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This course offers an in-depth exploration of the foundations, principles, and development of the United States constitutional government. Students will examine the historical context and philosophical ideas that shaped the Constitution, analyze its structure, and explore the functions and powers of the three branches of government. The course addresses significant Supreme Court decisions, the evolution of civil rights and liberties, and the role of federalism in American governance. Through critical analysis of key documents and contemporary issues, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the constitutional framework that underpins U.S. political institutions and processes.
Recommended Textbook
American Government Power and Purpose 15th Edition by Stephen Ansolabehere
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17 Chapters
2398 Verified Questions
2398 Flashcards
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elected officials are motivated by reelection, but political actors who are not elected do not have identifiable motivations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A congressman who enthusiastically supports subsidies for home heating oil but opposes regulation to control its price because his family owns a heating-oil distributorship is basing his policy preferences on
A)personal interests.
B)electoral ambitions.
C)environmental interests.
D)institutional ambitions.
Answer: A
Q3) The control over what a group will consider for discussion is called agenda power.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Why did the framers feel a need to replace the Articles of Confederation?
Answer: The Articles of Confederation established a weak central government with no executive branch or independent judiciary. The Continental Congress lacked the ability to actually enforce its mandates.
As a result, the Continental Congress could not enforce the treaties it made with other countries or defend American merchant trade. State governments were often dominated by radical elements that interfered with the economic status quo, including diluting the value of currency to aid debtors.
Shays's Rebellion in Massachusetts in 1787 highlighted the fragility of internal security in the new country. The state of Massachusetts struggled to put down the revolt by desperate farmers, and the central government had little power to aid the state authorities or induce other states to assist.
Q2) The First Continental Congress called for a total boycott of British goods.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federalism is a system of government in which the Constitution divides power between a central government and regional governments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Each state is normally expected to honor the "public Acts, Records, and Proceedings" that take place in any other state because of Article IV, Section 1, of the Constitution, which is referred to as the __________ clause.
A)comity
B)due and proper
C)necessary and proper
D)full faith and credit
Answer: D
Q3) There were no Supreme Court reviews of congressional acts in the 50-plus years between Marbury v. Madison (1803) and Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The incorporation of the Bill of Rights into the Fourteenth Amendment took place by A)action of state governments gradually over time.
B)a single legislative action of Congress that was signed by the president.
C)action of the U.S. Supreme Court gradually over time.
D)a single major decision of the U.S. Supreme Court, the Slaughter House Cases.
Q2) Why are there so few convictions of those who sharply criticize politicians and other public figures for libel?
A)The public figure must prove that the defendant deliberately spread false and malicious information.
B)Newspaper outlets retain high-profile attorneys who are so skilled that the public figures never really have a chance.
C)Determining what transpired in the spoken word is incredibly difficult without audio recordings.
D)Verifying who a voice belongs to in an audio recording is difficult.
Q3) Constitutional objections to the death penalty often invoke the necessary and proper clause of the constitution.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding segregation?
A)De jure segregation is created by law; de facto segregation is created by private behavior.
B)De facto segregation is created by law; de jure segregation is created by private behavior.
C)De jure segregation is created for a short time frame; de facto segregation is created to last many years.
D)De facto segregation can be banned; de jure segregation cannot be addressed by law.
Q2) Are courts political institutions? Explain why or why not in relation to the advancement of civil rights in the United States.
Q3) Which 1986 Supreme Court case held that the right to privacy did not protect homosexual activity?
A)Bowers v. Hardwick
B)Texas v. Johnson
C)Lawrence v. Texas
D)Griswold v. Connecticut
Q4) Since passage of the 1964 Civil Rights Act, how has the civil rights struggle been expanded to include other groups?
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154 Verified Questions
154 Flashcards
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Questions
Q1) When congressional representatives provide special benefits for their constituents in otherwise unrelated bills, it is called a(n)
A)perk.
B)earmark.
C)local prerogative.
D)itemized request.
Q2) Executive agreements require the Senate's advice and consent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an example of a special Senate power?
A)impeachment
B)advise and consent
C)executive agreement
D)declaring war
Q4) Legislators who vote against their party's positions risk expulsion from Congress.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do the House of Representatives and the Senate check and balance each other's power?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the powers specifically granted to the president in the text of the Constitution called?
A)manifest prose
B)delegated powers
C)articulated authorities
D)expressed powers
Q2) The president may deploy troops in a state or city without a specific request from the state legislature or governor if the president considers it necessary to maintain an essential national service during an emergency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Since 1945, presidents have officially declared war on other countries several times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) American citizens vote directly for the president.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the history principle help explain changes in presidential power?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protection from coalitional drift comes at the price of an increased potential for A)agentic shift.
B)bureaucratic drift.
C)political exposure.
D)free agency.
Q2) What are the primary characteristics of bureaucracy? Is bureaucracy an efficient form of organization?
Q3) One major challenge in defense policy making is
A)Congress viewing the defense budget as pork-barrel legislation.
B)convincing Americans to cooperate with the military draft.
C)military interference with the democratic process.
D)declining marksmanship in the American population.
Q4) When Congress and the president are at odds, bureaucrats are more likely to evade responsibility for bureaucratic drift.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Department of Justice is an agency for internal security.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the foundations of judicial independence in the United States is
A)judicial review.
B)independent elections.
C)the federal bailiff force.
D)immunity from impeachment.
Q2) What is the name of the court practice in which a previous decision by a court applies as a precedent in similar cases until the decision is overruled?
A)common law
B)path dependency
C)habeas corpus
D)stare decisis
Q3) The appellate jurisdiction in the federal courts extends to cases originating in the state courts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Congress can overturn the Supreme Court's interpretation of the Constitution by enacting a new constitutional amendment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Describe how governments have attempted to shape public opinion in support of the established order.
Q2) An individual's view about President Donald Trump's handling of the economy is an example of a political
A)belief.
B)dogma.
C)ideology.
D)doctrine.
Q3) When does membership in social groups affect public opinion?
A)when membership is voluntary only
B)when membership is involuntary only
C)for neither voluntary nor involuntary groups
D)for both voluntary and involuntary groups
Q4) A method used by pollsters to select a representative sample in which every individual in the population has an equal probability of being selected as a participant is called
A)random walk sampling.
B)probability sampling.
C)selection sampling.
D)democratic sampling.

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163 Verified Questions
163 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which decade did Congress finally guarantee that every state elects U.S. House members in single-member districts?
A)1830s
B)1910s
C)1960s
D)1990s
Q2) One purpose of requiring registration was to reduce corruption.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the 2016 election, a voter decided to vote for Hillary Clinton (a Democrat running for president) and Marco Rubio (a Republican running for the U.S. Senate). This type of voter is also known as a
A)most likely voter.
B)sophisticated voter.
C)split-ticket voter.
D)straight-ticket voter.
Q4) Some countries legally require their citizens to vote.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What criteria do voters use to decide among competing candidates?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Party get-out-the-vote efforts are critical for overcoming
A)the general lack of knowledge in the electorate.
B)Americans' native distaste for parties.
C)the free-rider problem in voting.
D)the prisoner's dilemma of voter competition.
Q2) Political parties are responsible for overseeing committee appointments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Party leaders can act as __________ by pursuing ideas that will help expand their own party's support.
A)party facilitators
B)partisan catalysts
C)policy entrepreneurs
D)strategic guides
Q4) During elections, interest groups usually sponsor candidates directly. A)True
B)False
Q5) Young people are more likely than other age groups to be independents. A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The rules of Congress allow its members to travel on corporate jets as long as they pay an amount equal to first-class airfare.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Special congressional appropriations for expenditures on particular projects in specific states or districts that lobbyists seek for their group are called A)earmarks.
B)grants-in-aid.
C)revenue streams.
D)block grants.
Q3) The fact that a group of individuals would all benefit from draining a swamp but that any individual can shirk his or her part of the duties illustrates the concept of A)free riding.
B)negative externalities.
C)collective optimization.
D)groupthink failures.
Q4) How do interest groups attempt to influence elections?
Q5) What strategies are available for interest groups to influence public policy?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rush Limbaugh's show is an example of the A)lack of attention to detail on radio programs.
B)conservative dominance of the talk-radio format.
C)strict fairness regulations placed on the broadcast media.
D)even-handed tone of talk radio.
Q2) The areas of media content that appeal most to an upscale audience are those of A)finance and crime.
B)celebrities and entertainment.
C)local events and drama.
D)news and public affairs.
Q3) According to new FCC regulations, a single company is permitted to own only one major media outlet such as a major daily newspaper, a television, or a radio station within a single metropolitan market.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Websites like Craigslist help make the newspaper business more profitable. A)True
B)False
Q5) To what extent can the media influence government and elected officials?
Q6) Describe how the federal government regulates broadcast and electronic media.
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Q1) What is the first feature inherent in the very idea of government?
A)law and order
B)rules for liability
C)creation of a labor force
D)maintenance of a market structure
Q2) Which of the following policies is an example of monetary policy?
A)a policy where the federal government buys securities to release more money into the economy
B)a policy that raises income taxes
C)a policy where the government requires citizens to purchase health insurance
D)a policy where the government gives grants to states to build highways
Q3) What is the Federal Reserve System, and what are the powers of the Fed? Has the Fed been effective in handling financial crises, such as the foreclosure crisis that occurred in the first decade of the 2000s?
Q4) Before the 1930s, neither the federal nor state governments sought to promote full employment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the primary differences between promotional and regulatory policies?
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Q6) List and define the prerequisites for a market economy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) As of 2018, Social Security payroll taxes do not apply to income over $128,400.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The GI Bill of Rights provided soldiers returning from World War II with access to college.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If tax revenues become inadequate to fund Social Security, Congress can
A)cover any deficit by eliminating the foreign aid budget.
B)order the U.S. Mint to print more money to cover the deficit.
C)reduce cost-of-living adjustments.
D)force states to pay the benefits instead.
Q4) Coupons provided to needy persons by the federal government that can be exchanged for food at most grocery stores are called
A)food stamps.
B)market coupons.
C)nutrition certificates.
D)commodity vouchers.
Q5) Why has the Affordable Care Act (or Obamacare) been controversial?
Q6) How does the national government improve the welfare of the poor?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bureaucrats who are often rivals for power within the intelligence community are the
A)secretary of defense and the director of the CIA.
B)national security adviser and the director of the FBI.
C)chairperson of the National Security Council and the chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
D)secretary of the treasury and the secretary of homeland security.
Q2) What does NATO stand for?
A)North Atlantic Treaty Organization
B)North American Trade Organization
C)North American Treaty Organization
D)National Alliance for Tranquility and Order
Q3) A terrorist group is an example of a(n)
A)isolationist group.
B)appeasement group.
C)security actor.
D)non-state actor.
Q4) List the primary instruments of modern U.S. foreign policy, and illustrate with specific examples how they are used.
Q5) Has the Bush Doctrine of preemptive war made the world a safer place?
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