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This course provides a comprehensive overview of the United States political structure, examining the foundational principles, institutions, and processes that define American governance. Students will explore the Constitution, the separation of powers, federalism, and the roles of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. Additional topics include the function of political parties, the electoral system, interest groups, and the impact of public opinion and media on policy-making. The course aims to foster a deep understanding of how the U.S. political system operates in theory and practice, and its influence on both domestic and international affairs.
Recommended Textbook
American Politics Today Essentials 5th Edition by William T. Bianco
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Sample Questions
Q1) If people decide there is a problem worth solving that requires the creation of a public good, government involvement is necessary because
A)majority factions will try to ensure that the good works only for themselves.
B)it is difficult for individuals to provide common resources on their own.
C)of positive externalities that make the good otherwise undesirable.
D)citizens would be able to sue the government in federal court.
Answer: B
Q2) When federal officials attempt to address a problem, such as assisting the poor, the sick, or the aged, they are acting
A)under their constitutional power to provide order.
B)under their constitutional power to promote the general welfare.
C)through powers specified in the supremacy clause of the U.S.Constitution.
D)through powers specified in the Bill of Rights.
Answer: B
Q3) Federalism refers to the division of power between Congress, the president, and the Supreme Court.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) When did the Revolutionary War end?
A)1779
B)1781
C)1784
D)1786
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following concepts applies most directly to the balance of power between state and national governments?
A)parliamentary system
B)bicameralism
C)checks and balances
D)supremacy clause
Answer: D
Q3) What was the biggest objection of the Antifederalists to the Constitution?
Answer: The Antifederalists opposed ratification of the Constitution because they believed that the new national government created by the Constitution would be a threat to individual civil liberties.Thus, they favored strong state governments.
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Q1) What was the doctrine of nullification and why was it important?
Answer: The doctrine of nullification was a belief promulgated by John C.Calhoun in the early nineteenth century that states possessed the right to ignore a law passed by Congress if state officials believed the law was unconstitutional.It was important because the doctrine of states' rights culminated later in the century with the secession of southern states and then the Civil War.
Q2) What is picket fence federalism?
Answer: Picket fence federalism is a refined vision of cooperative federalism in which policy makers within a specific policy area work together across all levels of government.
Q3) The ________ clause is vague but gives the national government a very broad grant of power to carry out its responsibilities.
A)enumerated powers
B)full faith and credit
C)supremacy
D)necessary and proper
Answer: D
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Q1) Have all gun tragedies led to more gun control legislation in U.S.history? Be sure to use specific examples by way of response.
Q2) A township council passes an ordinance that prevents a Nazi group from marching through town.The Supreme Court justices would likely overturn the ordinance as a violation of the group's freedom of A)religion.
B)petition.
C)assembly.
D)speech.
Q3) When it comes to the question of prior restraint on the press, the Supreme Court justices
A)have set a high bar for the government to meet if it wants to restrict the press.
B)favor the national government over the press, particularly in times of war and conflict.
C)follow Congress's lead in regulating the press.
D)defer to the Federal Communications Commission.
Q4) What is the recent history of the Supreme Court when it comes to rights for gay Americans?
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Q1) The Supreme Court justices overturned part of the Violence Against Women Act of 1994.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The belief that women were NOT strong enough to compete in the business world was called protectionism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because of laws passed during the past 50 years, there are almost no differences between the objective conditions of racial minorities and whites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the Americans with Disabilities Act and why is it important?
Q5) Civil rights are
A)guarantees of equal protection under the law.
B)prohibitions on government action against individuals.
C)another name for civil liberties.
D)guarantees of equality of outcomes.
Q6) What is the rational basis test and why is it important?
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Q1) Effective home style helps to explain the rise of A)filibustering.
B)the incumbent advantage.
C)gerrymandering.
D)the whip system.
Q2) The enumerated powers of Congress can be found in A)the Federalist Papers.
B)Article I of the Constitution.
C)Article II of the Constitution.
D)Article III of the Constitution.
Q3) When members of Congress wait until there is a crisis before taking action in addressing problems in the bureaucracy, they are engaged in A)fire alarm oversight.
B)judicial oversight.
C)advice and consent oversight.
D)police patrol oversight.
Q4) Most of the work done in Congress occurs in standing committees.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is seniority and why is it so important in Congress?
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Q1) A signing statement clarifies the president's interpretation of the law as a precaution in the event that the law is challenged in the courts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which two presidents were crucial in the formation of the Democratic Party?
A)Thomas Jefferson and James Madison
B)George Washington and John Adams
C)Abraham Lincoln and Ulysses Grant
D)Andrew Jackson and Martin Van Buren
Q3) Which one of the following is part of the president's legislative powers?
A)coining money
B)serving as party leader
C)starting the legislative process by proposing bills
D)vetoing legislation
Q4) James Madison issued a doctrine in 1823 stating that America would remain neutral in wars involving European nations and that these nations must cease attempts to colonize or occupy areas in North and South America.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) One of the reasons regulations are controversial is because they require bureaucrats to choose between policy goals that are often incompatible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the Senior Executive Service (SES)?
Q3) Which one of the following describes a situation in which bureaucrats implement policies that are more consistent with their preferences than those of elected officials?
A)stacking the deck
B)rule making
C)a principal-agent game
D)bureaucratic drift
Q4) Which one of the following describes a situation in which legislators monitor a bureaucratic organization only after someone complains or a problem of implementation has been brought to their attention?
A)advance warning
B)fire alarm oversight
C)police patrol oversight
D)bureaucratic drift
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Q1) The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes those cases that go directly to the Court for a full hearing.As specified in Article III of the Constitution, this includes disputes involving foreign ambassadors, countries, or cases in which a state is a party in the case.
A)True B)False
Q2) The current Supreme Court is quite conservative but also activist.
A)True B)False
Q3) The Supreme Court justices waited two years to issue their opinion in Brown v.Board of Education because
A)they worried that the president would not enforce their decision.
B)they were sensitive to how the public would react to their decision.
C)it was a complicated ruling that illustrates how much legal research is often needed to reach a decision.
D)the chief justice wanted at least one dissenting opinion to make the Court appear to be even-handed and balanced.
Q4) What is the jurisdiction of a court?
Q5) Explain why Marbury v.Madison (1803) was a case involving judicial review.
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Q1) Monetary policy is a shared exercise between the national government and the states.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What can be concluded from reading this passage?
A)The controversy over grazing rights and environmental policy in the Western United States has been resolved.
B)Ranchers tend to forge alliances with the activist environmental groups in the United States.
C)Free market environmentalism may be a way to forge a working compromise between those espousing grazing rights versus those who advocate for environmental protection.
D)It is likely that federal officials will give back millions of acres to the states to sell to their citizens.
Q3) What is income support and how can it be operationalized?
Q4) The Federal Reserve Board is in charge of fiscal policy in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a public policy?
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Q1) What is the purpose of the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
Q2) U.S.antiterrorism actions that are NOT coordinated with other nations are an example of
A)unilateral action.
B)multilateral action.
C)containment.
D)détente.
Q3) Interest groups play a very small role in foreign policy because foreign governments are prohibited from lobbying.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why does the United States provide foreign aid?
A)It can help facilitate international agreements.
B)That is the cost of a seat on the Security Council.
C)Isolationism is the dominant foreign policy paradigm in America today.
D)The American public is strongly in favor of providing foreign aid.
Q5) What is the difference between Gross Domestic Product and Gross National Income? Explain.
Q6) Is military force all-powerful? Why or why not?
Q7) What was the dominant idea utilized by U.S.officials in the conflict in Vietnam?
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