Veterinary Immunology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Veterinary Immunology explores the fundamental principles of the immune system as they relate to animals, with an emphasis on mechanisms of innate and adaptive immunity, immune system development, and the recognition and elimination of pathogens. The course covers topics such as antigen processing and presentation, immune cell signaling, immunogenetics, hypersensitivity reactions, autoimmunity, immunodeficiency, and vaccine development. Case studies and veterinary-specific examples are used to highlight immune responses in domestic and wild animal species, preparing students to understand and apply immunological concepts in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of animal diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Immunology Functions and Disorders of the Immune System 4th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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12 Chapters
181 Verified Questions
181 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1165 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Immune System
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23007
Sample Questions
Q1) A standard treatment of animal bite victims, when there is a possibility that the animal was infected with the rabies virus, is administration of human immunoglobulin preparations containing anti-rabies virus antibodies. Which type of immunity would be established by this treatment?
A)Active humoral immunity
B)Passive humoral immunity
C)Active cell-mediated immunity
D)Passive cell-mediated immunity
E)Innate immunity
Answer: B
Q2) The two major functional classes of effector T lymphocytes are:
A)Helper T lymphocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B)Natural killer cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C)Memory T cells and effector T cells
D)Helper cells and antigen-presenting cells
E)Cytotoxic T lymphocytes and target cells
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Innate Immunity
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23008
Sample Questions
Q1) A 43-year-old man with a history of kidney transplantation is on immunosuppressive drugs. He presents to the emergency department 84 days after transplantation with a slight fever, accompanied by violent shaking chills, rapid heart rate, and dangerously low blood pressure. Blood cultures are positive for gram-negative bacteria, including Klebsiella and Pseudomonas. Although the patient was initially alert and responsive to fluids and antibiotic therapy, his condition rapidly deteriorates into disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), hypoglycemia, and cardiovascular failure. Which of the following is an essential mediator of this patient's condition?
A)Transforming growth factor-
B)Tumor necrosis factor-
C)Interleukin (IL)-2
D)IL-10
E)IL-3
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Antigen Capture and Presentation to Lymphocytes
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23009
Sample Questions
Q1) Many vaccines now in development will include highly purified, recombinant, or synthetic peptide antigens. These vaccine antigens are expected to stimulate highly specific immune responses, but they are less immunogenic than vaccines containing intact killed or live microbes. Adjuvants are substances added to such vaccines to enhance their ability to elicit T cell immune responses. Which of the following statements about adjuvants is NOT correct?
A)Adjuvants induce local inflammation, thereby increasing the number of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) at the site of immunization.
B)Adjuvants stimulate the expression of costimulators on local APCs.
C)Adjuvants enhance local production of cytokines that promote T cell activation.
D)Adjuvants prolong the expression of peptide-MHC complexes on the surface of APCs.
E)Adjuvants bind to T cell antigen receptors and promote their proliferation. Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: Antigen Recognition in the Adaptive Immune System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23010
Sample Questions
Q1) A 15-year-old girl develops malaise, headache, and low-grade fever, followed by pharyngitis and cervical lymph node enlargement as a result of infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Her acute symptoms resolve within 2 weeks, and the fatigue improves within 3 months. Following the primary infection described in this patient, the patient's subsequent exposure to Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) will trigger clonal expansion of EBV-specific T cells expressing which one of the following surface molecules?
A)CD62L
B)CD44
C)CD45RA
D)CD45RO
E)CD21
Q2) CD1-restricted T cells differ from other T cells restricted to class I or class II MHC molecules in which one of the following ways?
A)CD-1 restricted T cells cannot rapidly secrete cytokines.
B)CD-1 restricted T cells recognize non-peptide antigens, such as lipids.
C)CD-1 restricted T cells bind both cell-associated and soluble antigens.
D)CD-1 restricted T cells express both CD4 and CD8 coreceptors.
E)CD-1 restricted T cells are actually natural killer (NK) cells.
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Chapter 5: T Cell Mediated Immunity
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23011
Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-month-old boy, the only child of second-degree cousins, saw a pediatrician for immunologic evaluation after developing Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Serum IgG, IgM, and IgA levels were normal. Blood cell count showed 10,600 leukocytes/mm³ and 80% lymphocytes; 90% of the lymphocytes were TCR CD4 . In vitro lymphocyte-proliferative responses to PHA and anti-CD3 were absent, and the pattern of tyrosine-phosphorylated cytoplasmic proteins after anti-CD3 treatment of the T cells was distinctly abnormal. This boy most likely carries homozygous mutations in the gene encoding which one of the following proteins?
A)Zap-70
B)RAG-1
C)CD3
D)Pre-T
E)TCR
Q2) Which one of the following descriptions of cytokine interleukin-2 is NOT true?
A)Expression of its gene requires multiple transcription factors, such as Fos, Jun, and NFAT.
B)It acts as an autocrine growth factor for T cells.
C)It binds to CD25 on the cell membrane of T cells.
D)It is only involved in the proliferation of helper T cells and not CTLs.
E)It promotes susceptibility of T cells to apoptosis.
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Chapter 6: Effector Mechanisms of T Cell Mediated Immunity
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comparisons between TH1 and TH2 cells is true?
A)TH1 cells produce interleukin (IL)-1 but not IL-2, and TH2 cells produce IL-2 but not IL-1.
B)TH1 cells are class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) restricted, and TH2 cells are class II MHC restricted.
C)The chemokine receptors CXCR3 and CCR5 are more highly expressed on TH2 cells than on TH1 cells.
D)TH2 cells are more likely to bind to E-selectin and P-selectin on endothelial cells than are TH1 cells.
E)TH1 cells produce interferon (IFN)- but not IL-4, and TH2 cells produce IL-4 but not IFN-
Q2) Which pair of molecules is a component of cytolytic T lymphocyte (CTL) granules and is important in the mechanism of CTL killing of target cells?
A)Perforin and Fas ligand
B)P-selectin and tumor necrosis factor
C)Major basic protein and granzyme B
D)C9 and interferon-
E)Perforin and granzyme B
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Chapter 7: Humoral Immune Responses
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23013
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old boy has a history of recurrent pneumococcal pneumonia, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), and bacterial ear infections. His maternal uncle and an older brother experienced the same symptoms, but he has an older sister who is healthy. Laboratory studies indicate normal numbers of B cells and T cells, and the serum contains mostly IgM and very little IgG. Which of the following genes most likely contains a mutation in this patient?
A)AID (activation-induced deaminase)
B)CD40
C)CD40L
D)CD28
E)CTLA-4
Q2) Which of the following antigenic structures might activate B cell antibody production without the aid of T cells?
A)Lysozyme
B)Benzene
C)Glucose-6-phosphate
D)ABO blood group antigen
E)Rh factor antigen
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Chapter 8: Effector Mechanisms of Humoral Immunity
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23014
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about Ig Fc receptors is NOT true?
A)Some Fc receptors or Fc receptor-associated signaling chains contain ITAMs in their cytoplasmic tails.
B)Some Fc receptors are linked to signal transduction pathways that cause granule exocytosis.
C)There are Fc receptors specific for all common Ig isotypes.
D)Some Fc receptors with ITIMs in their cytoplasmic tails transduce inhibitory signals.
E)Fc receptor signaling may enhance generation of reactive oxygen intermediates in phagocytes.
Q2) Which of the following anatomic regions is normally protected from pathogens only by humoral immune responses and not by cell-mediated immune responses?
A)Skin
B)Intestinal lumen
C)Intestinal epithelium
D)Central nervous system
E)Spleen
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Chapter 9: Immunological Tolerance and Autoimmunity
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23015
Sample Questions
Q1) Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ectodermal dystrophy (APECED) is a rare disease in which there is autoimmune destruction of several endocrine organs. This disease is caused by mutations in the autoimmune regulator gene called AIRE. AIRE is normally expressed primarily in the thymus and serves as a transcription factor in thymic epithelial cells. A failure to produce AIRE leads to a failure in tolerance to several self-proteins. Which ONE of the following statements best explains the influence of AIRE on self tolerance?
A)AIRE up-regulates expression of proteins that induce proliferation of thymic epithelial cells, allowing greater self antigen presentation to T cells.
B)AIRE up-regulates expression of cytokines that inhibit activation of T cells.
C)AIRE up-regulates expression of MHC proteins, allowing for greater self antigen presentation to developing T cells.
D)AIRE up-regulates expression of proteins usually expressed only in peripheral organs, allowing presentation of the proteins to developing T cells.
E)AIRE up-regulates expression of Fas ligand on thymic epithelial cells to induce apoptosis in self-reactive T cells.
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Chapter 10: Immune Responses against Tumors and Transplants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23016
Sample Questions
Q1) A 47-year-old woman had a mastectomy because she had breast carcinoma that was previously diagnosed by biopsy. Pathologic examination revealed that several axillary lymph nodes contained metastatic tumors. A test was performed on tumor cells extracted from the mastectomy specimen, which indicated that the tumor cells overexpressed a certain cellular proto-oncogene. On the basis of this test result, the patient was treated with an FDA-approved monoclonal antibody specific for the protein encoded by that gene. Which of the following was most likely the protein target of this antibody therapy?
A)p53
B)H-Ras
C)HPV E7
D)Rb
E)Her2
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which tumors evade immune responses?
A)Decreased synthesis of TAP
B)Increased expression of glycocalyx
C)Lack of costimulatory molecule expression
D)Increased expression of TGF-
E)Increased expression of Fas
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Hypersensitivity
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23017
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would NOT be a likely therapy for treating autoimmune diseases?
A)Corticosteroids
B)Small molecule inhibitor of VLA-4
C)Cyclosporine
D)CTLA-4 antagonist
E)Plasmapheresis
Q2) Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with immune complex deposition?
A)Arthus reaction
B)Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C)Serum sickness
D)Systemic lupus erythematosus
E)Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Q3) Which of the following is a common cause of hypersensitivity diseases?
A)Failure of lymphocyte maturation
B)Treatment with corticosteroids
C)Disseminated cancer
D)Failure of self-tolerance
E)Malnutrition
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Chapter 12: Congenital and Acquired Immunodeficiencies
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23018
Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old man with a history of a positive anti-HIV antibody test comes to the clinic with fever, sore throat, nonproductive cough, and weight loss. The patient has a high serum viral load, quantified by reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR). This patient is LEAST likely to suffer from which of the following?
A)Kaposi's sarcoma
B)Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
C)Encephalopathy
D)Cachexia
E)T cell lymphoma
Q2) Which one of the following is typically NOT associated with T cell immunodeficiencies?
A)Cancer
B)Viral infection
C)Autoimmunity
D)Infection with intracellular microbes
E)Infection with pyogenic bacteria
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