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Vertebrate Zoology is an in-depth study of the biology, diversity, evolution, and anatomy of animals possessing backbones, including fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals. The course explores the physiological adaptations, ecological roles, and evolutionary relationships of vertebrates, emphasizing comparative analysis of their organ systems, behavior, and life histories. Students gain knowledge about the classification and identification of vertebrate groups, their fossil records, and their significance in both natural and human-influenced environments, fostering an understanding of the complexity and interconnectedness of vertebrate life.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 17th Edition by Cleveland P Hickman
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Q1) All of the chemical energy transformations that occur within a cell constitute A)evolution.
B)metabolism.
C)adaptation.
D)homeostasis.
Answer: B
Q2) The role of principles in zoology is best described as
A)researchers should maintain high principles of conduct in research.
B)zoology rests solely upon expansion of principles of chemistry and physics.
C)principles of zoology are derived by study of a few different animals and then finding central unifying principles.
D)past principles may be discarded as new principles replace them.
E)none of the choices offer a thorough description of principles underlying zoology.
Answer: E
Q3) The appearance of new characteristics at a given level of biological organization is known as emergence,and these characteristics are known as _______ ________.
Answer: emergent properties
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Q1) Polysaccharides are polymers made up of which kind of monomers?
A)Simple sugars
B)Amino acids
C)Nucleotides
D)Alternating sugar and phosphate groups
E)Fatty acids and glycerol
Answer: A
Q2) Fish sperm is mostly made of male DNA.A chemical test would find high amounts of A)nitrogenous bases,sugar,and phosphate groups.
B)phospholipids and steroids.
C)amino acids and unsaturated fats.
D)triglycerides and ATP.
E)globular proteins and stored fats.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is the most abundant carbohydrate in the world?
A)Cellulose
B)Glycogen
C)Fructose
D)Glucose
Answer: A
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Q1) At the completion of mitosis,
A)each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid once more.
B)the daughter cell nuclei have acquired the same number and kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell nucleus.
C)the cell may not have yet undergone cytokinesis.
D)All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Sugars and amino acids move into the cell by means of A)facilitated transport.
B)active transport.
C)simple diffusion.
D)endocytosis.
Answer: A
Q3) The model of the plasma membrane that provides for the fluidity of materials embedded in its surface is the ________
Answer: fluid mosaic
Q4) During the tug-of-war of early metaphase,condensed sister chromatids move to the middle of the cell and line up along a __________ ___________.
Answer: metaphasic plate
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Q1) When an energy-requiring reaction is driven by an energy-yielding reaction,it is called a/an
A)exergonic reaction.
B)endergonic reaction.
C)endo-exergonic reaction.
D)coupled reaction.
Q2) The critical factor that drives many microorganisms to use fermentation to metabolize sugar is
A)inability to carry on glycolysis.
B)lack of free oxygen.
C)lack of any enzymes.
D)intolerance to alcohol.
Q3) Glycolysis produces a net yield of ____ ATP molecules.
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)10
Q4) Can virtually any organic compound be broken down (assuming it is non-toxic)?
Q5) Aerobic organisms use _______ as the final electron acceptor in cellular respiration.
6
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Q1) Down syndrome is an example of A)aneuploidy.
B)changes in the liner arrangement of genes within one chromosome.
C)monosomy.
D)polyploidy.
Q2) mRNA molecules attach themselves to a _______ for the production of proteins.
Q3) Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct?
A)Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
B)Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break.
C)DNA polymerase catalyzes DNA replication.
D)Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds.
Q4) On the cloverleaf-shaped tRNA,what is exposed to form base pairs with complementary codon bases in the mRNA?
A)A polysome
B)An intron
C)An anticodon
D)RNA polymerase
Q5) Aneuploidy is the addition or subtraction of a single _____________ to or from a diploid set.
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Q6) Males are said to be ___________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.
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Q1) Niles Eldridge and Stephen Jay Gould proposed that speciation is an episodic event that occurs in variable time periods ranging from thousands to hundreds of thousands of years,all of which are geologically brief time periods,and that there are long periods of evolutionary stasis in between,a theory called _______ ________.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about natural selection?
A)Directional selection occurs when one extreme phenotype is favored over another different extreme phenotype
B)Stabilizing selection favors an intermediate phenotype over either of the extreme phenotypes
C)Directional selection leads to the best fit phenotype in the population when the environment remains the same
D)Disruptive selection leads to polymorphism,favoring different forms of the same species
Q3) A population that undergoes a major reduction in size is said to experience a population ___________.
Q4) Explain Lamarck's theory of evolution and describe how it contrasts with modern Darwinian views.
Q5) Define sexual selection and provide an example.
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Q1) Since humans have two individual organisms to bear eggs or sperm separately,we are in the biological sense
A)asexual.
B)bisexual.
C)monoecious.
D)hermaphroditic.
E)parthenogenetic.
Q2) Secondary sexual characteristics in the male are developed and maintained by A)FSH.
B)TSH.
C)testosterone.
D)estrogen.
E)progesterone.
Q3) Animals with both male and female organs in the same individual are called monoecious or ____________.or or
Q4) Why is the haplo-diploid system of bees,wasps,and ants considered to involve parthenogenesis?
Q5) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual versus asexual reproduction.
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Q6) Compare meiotic and ameiotic parthenogenesis and provide an example of each.
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Q1) If yolk is primarily food storage for the developing embryo,why is it so central to understanding cleavage?
Q2) The point of fertilization occurs when A)sperm are deposited in the vagina.
B)sperm reach the outer jelly coating of the egg.
C)sperm tails are shed.
D)the sperm nucleus and egg nucleus unite to form a zygote.
Q3) The concept that an egg contains the building material that must somehow be assembled is called A)induction.
B)pronuclei.
C)preformation.
D)epigenesis.
Q4) Rotational cleavage is unique to A)amphibians. B)mammals.
C)sea stars.
D)lophotrochozoa.
Q5) A true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined by ___________.
Q6) Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of connective tissue?
A)Line body surfaces and cavities
B)Bind and support body parts
C)Store energy (e.g. ,fat)
D)Produce blood cells
Q2) Your nose would be considered
A)medial,anterior,and dorsal.
B)medial,anterior,and ventral.
C)medial,posterior,and ventral.
D)lateral,anterior,and ventral.
Q3) True metamerism (segmentation)is found only in Annelida,Arthropoda,and
Q4) Which gives the correct sequence of increasing organizational complexity?
A)Organ,tissue,cell,organ system,organism
B)Cell,organ,organ system,tissue,organism
C)Cell,tissue,organ,organ system,organism
D)Organism,tissue,cell,organ system,organ
Q5) The study of tissues is called ________________.
Q6) A ________ plane divides an animal into right and left halves.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of a cladogram?
A)It is a branching diagram.
B)It depicts the nested hierarchy of clades within clades.
C)Its structure denotes only real lineages that occurred in the evolutionary past.
D)A cladogram may be congruent with that of a corresponding phylogenetic tree.
Q2) Which of the following terms is NOT correctly associated?
A)synapomorphy-a derived character shared by members of a clade
B)monophyly-one group formed from animals with two separate ancestors
C)adaptive zone-a way of life
D)cladogram-a nested hierarchy of clades represented as a branching diagram
Q3) Which is NOT one of the inherent conflicting features of the biological species concept?
A)A species is both a taxonomic rank and a unit of evolution.
B)The functional definition centers on a sexual ability to interbreed but many species are asexual.
C)A species can be defined with boundaries among present organisms,or within a changing lineage over time.
D)Some scientists disagree over the name of a species.
Q4) A derived character shared by members of a clade is a _______________.
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Q1) The macronucleus of a ciliate elongates,constricts and divides without going through the mitotic stages in a process called A)amitosis.
B)budding.
C)syngamy.
D)autogamy.
E)sporogony.
Q2) Small spined extrusomes in ciliate protozoa that are discharged apparently to aid in the capture of prey or to serve as a defensive mechanism are called
Q3) Chagas disease in the Americas is carried by A)mosquitoes.
B)contaminated water supplies.
C)contact with cats and cat feces.
D)triatomine "kissing" bugs.
E)sexual contact.
Q4) Osmoregulation in some protozoa is carried out chiefly by a structure called a/an
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Q1) In glass sponges,archaeocytes fuse their pseudopodia to form a A)bud.
B)spongin network.
C)micropyle.
D)leuconoid framework.
E)trabecular reticulum.Hexactinellid sponges possess a unique syncytial body wall.All cells fuse into a single,multinucleate syncytum called the trabecular reticulum.
Q2) The largest impact that the loss of sponges would have on the environment would be
A)collapse of most food chains.
B)extinctions of other species that are symbionts of sponges.
C)alteration of ocean currents.
D)alteration of gases in water and the atmosphere.
E)loss of filtration.Large sponges can filter up to 1,500 liters of water each day.Loss of this filtering would adversely affect water quality in marine habitats.
Q3) New evidence suggests that the calcarea belong to a clade separate from other sponges.Discuss the evidence upon which this idea is based.
Q4) Explain the unique attributes of hexactinellids as compared to other sponges.
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Q1) Ctenophores capture food by
A)nematocysts.
B)collenchyme.
C)colloblasts.
D)comb plates.
E)statocysts.
Q2) Describe the evidence for the likely order of appearance of life-cycle stages in the evolution of Cnidarians.Evaluate the validity of conclusions that are drawn from this evidence.
Q3) Cnidarians are found most abundantly in which of the following habitats?
A)Shallow marine habitats
B)Freshwater habitats
C)Deep ocean habitats
D)Estuary habitats
E)None of the choices is correct
Q4) The gastrodermal tubes that run through the extensive mesoglea of alcyonarians are called _______________.
Q5) The tall secretory cells around the pedal disc and mouth of hydra are the ______ cells.
Q6) The polypoid stage of scyphozoans is called ________________.
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Q1) Turbellarians,such as the planaria,move by A)flame cells.
B)small pseudopodia.
C)lateral undulation of muscles.
D)expulsion of fluids as seen in squid.
E)secreting a slime track of mucus and pushing against it with epidermal cilia and muscular waves.
Q2) Monogeneans hatch as A)fully mature adults.
B)free-swimming larvae.
C)flagellated,amoeboid larvae.
D)larvae resembling gemmules of freshwater sponges.
E)None of the choices is correct
Q3) The name of the free-swimming,ciliated stage that hatches from a trematode egg is the
A)miracidium.
B)sporocyst.
C)cercaria.
D)scolex.
E)proglottid.
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Q1) Explain why ectoprocts and entoprocts are no longer considered in the phylum Bryozoa.
Q2) The respiratory system of an ectoproct involves A)tracheae.
B)gills that form another layer under the tentacles.
C)amebocytes loaded with hemoglobin pigment.
D)circulation of water by opening and closing the epistome.
E)no system at all,merely diffusion across the body surface.
Q3) Reproduction and development in phoronid worms involves A)monoecious species.
B)dioecious species.
C)asexual species.
D)a radial cleavage pattern.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) The chamber in which each zooid of an ectoproct colony lives is called a ________________.
Q5) The lophophorate animals that have their bodies covered by a mantle belong to the phylum ________.
Q6) The three lophophorate phyla are Phoronida,Ectoprocta,and
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Q7) The larva of phoronids is called the _____________.
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Q1) The Polyplacophora
A)have a coiled shell.
B)live in the ocean,especially in intertidal areas.
C)lack gills.
D)lack a radula.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q2) Which correctly describes the evolutionary origin and adaptive radiation of molluscs?
A)Molluscs originated in freshwater and invaded both terrestrial and marine environments
B)Molluscs originated on land,all classes then invaded both freshwater and marine environments
C)Molluscs originated on land,all classes then invaded freshwater and the bivalves and gastropods invaded marine environments
D)Molluscs originated in the sea,both bivalves and gastropods invaded marine environments and the land
E)Molluscs originated in the sea,bivalves and gastropods invaded brackish and freshwater environments,and just gastropods invaded the land
Q3) How does torsion differ from coiling? Fully explain your answer.
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Q1) The remaining valid use of "medicinal leeches" is to
A)apply them to severely-bruised tissue to relieve blood congestion and allow damaged vessels to grow back.
B)use them to clean out dead tissue from a wound.
C)use them to restore the balance of body fluids or humors.
D)apply them to increase circulation or blood flow to a region.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Select the list of characteristics typical of annelids.
A)Segmentation,open circulation,and metanephridia
B)Segmentation,a closed circulatory system,and metanephridia
C)An exoskeleton,metanephridia,and a pseudocoelom
D)An exoskeleton,Malpighian tubules,and a pseudocoelom
E)Metanephridia,a true coelom,and open circulation
Q3) Speculate why polychaetes are overwhelmingly marine organisms.
Q4) Gas exchange in the earthworm occurs through the A)gills.
B)metanephridia.
C)skin.
D)setae.
E)typhlosole.

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Q1) Filarial worms (Wuchereria and Brugia)are transmitted by _________________.
Q2) On what bases do scientists suspect that the nematodes may be even more diverse than the insects?
Q3) Amphids and phasmids
A)are two kinds of nematodes.
B)perform a sensory function.
C)are found in the intestine.
D)are acquired by eating uncooked beef.
E)are reproductive stages in nematodes.
Q4) Dogs commonly suffer from heartworm caused by A)dirofilaria nematodes.
B)a tapeworm consumed in raw meat.
C)eating raw meat infected with Trichinella.
D)nematodes consumed as eggs in contaminated water.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of a Trichinella worm.
Q6) Discuss the structure and formation of the noncellular cuticle of nematodes.
Q7) Humans are infected with Trichinella spiralis by eating insufficiently cooked
Q8) Onychophorans are also known as ___________ or walking worms.
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Q1) The arthropods
A)make up more than three-fourths of all the known species of animals.
B)are more widely and more densely distributed throughout the world than members of any other phylum of animals.
C)are segmented eucoelomate protostomes with well-developed organ systems.
D)are limited in size and generally are smaller than 60 centimeters in length.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Horseshoe crabs
A)are,like their relatives the trilobites and eurypterids,now extinct.
B)are poisonous to humans.
C)live in freshwater habitats.
D)have a long,spine-like telson.
E)are adult forms of trilobites.
Q3) Some mites,such as the _______ ________ or family Tetranychidae,are very destructive to plants.
Q4) Two poisonous spiders in the United States that are dangerous to humans are the black widow and the ______ _______.
Q5) Members of the subphylum ________________ were abundant during the Cambrian period.
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Q1) The process which culminates with arthropods regularly shedding their exoskeleton because it has become too small for the growing body is called
Q2) Crustaceans and molluscs of course do have a common ancestor at some point.Draw a reasonable phylogeny that includes the molluscs,annelids and arthropods including the crustacea,and describe the distinguishing features on each branch.There are several legitimate phylogenies.
Q3) The two joints of the protopod are the ______ ______ and medial endopod.
Q4) The individual units of compound eyes in crustaceans are called ________________.
Q5) Discuss the evolutionary significance of the serial homology of crustacean appendages.
Q6) How do the various pigments in the ommatidium work to provide images of variable field of vision or a continuous image in variable degrees of light and dark?
Q7) A characteristic unique to Crustacea is the possession of two pairs of
Q8) Explain why pentastomids were placed in Ecdysozoa.
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Q9) Position sensors in the base of the first antennae of crayfishes are called

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Q1) The protection possessed by a monarch butterfly is due to
A)the fact that it has a stinging proboscis.
B)a natural bad taste possessed by all butterflies.
C)a toxic chemistry acquired from ingesting milkweed cardenolids when it was a caterpillar.
D)mimicry of another butterfly that has a bad taste.
E)orange pigments that are always toxic,which is why orange animals are always protected.
Q2) At the lower end of the Malpighian tubule,the pH becomes slightly acid,which causes the _________ __________ to precipitate out.
Q3) The dorsal sclerite of a body segment is the ________________.
Q4) The major flight muscles of insects such as flies and bees
A)are all indirect.
B)are all synchronous.
C)do not require nervous stimulation to operate.
D)beat at a slow rate (under 100 beats per second)but with great efficiency.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q5) In honeybees,the caste of sexually mature males are called ______________.
Q6) Flies and mosquitoes belong to the order _________.
Q7) Brain hormone stimulates the ________ _________ to secrete ecdysone.
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Q1) Hemichordates do not have a kidney,but they do have a single _____________.
Q2) The role of the hemal system is best described as A)circulatory.
B)excretory.
C)an accessory gland to the reproductive system.
D)a component of the nervous system.
E)still not known for certain.
Q3) The excretory system of an enteropneust hemichordate (or acorn worm)consists of
A)a glomerulus or network of blood vessels that surround the sinus and buccal diverticulum.
B)a rich supply of blood vessels in the gill slits.
C)a network of flame cells at the periphery.
D)a simple metanephridium that empties into the cloaca.
E)a network of vessels under the epidermis.
Q4) ________________ is the porous plate on the aboral surface where water enters the water vascular system of a sea star.
Q5) ________________ are pincer-like projections clustered on the skin of a sea star which serve to keep it clean of parasites and aquatic growth.
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Q6) A complex chewing apparatus found in many urchins is the _________
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Q1) One overriding advantage of the endoskeleton of vertebrates,as compared to the invertebrate exoskeleton is that it permits __________ without the necessity of molting.
Q2) The ammocoete larvae is important in zoology since it
A)is the "missing link" between chordates and vertebrates.
B)represents the features of the most advanced chordate that is not a vertebrate.
C)represents the features of the first vertebrates that are not obscured by advanced vertebrate development.
D)is identical to the earliest Burgess shale fossil vertebrate.
E)possesses all features found in derived vertebrates,and evolution from this point forward was a matter of losing different features.
Q3) Tunicates belong to the subphylum ______________ (Tunicata).
Q4) The early vertebrate fossils belong to an extinct group of jawless fishes known as ____________.
Q5) Of the five chordate hallmarks,adult tunicates have only two,the _______ _______ and the endostyle.
Q6) Are the jawless ostracoderms a real taxon (that is,are they a monophyletic group)?
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Q1) Sharks have __________ scales.
A)placoid
B)ctenoid
C)cycloid
D)ganoid
E)polyploid
Q2) Why has the coelacanth apparently changed so little from its fossil ancestor of 70 million years ago?
Q3) To replace water lost osmotically,marine fish
A)pump water inward across the gill surface by means of special absorptive cells.
B)drink seawater and then pump extra salt outward across the gill surface by means of salt secretory cells,and excrete the remaining ions in the feces.
C)increase glomerular filtration by the kidney.
D)drink much more seawater and accumulate unwanted salts in crystalline form.
E)produce water metabolically by the oxidation of food stuffs.
Q4) Teleost fishes have a type of tail that is called a __________ tail.
Q5) The gills of bony fishes are covered with a movable flap called the __________.
Q6) In the elasmobranchs,the sexes are separate and fertilization is _________.
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Q1) A specialized structure in the conus arteriosus of the frog heart,called the ______ ______,is thought to maintain selective distribution of oxygenated and unoxygenated blood.
Q2) The Urodela
A)are hermaphroditic.
B)are tadpoles when young.
C)retain their tail permanently.
D)live only in the tropics.
E)never have to return to water to breed.
Q3) Compare and contrast the sensory systems of bony fish with those of adult anurans.
Q4) Describe five factors likely leading to the worldwide decline in amphibians.
Q5) Most of our familiar frogs belong to which large family?
A)Hylidae
B)Bufonidae
C)Ranidae
D)Plethodontidae
E)Anuridae
Q6) Discuss the contributions of Ichthyostega,Eustenopteron,Acanthostega,and Limnoscelis in the evolution of tetrapods.
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Q1) Give support to the contention that the traditional class "Reptilia" is paraphyletic.If it is paraphyletic,what would you do to "fix" the situation?
Q2) Discuss the origin and adaptive diversification of Reptilian groups.
Q3) In the nonavian reptilian egg,the embryo is bathed in a fluid contained within an extra-embryonic membrane called the __________________.
Q4) What is the name of the bottom plate on a turtle,which is continuous with the breastbone (sternum)?
A)Costal
B)Plastron
C)Carapace
D)Dorsum
E)Ventrum
Q5) The scales of nonavian reptiles are derived from the ________.
Q6) Discuss the shared derived characters of nonavian reptiles and birds (e.g. ,type of skull,aglandular skin,etc. ).
Q7) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.
Q8) The dermal layer of the reptile skin contains color-bearing cells called
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Q1) Birds have highly developed eyes that help them
A)locate mates.
B)fly through the air at a fast speed.
C)locate food from a distance.
D)avoid predators and defend territory.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q2) Because birds lack teeth to grind up food,they possess a ____________ that accomplishes this task.
Q3) The integration of muscle-position sense,equilibrium sense,and visual cues for movement and balance occurs in the __________ of the bird's brain.
Q4) Discuss the evolution of birds as it is currently understood.Why would some theropod dinosaurs have feathers? Did feathers evolve just once? Did feathers evolve specifically for flight? Is Archaeopteryx really a bird?
Q5) Flightless birds
A)have evolved mostly on islands without predators.
B)include the ratite or paleognathous birds.
C)have appeared independently in many different groups of birds.
D)tend to become large.
E)All of the choices are correct
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Q1) Hair is produced by the layer of skin called the __________.
Q2) All mammalian skin glands are derivatives of the __________.
Q3) Compare the morphology and likely physiology of pelycosaurs and therapsids.
Q4) All mammals share the following characteristic(s):
A)Hair
B)Mammary glands
C)A diaphragm
D)Middle ear bones
E)All of the choices are correct
Q5) In mammals,estrus is the time when the animals are A)mating.
B)pregnant.
C)menstruating.
D)giving birth to young.
E)None of the choices is correct
Q6) A species of North American mammal that makes mass migrations of several hundred miles between the boreal forests and the tundra is the ___________.or
Q7) The multi-chambered stomach of some grazing animals is called the ________________.
Q8) The red blood cells of mammals typically lack a __________.
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Q1) Discuss the role and function of the fibrillar muscles of insects.What types of muscles are found in insect flight muscles? Do these differ from vertebrate skeletal muscles?
Q2) Discuss the modification of the basic pentadactyl limb for life in different environments.
Q3) The first two cervical vertebrae are the ___________ and the axis.
Q4) Which of the following chemicals provides the "energy reserve" for muscle contraction?
A)Actin
B)Myosin
C)Creatine phosphate
D)Troponin
E)Calcium
Q5) Bone growth involves its destruction internally by bone resorbing cells called A)chondrocytes.
B)osteons.
C)osteoblasts.
D)osteoclasts.
E)canaliculi.
Q6) Outline the function of the two actin-binding proteins tropomyosin and troponin.
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Q1) The marine invertebrates,that have surfaces permeable to salts and water so that they are always in osmotic equilibrium with the seawater environment,are called A)osmotic regulators.
B)hyperosmotic.
C)hypoosmotic.
D)osmotic conformers.
E)stenohaline.
Q2) The most likely mechanism operating a contractile vacuole is A)proton pumps actively moving water.
B)microtubules actively moving water molecules.
C)sodium pumps keeping the sodium ions on the outside of the membrane.
D)simple osmosis of water.
E)proton pumps forming an ion gradient.
Q3) In the metanephridium,the tubule is open at both ends and fluids are swept in through a funnel-like _____________.
Q4) The term "homeostasis" was coined by the American physiologist ______ ______.
Q5) Hummingbirds may reduce the energetic cost of homeothermy by allowing their body temperature to drop at night,an adaptation called ____________.
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Q1) The lymphatic system drains lymph back into the A)large intestine.
B)heart.
C)vena cava.
D)veins of the liver.
E)veins of the lower neck.
Q2) Extracellular fluid is subdivided into
A)blood plasma and interstitial fluid.
B)blood plasma and lymph.
C)bloodstream and digestive fluids.
D)bloodstream and cerebrospinal fluids.
E)intracellular and extracellular.
Q3) Which of the following can NOT serve as a respiratory pigment?
A)Hemoglobin
B)Hemocyanin
C)Chlorocruorin
D)Hemerythrin
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) Outline the formation of red blood cells and white blood cells.Why have red blood cells (erythrocytes)lost the nucleus?
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Q1) Gastric juice contains both hydrochloric acid and ____________.
Q2) The liver produces bile,which functions to A)eliminate particles of dead red blood cells.
B)help emulsify or break down fats for digestion.
C)color the feces.
D)All of the choices are liver functions.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Distinguish between the following: herbivory,carnivory,omnivory.
Q4) A bird,insect or worm gizzard is a
A)food storage area.
B)site of food molecule absorption comparable to our small intestine.
C)food crushing and grinding organ.
D)site of water absorption similar to our large intestine.
Q5) Which of these do the pancreatic enzymes digest?
A)proteins.
B)carbohydrates.
C)lipids.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)The pancreatic enzymes do not digest any of these molecules.
Q6) Outline the process of digestion of fats.
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Q1) Compare the senses of chemoreception and olfaction.What is the difference between the two and how are taste receptors classified today?
Q2) The event at an electrical synapse
A)always involves acetylcholine.
B)always involves some neurotransmitter that stimulates the next neuron.
C)is a point at which ionic currents flow directly across a narrow gap junction.
D)involves either an inhibitory or stimulating neurotransmitter chemical.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) A cross-section of the spinal cord shows two zones,the outer one called white matter,and an inner zone containing interneurons and cell bodies,called _____ _____.
Q4) Which statement is NOT true about the autonomic nervous system?
A)The autonomic nervous system is a completely motor system
B)The functions of the autonomic system are generally involuntary and subconscious
C)The sympathetic nervous system deals with "fight or flight" responses
D)The parasympathetic nervous system promotes actions associated with relaxation
E)The neurotransmitter associated with the parasympathetic system is norepinephrine
Q5) The vertebrate ear functions in hearing and in ____________.
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Q1) Hormone control is by
A)negative feedback systems similar to a house thermostat.
B)positive feedback systems that require a shut-off mechanism.
C)input from the nervous system.
D)response to input of hormones and metabolites.
E)All of the choices control hormone levels.
Q2) A neurosecretory hormone stored and released from the posterior pituitary,and that has important specialized reproductive functions,is ____________.
Q3) Many hormones are controlled by negative feedback mechanisms that operate between the endocrine gland and the ______ ______.
Q4) Discuss the potential effects of anabolic steroid abuse by teenagers.
Q5) The posterior pituitary
A)is the source of releasing hormones.
B)produces four major tropic hormones.
C)secretes oxytocin and the antidiuretic hormone vasopressin.
D)produces growth hormone and prolactin.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q6) Growth hormone is produced by the _______ ________ gland.
Q7) The most common invertebrate hormones are peptides and _____________________.
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Q1) Explain why hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)is a problem if the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive,but not if the reverse is true.
Q2) Neutrophils and lymphocytes are types of _____.
A)platelets
B)red blood cells
C)white blood cells
D)plasma cells
E)epithelial cells
Q3) Blood cells differ from one another,and when two different and incompatible blood types are mixed,_________________ happens.
Q4) The ________________ recognize antigen on the surface of macrophages and activate B cells.
Q5) How do the following granulocytic leukocytes differ: neutrophils,eosinophils,basophils?
Q6) A substance that stimulates an immune response is called a/an _____________.
Q7) Discuss the following terms: susceptible,resistant,infective,noninfective,immunity.
Q8) Antibodies are large protein molecules classified as ______________.
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Q9) The cells that secrete antibodies are called __________________.
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Q1) The three ethologists who were awarded the Nobel Prize are von Frisch,Lorenz,and
Q2) What properties of organisms,species,and ecosystems make the study of behavior so much more complex,than say,the study of a single reaction under controlled conditions in a test tube?
Q3) If food is close to the hive,
A)no dance is necessary to communicate a source that is within eyesight.
B)the bees dance in a very small figure
C)the bees perform a round dance.
D)the bees dance in a straight "bee line."
E)none of the choices is correct.
Q4) Outline the "language of the bees" according to the different types of dances expressed from foraging workers.
Q5) Explain the complexity of the hereditary transmission of most innate behavior.Why is it so difficult to study?
Q6) The ethological study of social behavior in animals,originated by E.O.Wilson in 1975,is called ______.
Q7) An activity related to fighting,whether it be aggression,defense,submission,or retreat,is called ____________ behavior.
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Q1) The phenomenon where visible and U-V radiation are absorbed at the earth's surface and re-emitted as longer infrared wavelengths that are then absorbed by water vapor,carbon dioxide,and methane,is known as
A)the ozone layer.
B)the greenhouse effect.
C)global warming.
D)the atmospheric cycle.
Q2) What biome has the highest agricultural productivity?
A)Prairie grassland
B)Temperate deciduous forest
C)Tropical rain forest
D)Tundra
E)Tropical rain forest and estuaries
Q3) Why is the intertidal zone paradoxically both the harshest and the richest of all marine environments?
Q4) According to the theory of continental drift,all of the continents of the earth were once joined together as one large landmass (called Pangaea)that split into two smaller masses: a northern Laurasia and a southern ____________.
Q5) Life on earth is confined to a narrow area called the ____________.
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Q1) The producers in deep-sea thermal vent communities are
A)bivalve molluscs.
B)giant pogonophoran worms.
C)deep-sea kelp.
D)chemoautotrophic bacteria.
Q2) The energy accumulated by plants,less that used in respiration,is the _____
______.
Q3) Discuss how the extinction of a keystone species can affect an ecosystem.
Q4) In the logistic equation to describe the growth of populations,r is the intrinsic rate of increase of the population,and ____________ is the carrying capacity of the environment.
Q5) The deep-sea rift communities in the Pacific depend on the action of chemoautotrophic ____________ to derive energy from the oxidation of hydrogen sulfide.
Q6) Almost all life depends on the energy from the _______.
Q7) If severe floods reduced the amount of agricultural land in China,which term in the logistic growth formula will change?
A)r
B)N
C)K
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