United States Political System
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course offers an in-depth exploration of the United States political system, examining its foundational principles, structures, and processes. Students will analyze the Constitution, federalism, the roles of the three branches of government, and the dynamics of political parties and elections. The course also covers civil liberties, policymaking, and the relationship between citizens and government, fostering a comprehensive understanding of how power and policy are negotiated and contested within the U.S. democracy. Through case studies and current events, students will critically assess the challenges and opportunities facing contemporary American politics.
Recommended Textbook
American Government 2014 Election 12th Edition by Karen OConnor
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Page 2
Chapter 1: American Government: Roots, context, and Culture
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Q1) Americans generally have the lowest levels of confidence in which of the following institutions?
A) the press
B) business and industry
C) the executive branch
D) Congress
Answer: D
Q2) In a direct democracy,decisions are made collectively by citizens using
A) indirect democracy
B) majority rule
C) enlightened representatives
D) trustee representatives
Answer: B
Q3) Americans tend to share the common goal of achieving the __________,which generally includes a happy and successful life,wealth,a house,and a better life for one's children.
Answer: American dream
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Chapter 2: The Constitution
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Q1) The "Intolerable Acts" was the colonists' name for the __________ Acts of 1774.
A) Stamp
B) Tea
C) Coercive
D) Mercantile
Answer: C
Q2) Describe the differences between the First and Second Continental Congress.What was the final resolution of the Second Continental Congress?
Answer: An ideal response will:
1.Explain the nature of the First Continental Congress and its focus on reaching resolution with Great Britain on issues of important colonial rights.
2.Explain the nature of the Second Continental Congress and its initial focus on averting armed conflict with Great Britain.
3.Discuss the events that eventually prompted the Second Continental Congress to declare independence from Great Britain.
Q3) James Madison was the author of many of the essays known as the __________. Answer: Federalist Papers
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Federal System
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Q1) The Supreme Court's Dred Scott v.Sandford (1857)decision narrowed the scope of the federal government's power by determining that __________.
A) state laws were supreme over conflicting national laws
B) states had inherent power to nullify federal laws
C) Congress could not regulate interstate commerce
D) Congress lacked the authority to ban slavery in the territories
Answer: D
Q2) __________ powers are shared by the federal and state governments.
A) Concurrent
B) Confederal
C) Enumerated
D) Unified
Answer: A
Q3) Since 1990,the Supreme Court has consistently expanded the power of Congress to regulate interstate commerce.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Civil Liberties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exclusionary rule prohibits police from using illegally seized evidence at trial.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for determining whether enough evidence exists to go to trial?
A) trial court
B) defense attorney
C) prosecutor
D) grand jury
Q3) Why did the Supreme Court briefly end capital punishment in 1972?
Q4) The Supreme Court has interpreted the __________ Amendment to protect an individual's right to own a firearm for self-defense.
Q5) What is the right to privacy? Explain the Supreme Court's decision that the Constitution protects the right to privacy.
Q6) Explain the difference between libel and slander.
Q7) Explain the evolution of the selective incorporation doctrine.
Q8) Prior restraint is a constitutional doctrine that prevents the government from prohibiting __________ before the fact.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Civil Rights
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Q1) The Thirteenth Amendment bans slavery.When was it passed?
A) when the South seceded from the Union
B) during the Civil War
C) immediately after the Civil War
D) during the civil rights movement
Q2) Which of these does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 ban?
A) poll taxes and grandfather clauses
B) discrimination in public accommodations
C) integration in public transportation
D) nonviolent direct action
Q3) The federal government has mismanaged trust funds related to American Indian lands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The refusal of __________ to give up her seat on a public bus was an act of civil disobedience that led to the Montgomery Bus Boycott.
Q5) How does the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)define a disabled person? What rights are guaranteed to disabled people under the ADA? What infrastructure must be created to ensure these rights?
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Chapter 6: Congress
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Q1) In the face of inaction by a House committee,a discharge petition signed by a majority can force a bill out of a committee and to the floor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At their party __________ at the beginning of each new Congress,Democrats will meet to nominate or elect party officers,review committee assignments,discuss party policy,impose party discipline,set party themes,and coordinate media.
Q3) Describe the powers enumerated to Congress in Article I,section 8 of the Constitution.Discuss the implications of the necessary and proper clause for Congress.
Q4) After a bill is reported by a full committee,it goes to __________.
A) a conference committee composed of members from the original House and Senate committees
B) the House Committee on Rules or the Senate floor
C) a subcommittee
D) the House or Senate floor
Q5) Cloture is the only way other senators can end a(n)__________.
Q6) The most powerful person in Congress is the __________.
Q7) What is the incumbency advantage,and what contributes to it?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Presidency
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Q1) If Barack Obama wants to disapprove individual items within a spending bill rather than the bill in its entirety,he can use the line-item veto.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare the White House staff and the Cabinet.
Q3) How is a vice presidential vacancy filled?
A) The Cabinet nominates a new vice president who must then be approved by Congress.
B) The president appoints a new vice president who assumes office immediately.
C) The president appoints a new vice president who must then be approved by Congress.
D) The Senate appoints a new vice president who must then be approved by the president.
Q4) Congress can remove a president through __________.
A) veto
B) executive privilege
C) a House impeachment vote
D) a Senate impeachment trial
Q5) Describe the informal powers of the president.
Q6) What is the role of executive agreements in foreign policy? When are they used?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Executive Branch and the Federal Bureaucracy
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Q1) The __________ consists of the departments,agencies,and offices within the executive branch that perform the functions of government.
A) administration
B) bureaucracy
C) cabinet
D) civil service
Q2) How does Congress exercise control over the federal bureaucracy?
Q3) One purpose of the Administrative Procedures Act is to __________.
A) ensure opportunities for public participation in the rule-making process
B) give federal agencies greater discretion in the rule-making process
C) streamline bureaucratic activities in the rule-making process
D) give the president greater control over the rule-making process
Q4) What are independent executive agencies? Provide an example.
Q5) How are Cabinet secretaries similar to independent agency administrators?
A) Both are nominated by the president.
B) Neither can be fired by the president.
C) Both typically remain in office over multiple presidential administrations.
D) Both are part of the federal civil service system.
Q6) The president appoints,but cannot easily dismiss,officials who serve on
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Chapter 9: The Judiciary
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Q1) How and whether judicial decisions are translated into actual policy is known as judicial __________.
A) implementation
B) execution
C) legislation
D) intention
Q2) The vast majority of all cases are tried in __________.
A) federal courts
B) the U.S. district courts
C) appellate courts
D) state courts
Q3) The authority to be the first court to hear a case is which type of jurisdiction?
A) appellate
B) constitutional
C) federal
D) original
Q4) Define an implementing population and a consumer population in the implementation of judicial decisions.Provide an example for each population.
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Page 12
Chapter 10: Public Opinion and Political Socialization
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Q1) How a question is worded on a public opinion poll can intentionally or unintentionally skew results.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the 1936 Literary Digest poll that predicted Roosevelt's reelection defeat is true?
A) The poll oversampled the upper middle class and the wealthy.
B) The poll oversampled groups heavily Democratic in orientation.
C) The poll excluded owners of automobiles and telephones.
D) The poll undersampled middle-class voters who owned telephones.
Q3) To determine if families with children would use school vouchers to send their children to charter schools,from which of the following populations should you select a sample?
A) women with children
B) citizens in the school district
C) parents
D) parents of children under age 18
Q4) The __________,a popular magazine that first began national presidential polling in 1916,was a pioneer in the use of the straw poll.
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Chapter 11: Political Parties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The modern era of political parties is notable for the rise of the political party organization and a move away from the candidate-centered politics of the nineteenth century.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare the U.S.electoral system to European proportional representation systems and address how candidates for U.S.office behave in response to our system.In your opinion which system is more responsive to the desires and opinions of the people?
Q3) What has become the most powerful predictor of how members of Congress vote?
A) economic circumstances
B) their campaign finances
C) how hot-button issues are being discussed in the media
D) party affiliation
Q4) Identify the major activities or functions of political parties.
Q5) Members of think tanks are primarily responsible for writing the national party platforms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Hispanic voters tend to support the __________ Party.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Elections and Voting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about young citizens?
A) Young citizens are more likely to vote in mid-term elections than in presidential elections.
B) Young citizens are less likely to vote.
C) Young citizens are more likely to vote for Republican candidates than for Democratic candidates.
D) Young citizens are more likely to front-load.
Q2) What is a referendum? Why might a legislator want to call for a referendum?
Q3) How many electoral votes are needed to be elected president?
A) 210
B) 270
C) 335
D) 538
Q4) Congressional incumbents tend to have a low chance of reelection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Voter turnout in the United States is higher than in other Western democracies.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is ticket-splitting,and why might voters engage in this election activity?
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Campaign Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the differences between the primary and general election campaigns?
Q2) How do tracking polls affect the way traditional media cover elections?
Q3) Based on the number of candidate visits,which of the following states did both candidates consider a high priority in the 2012 election?
A) Wisconsin
B) Nevada
C) Pennsylvania
D) Florida
Q4) What was the largest source of campaign spending in 2004?
A) 501(c) groups
B) 527 groups
C) PACs
D) Super PACs
Q5) The Supreme Court struck down the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act as an unconstitutional infringement of free speech almost immediately after it was enacted.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the significance of presidential debates? Give an example.
Q7) What is Lyndon Johnson's "Peace Little Girl" campaign ad? Why is it significant?
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Chapter 14: The News Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) A public official has the most control over the spin of his or her message
A) during a press briefing
B) during a press conference
C) in an interview
D) in a press release
Q2) Which of the following has a significant impact on a news agency's likelihood of being able to ask a question at a White House press briefing?
A) the time of day when the briefing occurs
B) the agenda set forth by the press secretary
C) seat assignments in the briefing room
D) whether the president attends the briefing
Q3) The type of information presented by a privately owned,for-profit press may be suspect because of the importance of what?
A) the bottom line
B) editorial preferences
C) the penny press
D) government regulations
Q4) What is media consolidation,and what are its consequences?
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Chapter 15: Interest Groups
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of the free rider problem?
A) a political action committee contributing to candidates from both major political parties
B) an elected official relying on information from lobbyists
C) an environmentalist deciding not to join an environmental group but appreciating the group's environmental stewardship
D) an environmental group disagreeing on what policy goals to pursue
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a public interest group?
A) a consumer rights group
B) a professional association
C) a labor union
D) a group representing a state government
Q3) How does grassroots lobbying differ from other efforts by interest groups to influence government?
A) Grassroots lobbying focuses more on cultivating relationships with elected officials.
B) Grassroots lobbying is more heavily regulated.
C) Grassroots lobbying focuses more on influencing public opinion.
D) Grassroots lobbying is more costly.
Q4) Discuss the role of interest groups in elections.
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Chapter 16: Domestic Policy
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Q1) Describe the role of the state,local,and federal governments related to education policy.
Q2) Discuss the implementation of public policies.How can implementation change the policy? Give an example.
Q3) More than 25 percent of the energy consumed in the United States today comes from renewable resources,a massive increase from two decades ago.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fracking is a process for developing new water resources and is used in Western states to supplement groundwater supplies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are some of the public health problems that face the United States? How does the federal government address these public health problems? List the tools available to the government,and how they are used.
Q6) Gasoline prices vary significantly in the United States and around the world.Why?
Q7) What federal environmental laws were passed in the early 1970s?
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Chapter 17: Economic Policy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the proposed benefits of deregulation,and who in general supports this position?
Q2) Which of the following is accurate with regard to the national debt in the United States?
A) The national debt as a percentage of GDP is about the same in the United States as it is in Japan.
B) The national debt as a percentage of GDP is lower in the United States than it is in any other Western democracy.
C) The national debt as a percentage of GDP is higher in the United States than it is in any other Western democracy.
D) The national debt as a percentage of GDP is about the same as the GDP.
Q3) The money supply __________ when the Federal Reserve Board increases the discount rate.
Q4) If you support laissez-faire economic policies,you would generally favor
A) a reduction in the amount of economic regulation by the government
B) an increase in the level of taxes assessed by state governments
C) an increase in the collective bargaining rights for labor unions
D) an increase in the tariffs assessed on goods imported into the United States
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Chapter 18: Foreign and Defense Policy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who heads the U.S.intelligence community?
A) the director of the Central Intelligence Agency
B) the Director of National Intelligence
C) the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
D) the vice president
Q2) What was the main purpose of the Marshall Plan?
A) to repair relations between the United States and the Soviet Union near the end of the Cold War
B) to help Europe's economic recovery after World War II
C) to prevent the spread of weapons of mass destruction to unstable governments
D) to root out and eliminate potential terrorist threats before they are fully formed
Q3) Who instituted the Marshall Plan and who benefited directly from it?
A) The Soviet Union instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit Eastern Europe.
B) Germany instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit the United States.
C) The United States instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit Western Europe.
D) Eastern Europe instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit Western Europe.
Q4) After World War II,the United States,Canada,and Western Europe formed a peacetime alliance known as the __________.
Q5) How is terrorism fundamentally different from traditional military action?
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