe can redirect these signals for its own purposes.
Q2) Protein A helps Staphylococcus aureus avoid:
A) antibiotics
B) apoptosis
C) phagocytosis
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) phagosome-lysosome fusion
Q3) Bacteria that exhibit antigenic shifts and phase variations will most likely cause:
A) host immunity
B) recurrent infections in the exposed host
C) death each time a host is infected
D) subclinical infections
E) mild, acute infections
Q4) Briefly describe three classic modes of action of bacterial toxins. How are they similar? How are they different?
Q5) What characteristics of a pathogen distinguish it from a commensal, in terms of its ability to infect and replicate within a eukaryotic host?
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigen phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) Rubeola measles is caused by __________ virus.
A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) paramyxovirus
D) rhinovirus
E) adenovirus
Q4) Does chocolate agar contain chocolate? Describe the medium and what it is used for.
Q5) Describe the replication cycle of Chlamydia.
Q6) What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.
Q7) Define herd immunity and explain why it is only effective against infections spread through person-to-person contact.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) A patient who accidentally takes too many doses of chloramphenicol during a Salmonella sp. infection could possible come down with:
A) aplastic anemia
B) liver cancer
C) gastroenteritis
D) ulcers
E) growth plate defects
Q2) A bacterial strain exhibiting a DNA gyrase mutation would most likely inhibit the activity of what class of antibiotics?
A) metronidazoles
B) tetracyclines
C) quinolones
D) cephalosporins
E) sulfa drugs
Q3) You are designing a new antibiotic to treat infections caused by the fungal agent
Cryptococcus neoformans, a potentially fatal lung infection in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy. What issues could you run into with selective toxicity, and what strategies would you use in your development?
Q4) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) The use of a laminar flow hood when studying the organism Francisella tularensis is an example of:
A) level 0 biological safety
B) level I biological safety
C) level II biological safety
D) level III biological safety
E) level IV biological safety
Q2) Compare and contrast the epidemiological terms endemic, epidemic, and pandemic. Give an example of each to support your answer.
Q3) A bacterial diagnosis of Mycobacterium avium in a sputum sample from an AIDS patient would be best determined by which method?
A) blood agar culture
B) acid-fast (Ziehl-Neelsen) staining
C) MacConkey agar culture
D) Gram staining
E) bacitracin susceptibility
Q4) Compare and contrast the handling of rabies (a category III organism) with Lassa fever (a category IV organism).
Q5) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) In order to successfully implement the marketing strategy, the organization must develop
A) sales training programs.
B) a customer database.
C) an advertising strategy.
D) functional plans.
E) a media strategy.
Q2) The alignment of all of an organization's functions to focus on the customer is called
A) the marketing plan.
B) customer focus.
C) customer satisfaction measurement.
D) a channel strategy.
E) a product strategy.
Q3) Using "Tim's Secrets to Business Success," explain the final step in the marketing process.
Q4) Increasing awareness of the brand is a typical problem faced by non-profit organizations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) Companies can only create customer value if they have an accurate understanding of customer needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Looking across complementary product and service offerings is one way a company can
A) test new message strategies.
B) test new product concepts.
C) co-create customer value.
D) create new market space.
E) research the competition.
Q3) Smart companies challenging the product-centric approach to marketing are embracing a method whereby they are
A) co-creating value with their customers.
B) determining what's best for their customers.
C) conducting secondary research.
D) conducting primary research.
E) becoming the customer.
Q4) What are the three classes of questions that all questionnaires contain?
Q5) Describe the participation observation technique and provide an example.
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) Even with customer segmentation, salespeople do not know which customers to target or which value propositions to deliver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first basic principle of market segmentation is that
A) market share is the most important factor.
B) all customers are created equal.
C) becoming bigger means becoming more profitable.
D) the size of the business matters to customers.
E) a business exists to be profitable.
Q3) List and describe three common pitfalls in segmenting customers.
Q4) The Body Shop gained a competitive advantage in combining profits with ethics when its segmentation efforts uncovered
A) an emerging segment.
B) a customer need.
C) a changing segment.
D) the largest segment.
E) a product segment.
Q5) What are the three basic principles of market segmentation?
Q6) If not all customers are created equal, then explain how they differ.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) Although Arbol Industries' senior management had developed a rolling five-year strategic plan, the marketing manager knew the next step ought to be
A) conducting research.
B) segmenting the market.
C) investing in new product development.
D) setting financial targets.
E) developing a marketing plan.
Q2) Without an action plan to implement marketing strategies, there is a tendency to take on too little.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In order to respond to opportunities and threats that have been identified, a business has to look at its
A) strengths and weaknesses.
B) marketing strategies.
C) marketing-sales linkages.
D) objectives.
E) customer needs.
Q4) Why is achieving a marketing-sales linkage crucial for any business?
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) Brand equity is measured on
A) brand awareness, brand associations, and brand loyalty.
B) elements of the marketing mix.
C) the brand's emotional connection with customers.
D) the functional and augmented product.
E) the functional and potential product.
Q2) D-Base Transformers Inc. learned that customers do not buy product features or attributes; they buy
A) the core product.
B) the functional product.
C) the augmented product.
D) the potential product.
E) the product warranty.
Q3) It is hard to measure innovation efforts without at least 20 metrics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "Products" are synonymous with "goods."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the term "brand identity."
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) Customers who are brand loyal due to intangibles such as liking the brand are referred to as
A) price customers.
B) value customers.
C) relationship customers.
D) competitive loyals.
E) switchers.
Q2) List the three main reasons why price is a key marketing decision.
Q3) Discuss how the case of Vlasic pickles and Wal-Mart illustrates the relationship between Vlasic's marketing strategy and price.
Q4) The final variable every business must take into account when analyzing returns is the
A) average cost.
B) fixed cost.
C) variable cost.
D) incremental performance cost.
E) cost to serve a customer.
Q5) What risks are associated with a company dropping its prices?
Q6) What does the author mean by a "seat-of-the-pants" approach to pricing?
Q7) What impact does price have on profits?
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) Why is it important for channel strategies to evolve?
Q2) Inserting your company into your customers' network of suppliers and customers is a concept called
A) supply chain.
B) market share.
C) shareholder return.
D) advertising.
E) channel selection.
Q3) In some industries such as retail banking, offering more channels has
A) decreased customer value.
B) increased the cost to serve the customer.
C) decreased channel conflict.
D) increased customer dissatisfaction.
E) decreased the number of transactions.
Q4) Even if a channel is a good fit with the product and certain customer segments may use it, it should be rejected if it is not a good fit with the firm's overall strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is it important to base channel decisions on customers' needs?
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) Once the event is over, the relationship with the prospect is just beginning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Customers aren't the only creators of information; employees can also be A) voices for the company.
B) direct marketers.
C) sponsors.
D) event marketers.
E) media planners.
Q3) Market research, sales reports, and media reports are all sources a company can use to get feedback on the communication's A) reach.
B) frequency.
C) effectiveness.
D) channel strategy.
E) return on investment.
Q4) Companies should always measure the impact of market communications no matter how small their budget.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) The role of marketing should be defined as lead generation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Robeez, the manufacturer of infants' shoes, found it difficult to maintain price integrity because the company had been
A) marketing driven.
B) sales driven.
C) product driven.
D) technology driven.
E) advertising driven.
Q3) By giving the sales force direction, we avoid any tension the salesperson may feel between serving the customer and creating customer value.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the three main reasons that there is a misalignment between marketing and sales in many organizations?
Q5) Marketing has a short-term focus, while sales has a long-term focus. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) How did the newly privatized British Airway's focus on the "total customer experience" transform the business?
Q2) Product-centric companies manage a portfolio of customers, while customer-centric companies manage a portfolio of products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At Arbol Industries organizational, not functional, objectives became the glue that bound all of the company's functions together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How did Arbol Industries realign the organization to make it a customer-focused company?
Q5) The organizational focus of a product-centric company is A) external.
B) internal.
C) relationship oriented.
D) based on customer satisfaction.
E) on its portfolio of customers.
Q6) List three of the common traps to avoid in building a customer-focused business.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) Although an advertiser can easily send different banner ads to different types of internet customers, if the content and placement of the ads are not appropriate to the __________, the ads will fail to deliver on their objectives.
A) type of usage session.
B) market segment.
C) internet site.
D) marketing tactic.
E) medium.
Q2) Describe the segmentation approach required for customers on the web.
Q3) A customer with no time who is looking for a specific item is referred to as a A) browser.
B) window shopper.
C) mission shopper.
D) brand-loyal shopper.
E) brand-specific shopper.
Q4) Using social media, customers can instantly communicate with the world about problems with a brand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) Marketing's role, objectives, time frame, and authority are all key decisions when developing
A) marketing metrics.
B) channel strategies.
C) research methodology.
D) sales strategies.
E) product mix.
Q2) Marketing is only about activities that generate immediate sales.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A core competency for the new marketing environment (2000 and beyond) is A) management training.
B) an MBA.
C) strong academic records.
D) a knowledge of interactive media.
E) a knowledge of traditional media.
Q4) Marketing is increasingly more important to corporate success.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss how Bata has placed an emphasis on corporate sustainability.
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