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This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure, functions, and processes of the United States government. Students will explore the historical foundations of American democracy, the Constitution, federalism, the roles of the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, and the interplay between national, state, and local governments. The course also examines political parties, elections, public policy, civil rights, and civil liberties, encouraging critical analysis of contemporary issues and the impact of government decisions on society. Through readings, discussions, and practical case studies, students will gain a deeper understanding of how the U.S. government operates and its influence on everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding American Government 14th Edition by Susan Welch
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1046 Verified Questions
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Q1) Africans, men and women, forcibly removed to America __________.
A) did share the same language and culture
B) did share the same religion culture
C) did share the same religion
D) did not share common traditions
Answer: D
Q2) Many "birthers" are prevalent in the __________.
A) West
B) Mountain West
C) North
D) South
Answer: D
Q3) The first immigrants that went on to found many different civilizations in North America were __________.
A) Africans
B) Asians
C) Native Americans
D) Europeans
Answer: C
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Q1) The Three-Fifths Compromise __________.
A) limited imported goods to 3/5s of a ship's cargo
B) was a compromise with southern slaveholders about how slaves would be counted
C) limited the amount of taxes that could be raised by the national government
D) increased the power of northern states
Answer: B
Q2) By weakening the national government, the Articles of Confederation __________.
A) was evidence of a lack of national identity among Americans at the time
B) enhanced the ability of the states to provide for a national defense
C) created an opening for rebellion
D) shifted power to the president
Answer: A
Q3) Separation of powers creates the possibility of __________.
A) divided government
B) unified government
C) authoritarianism
D) confederalism
Answer: A
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Q1) Which type of federalism was used by the Confederate States of America to justify succession from the Union in the 1860s?
A) state-centered
B) judicial-centered
C) nation-centered
D) legislative-centered
Answer: A
Q2) Presidents ___________ endorse(d) the states-as-laboratories form of policy experimentation.
A) Johnson and Nixon
B) Reagan and Bush (senior)
C) Clinton and Obama
D) Nixon and Ford
Answer: C
Q3) The No Child Left Behind legislation is a example of __________ federalism.
A) nation-centered
B) state-centered
C) cooperative
D) judicial-centered
Answer: C
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Q1) Americans who believe that government can be a positive and constructive force in society are called __________.
A) agnostics
B) socialists
C) conservatives
D) liberals
Q2) Describe how the family impacts political socialization.
Q3) Americans who believe that individuals and communities are better off without government assistance and that economic activity should be free from government interference are called __________.
A) agnostics
B) socialists
C) conservatives
D) liberals
Q4) Opinions about __________ tend to be stable.
A) candidates
B) public officials
C) attachments to political parties
D) current presidents
Q5) Discuss two advantages and disadvantages of straw and scientific polls
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Q1) Media coverage of some domestic issues, such as gay rights and homelessness, tends to exhibit a tilt toward __________ positions.
A) third-party
B) liberal
C) conservative
D) libertarian
Q2) The careful staging of Ronald Reagan's visit to the demilitarized zone between North and South Korea so that viewers would have a clear view of an American president demonstrating "American strength and resolve" on the front line against communism is an example of a(n) __________.
A) photo op
B) sound bite
C) interview
D) press conference
Q3) __________ is(are) not considered a mass medium.
A) Radio
B) Television
C) Newspapers
D) Personal journals
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Q1) The most successful interest group for women's election to national office is
A) EMILY's List
B) the Independent Women's Forum
C) the National Organization of Women
D) Women Workers of America
Q2) Cargill and Archer-Daniels-Midland are examples of __________.
A) large agribusinesses
B) small agribusinesses
C) family farms
D) mid-size family farms
Q3) Former members of Congress, congressional staffers, White House aides, and federal bureaucrats are recruited as lobbyists by lobbying firms because of their
A) passion for political infighting
B) interest in retiring from Washington
C) friendship with union members
D) contacts with government officials
Q4) Discuss the factors that account for the large number of interest groups in the United States.
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Q1) By 1840, the size of the electorate had __________.
A) expanded incrementally
B) doubled
C) plateaued
D) slightly decreased
Q2) Church attendance is an indicator of party affiliation in that regular churchgoers identify with the __________ Party and less religious people connect with the __________ Party.
A) Republican, Green
B) Republican, Democratic
C) Democratic, Republican
D) Republican, Independent
Q3) At the time, Washington's unanimous election in 1788 suggested that __________.
A) proportional representation had real benefits
B) the nation would be governed by consensus
C) responsible party government was a realistic goal
D) voters will reward successful generals with the presidency
Q4) What was the New Deal Coalition?
Q5) Compare and contrast the American two-party system with a country that has a multiparty system.
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Q1) In the eyes of the Progressive reformers, the lower class __________.
A) should be assisted by private charity not government
B) were seen as the cause of corruption in politics
C) were those most likely to support political reforms
D) were irrelevant to the reform movement because they probably would not vote anyway
Q2) What was the significance of the Voting Rights Act?
Q3) The Electoral College __________.
A) is an example of direct democracy
B) means that the U.S. directly elects its president
C) gives small states more influence in electing the president
D) gives large states with great populations little power to elect the president
Q4) Creating minority-majority districts helps __________.
A) sitting presidents
B) welfare
C) representation
D) Congressional procedure
Q5) Who could vote under the original draft of the U.S. Constitution?
Q6) How does the Electoral College help smaller states?
Q7) Why do candidates focus few resources on "safe" states?
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Q1) A congressperson getting money added to the budget for highway construction in the his or her home district is practicing __________.
A) pork barrel funding
B) gerrymandering
C) franking
D) log rolling
Q2) Which of the following presidents had the most vetoes overridden?
A) Ronald Reagan
B) George H. W. Bush
C) Bill Clinton
D) George W. Bush
Q3) How do the constituencies of senators and representatives differ?
Q4) The real leader of the Senate in terms of power is the ___________.
A) vice president
B) president pro tempore
C) majority leader
D) speaker
Q5) How is the work of Congress done in committees?
Q6) What is a unified government?
Q7) What are the mechanisms of congressional oversight? Are they effective?
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Q1) The president's powers to recognize or reject foreign ambassadors __________.
A) are largely ceremonial
B) have little impact on foreign policy
C) are highly symbolic and profoundly significant
D) were established with the Twenty-second Amendment
Q2) __________ was responsible for reorganizing the Department of Health, Education, and Welfare, signaling the higher priority his administration intended to place on domestic social programs.
A) George W. Bush
B) Jimmy Carter
C) Ronald Reagan
D) Bill Clinton
Q3) Not "receiving" the ambassador of the Communist government of mainland China until years after the founding of the People's Republic of China is an example of the president's __________.
A) recognition powers
B) franking privileges
C) executive privileges
D) partisan self-interest
Q4) What is executive privilege?

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Q1) Public agencies are supposed to __________.
A) operate inefficiently
B) work on behalf of Congress
C) make a profit
D) serve the public interest
Q2) List three categories of federal agencies and some examples of each.
Q3) Clear and strong feedback about its performance when a suit has been filed is a check on bureaucracy provided by the __________ branch.
A) executive
B) legislative
C) military
D) judicial
Q4) __________ chose heads for regulatory agencies, such as OSHA, the Consumer Product Safety, and the EPA, who agreed with his goal of reducing government regulation.
A) George Washington
B) Ronald Reagan
C) Theodore Roosevelt
D) J. Edgar Hoover
Q5) Describe three laws that keep the federal bureaucracy visible and open.
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Q1) Statutes are laws ____________.
A) passed by legislatures
B) outlined in the Constitution
C) written by judges
D) written by the president
Q2) Congress has successfully impeached fifteen judges and has removed __________.
A) none
B) eight
C) ten
D) fifteen
Q3) The primary expense in gaining access to the courts is paying for __________.
A) expert witnesses
B) attorneys
C) court filings
D) juror summonses
Q4) The Americans with Disabilities Act is an example of ____________.
A) a well-written law that required little judicial interpretation
B) a law that has required the courts to determine its scope
C) judicial reluctance to make law
D) the limitations of the Supreme Court
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Q1) During the runup to the Iraq War, a man wearing a T-shirt with the slogan "Give Peace a Chance" was arrested because __________.
A) the T-shirt was considered offensive speech
B) the T-shirt was considered a demonstration on private property
C) the T-shirt was considered seditious
D) the T-shirt wearer organized a rally in a public forum
Q2) In what manner does seditious speech allow for more democratic government?
Q3) The constitutional protection against self-incrimination safeguards __________.
A) the right to plea bargain
B) symbolic speech
C) the privacy of knowledge and thoughts
D) the unconstitutionality of prior restraint
Q4) Which of the following is a limit on demonstrations?
A) Demonstrations cannot be held in public.
B) Demonstrations that offend people are illegal.
C) Demonstrations cannot take place on private property without the owner's permission.
D) Demonstrations by groups of people larger than 100 are prohibited.
Q5) Explain the concept of "natural rights."
Q6) How do the courts feel about the right to die?
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Q1) How were blacks conditioned to feel inferior to whites?
Q2) While President Eisenhower was not pleased with the Brown decision, he sent federal troops to enforce it in which state?
A) Mississippi
B) Baltimore
C) Arkansas
D) Alabama
Q3) Which court reversed the pattern of upholding laws discriminatory towards women?
A) Marshall Court
B) Warren Court
C) Rehnquist Court
D) Burger Court
Q4) One way the Constitution endorsed slavery was through __________.
A) the southern House seats
B) the supremacy clause
C) the 1808 importation limit
D) the Thirteenth Amendment
Q5) What is racial profiling? Does its effectiveness as a law enforcement tool mitigate its effects on civil rights?
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Q6) Describe Arizona's controversial 2010 immigration law?
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Q1) How does one realize an economic depression has taken place?
A) significant oil price hikes
B) an increase in GDP
C) prolonged high unemployment
D) government intrusion in the economy
Q2) Capitalism __________ promote(s) equality of opportunity.
A) never
B) may not
C) always
D) refuses to
Q3) Describe the partisan debate over revising the U.S. tax code.
Q4) What kind of economy has individuals and corporations own its capital or productive capacity, businesses, factories, and farms?
A) socialist
B) capitalist
C) Communist
D) mixed
Q5) How does a mixed economy work?
Q6) How can one tell the difference between a depression and a recession?
Q7) Give three (3) examples of where the federal government spends money.
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Q1) Scientists first warned about the possibility of global warming in __________.
A) 1927
B) 1824
C) 1971
D) 2002
Q2) Which island nation has already lost one fifth of its population to a climate exodus as the sea has been rising?
A) Trinidad
B) Tuvalu
C) England
D) Hawaii
Q3) What was the political reason for President Obama's support for clean coal and biofuels?
Q4) President Reagan's desire to limit government regulation led to the __________.
A) appointments of officials ideologically opposed to the Carter administration policies
B) appointments of officials ideologically supportive of the Carter administration policies
C) firings of officials from the Roosevelt administration
D) firings of officials from the Nixon administration
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Q1) Détente involved __________.
A) seeking nonconfrontational relations with the Soviets
B) isolating the United States from most foreign relations
C) focusing foreign policy on trade relations
D) renewed efforts at containment
Q2) France, the United Kingdom, and the United States going into Libya to support insurgents against Muammar Gaddafi is an example of __________.
A) protecting the physical security
B) protecting economic security
C) securing neighbors and allies
D) extending the sphere of influence
Q3) What famous author claimed it is difficult to have a coherent foreign policy in a democracy?
A) John Locke
B) Alexis de Tocqueville
C) James Fenimore Cooper
D) Thomas Jefferson
Q4) How has globalization changed U.S. foreign policy? What challenges might be in the future?
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Q1) What is medical tourism?
Q2) The Affordable Care Act __________.
A) features an individual mandate
B) features "Medicare for all"
C) was offered to Congress by the president
D) supports and funds a public option
Q3) Before the 2010 health care law, people who could afford health care coverage were denied benefits usually because of __________.
A) inadequate income
B) their current employers
C) preexisting conditions
D) they are already on Medicare or Medicaid
Q4) What is S-CHIP?
A) a federal law ensuring patient privacy
B) health coverage for children
C) a chip placed under a patient's skin storing his or her medical history
D) where Medicare funds are held
Q5) What are the costs and benefits of Medicare and Medicaid?
Q6) How has Massachusetts attempted to cope with health care reform?
Q7) What is the major role of the PHS?
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