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Understanding Human Behavior explores the psychological, biological, and social factors that shape the ways individuals think, feel, and act. The course examines theories of personality, motivation, learning, and development, offering insights into how humans perceive themselves and interact with others. Students will analyze how culture, environment, and genetics contribute to differences in behavior, and discuss real-world applications in fields such as mental health, education, and organizational dynamics. Through case studies and interactive activities, this course equips students with a foundational knowledge of the complexities of human behavior, fostering skills in observation, analysis, and empathy.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 12th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Q1) When you review your notes, you will learn more if you
A)improve your notes by filling in gaps, completing thoughts, and looking for connections among the ideas.
B)link new ideas to what you already know.
C)summarize your notes, "boil them down," and organize them.
D)do all of these.
Answer: D
Q2) Evaluating what topics you need to study more by posing questions to yourself is known as
A)mnemonics.
B)self-testing.
C)the LISAN method.
D)the SQ4R method.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a part of self-regulated learning?
A)set specific, objective learning goals
B)making daily, weekly, and monthly plans for learning
C)being your own teacher
D)utilizing massed practice before each exam
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly lady is greatly impressed by an astrologer who describes her as physically vigorous, innovative, and artistically creative.Her reaction to this flattering description is an example of
A)uncritical acceptance.
B)the fallacy of positive instances.
C)the Gall effect.
D)the confusion of cause and effect.
Answer: A
Q2) _____, an American scholar, broadened psychology to include animal behavior, religious experience, and abnormal behavior and helped to establish psychology as a separate discipline with his first book, Principles of Psychology.
A)William James.
B) B.F.Skinner.
C)Edward Titchener.
D)John Watson.
Answer: A
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Q1) Manuel is a psychologist employed by the human relations department of a car manufacturer.He helps select job applicants and also helps to improve workplace conditions and work relationships so that the company can operate effectively.Manuel is most likely a(n) _____ psychologist.
A)personality
B)forensic
C)educational
D)industrial-organizational
Answer: D
Q2) Jessica earned a master's degree and then spent two years being supervised as she helped clients solve problems with their jobs and families.Jessica is most likely a A)psychiatrist.
B)psychoanalyst.
C)counselor.
D)licensed psychiatric advisor.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) By selecting a sample and polling them, we can draw conclusions about the larger group called the population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Responding to a substance like a sugar pill as if it were a drug is called a psychosomatic effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In an experiment to determine whether the THC in marijuana impairs memory, the participants in the experimental group
A)ate food containing THC.
B)ate food that did not contain any THC.
C)were not given any memory tests.
D)exhibited no memory impairment on the tests.
Q4) The survey method involves
A)an in-depth study of the opinions and attitudes of a selected individual.
B)an overview of the attitudes and backgrounds of selected groups.
C)direct observation and recording of a representative sample of behavior.
D)careful questioning of a representative sample of people.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurotransmitters that regulate pain, pleasure, and mood are called A)ions.
B)artificial opiates.
C)placebos.
D)neuropeptides.
Q2) When curare blocks the action of acetylcholine it
A)prevents muscle activation, causing paralysis.
B)stimulates muscle activity, causing convulsions.
C)retards cell growth, causing paralysis.
D)causes neurotransmitters to both inhibit and excite activity.
Q3) After rushing to catch the bus, when you find a seat and begin to relax, the return to your normal heart rate is under the influence of the A)central nervous system.
B)parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
C)sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
D)somatic nervous system.
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Q1) What system is made up of glands whose secretions pass directly into the bloodstream or lymph system?
A)endocrine
B)somatosensory
C)limbic
D)reticular activating
Q2) The _____ is the part of the brain that stores lasting verbal memories and helps us navigate through space.
A)amygdala
B)hypothalamus
C)pons
D)hippocampus
Q3) An aphasia would be the likely result of damage to
A)the primary motor cortex of the frontal lobes.
B)Broca's area or Wernicke's area.
C)the primary visual areas of the occipital lobes.
D)the cerebellum.
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Q1) Differences between the two sides of the body, especially differences in the abilities of the brain hemispheres is called ____________________.
Q2) Lynn tends to almost always lean her head to the right when she is kissing her boyfriend Mike.When using a microscope at work, Lynn tends to use her right eye and even breathes better through her right nostril.Lynn's right preference illustrates A)sidedness.
B)neuroplasticity.
C)acquired hemispherization.
D)preferential lateralization.
Q3) The right hemisphere is dominant for language for A)all left-handed persons.
B)97 percent of right-handed persons and 50 percent of left-handed persons.
C)about 19 percent of left-handed persons and three percent of right-handed persons. D)no one.
Q4) The increased size and wrinkling of the cerebral cortex in higher animals is referred to as ____________________.
Q5) Another term for "mindblindness" is ____________________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) One's heredity, environment, and behavior are the three factors that determine one's _____ at any stage of life.
A)accommodation level
B)developmental level
C)scaffolding level
D)temperament
Q2) The physical growth and development of the body, brain, and nervous system is called
A)readiness.
B)maturation.
C)mobility.
D)heredity.
Q3) A physician who describes an infant as slow to respond and develop because of congenital problems is attributing the cause of the abnormality to the A)postnatal environment.
B)infant's heredity.
C)mother's heredity.
D)intrauterine environment.
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Q1) Five-year-old Steven climbs up the small tree in his parents' backyard.When he's ready to come down, he begins to cry for his mother to help.Steven's inability to retrace his steps to go back down the tree illustrates that Steven's thinking lacks A)animism.
B)reversibility.
C)object permanence.
D)conservation.
Q2) A child might begin to question the idea that Santa Claus's sack could carry millions of toys when the child has grasped the concept of A)assimilation.
B)egocentricism.
C)conservation.
D)reversibility of permanence.
Q3) Evaluations of Piaget's theory have suggested that he A)underestimated the thinking abilities of infants.
B)mistook babies' limited physical skills for mental incompetence.
C)underestimated the impact of culture on mental development.
D)did all of these.
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Q1) _____ proposed eight stages of psychosocial development.
A)Jean Piaget
B)Sigmund Freud
C)Erik Erikson
D)Lawrence Kohlberg
Q2) When resolving psychosocial dilemmas,
A)a new balance is created between a person and society.
B)success can lead to healthy development and a satisfying life.
C)unfavorable outcomes can have a negative impact when coping with later crises.
D)all of these can occur.
Q3) Children in _____ can show mastery of the concept of conservation of quantity.
A)the sensorimotor stage
B)the preoperational stage
C)the concrete operational stage
D)all of these stages
Q4) Which pairings of stages from Erikson, Gould, and Levinson are comparable?
A)identity - escape from dominance - age 30 transition
B)generativity - leaving the family - age 50 transition
C)generativity - crisis of urgency - midlife transition
D)intimacy - crisis of questions - midlife transition
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Q1) According to Thomas Gordon, ____________________ are communications that tell children what effect their behavior has on you. or
Q2) Ben touches his newborn brother's palm, and his little brother takes hold of Ben's finger and will not let go, illustrating the Babinski reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to research in social development, most infants have to be at least 18 months of age before they are able to recognize their images being shown on a television.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Children who tend to be emotionally cold and lacking in spontaneity and who may either fear or hate their parents were probably raised under the ____________________ method of child-rearing.
Q5) According to the sociocultural theory, the _________________________ refers to the range of tasks a child cannot yet master alone but that she or he can accomplish with the guidance of a more capable partner.
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Q1) According to Weber's Law, if a cup of coffee has five teaspoons of sugar in it, you will have to add _____ more before it will be noticeably sweeter.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)five
Q2) Joe is unable to see reds and greens.He
A)would see reds and greens as gray.
B)has a color weakness.
C)has the rarest form of color blindness.
D)has only rods in his eyes, no cones.
Q3) Complete color blindness results in a perception of the world only in black and white and is a result of
A)cones that are missing or function abnormally.
B)rods that fail to function under higher levels of illumination.
C)excessive pigmentation of the cornea, a result of genetic factors.
D)a lens that has lost its elasticity and can no longer focus the image appropriately on the retina.
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Q1) Bobby cut his finger while slicing a tomato.The first pain message he received A)was carried by small nerve fibers.
B)involves the body's reminding system for pain.
C)will quickly disappear.
D)is characterized by all of these.
Q2) The three small bones of the inner ear are called the A)cochlear bones.
B)tympanic bones.
C)basilar ossicles.
D)auditory ossicles.
Q3) The order of sensitivity to the four basic taste sensations from LEAST to MOST sensitive is
A)bitter, salt, sweet, sour.
B)sweet, salt, sour, bitter.
C)salt, sour, sweet, bitter.
D)sour, bitter, salt, sweet.
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Q1) By looking out a window and moving your head from side to side, one can demonstrate _____ with nearby objects appearing to move a sizeable distance as your head moves and more distant objects appearing to move only slightly.
A)linear perspective
B)interposition
C)aerial perspective
D)motion parallax
Q2) Attention is focused by A)intense or shocking stimuli.
B)subliminal stimuli.
C)figure-ground relationships.
D)sequential stimuli.
Q3) To accurately portray a gray automobile that appears in both sunshine and shadow, an artist would have to be aware of A)closure.
B)perceptual constancy.
C)ambiguous stimuli.
D)retinal disparity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a statistically unusual outcome, such as getting five heads in a row when flipping a coin, that could still occur by chance alone.
A)A run of luck
B)A decline effect
C)A replicated experiment
D)Dishabituation
Q2) Increased perceptual awareness is especially associated with A)dishabituation.
B)unconscious transference.
C)high levels of stress.
D)stimulus repetition with variation.
Q3) The Kaufmans projected images of the moon on a mirror, which allowed them to superimpose an artificial moon on the sky.Volunteer observers reported that as the moon moved closer, it appeared to A)get smaller.
B)get larger.
C)follow them.
D)not change in size and shape.
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Q1) The relationship of REM sleep to memory indicates that a LACK of REM sleep would
A)improve memory.
B)diminish memory.
C)have no effect on memory.
D)not improve retention but would increase one's problem-solving strategies.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT important in the physiological control of sleep?
A)sleep hormones in the brain
B)sleep hormones in the spinal cord
C)sleep hormones in the bloodstream
D)a balance between separate waking and sleep patterns
Q3) A momentary shift in brain wave activity to that of sleep is called
A)REM sleep.
B)NREM sleep.
C)microsleep.
D)waking sleep.
Q4) Most people who have not slept for a day or two
A)can still do interesting or complex mental tasks.
B)can still do simple or boring routines.
C)have no trouble paying attention or staying alert.
D)would not be susceptible to microsleeps.
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Q1) Disguised dream symbols are to psychodynamic dream theory as sensory and motor messages are to
A)Rosalind Cartwright's theory of dreams.
B)the activation-synthesis hypothesis.
C)Fritz Perls' methods of dream interpretation.
D)the neurocognitive dream theory.
Q2) Suspending a person between two chairs with no support in between A)is an impossible feat.
B)can only be done if the person is hypnotized.
C)can only be done by a person who utilizing meditation.
D)can be done by anyone.
Q3) _____ is the opposite of being "spaced out," or having occasional moments of reduced awareness.
A)The relaxation response
B)Mindfulness
C)Concentrative cataplexy
D)Anhedonia
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Q1) Regarding marijuana, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Its immediate effects are euphoria, altered time sense, and impaired immediate memory.
B)Experts agree that it has little effect on driving performance.
C)Extreme dosages can cause feelings of unreality and visual distortions.
D)Marijuana's potential for abuse lies primarily in the realm of psychological dependence, not addiction.
Q2) Regarding tranquilizers, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Benzodiazepine tranquilizers are used to lower anxiety and reduce tension.
B)Tranquilizers have a strong addictive potential.
C)Large doses of Rohypnol induce short-term amnesia and sleep.
D)Valium is ten times more potent than Rohypnol.
Q3) According to the comparison of drugs in your textbook, which of the following drugs leads to a psychological dependence but does NOT appear to lead to a physical addiction?
A)marijuana
B)cocaine
C)alcohol
D)nicotine
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Q1) The dream theorist ____________________ believed that most dreams are special messages about what's missing in our lives, what we tend to avoid doing, or feeling that need to be "re-owned." or
Q2) ____________________ is defined as downing five or more drinks in a short period of time for men and four or more in a short period of time for women.
Q3) About an hour and a half after Ned's parents put Ned to bed, they find him in a total state of panic, screaming, and drenched in sweat.They change his pajamas and put him back to bed.The next morning they ask him about his "bad dream." Ned remembers very little about the night before.Ned was not having a nightmare; he was exhibiting the sleep disturbance known as ____________________.
Q4) Some people can learn very complex tasks while asleep, such as learning a foreign language.
A)True B)False
Q5) Most people dream about four or five times a night, spaced 90 minutes apart. A)True B)False
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Q1) If you walk under a ladder and then break a leg, you may avoid ladders in the future.Each time you avoid a ladder and nothing happens, this avoidance action is reinforced.This illustrates
A)the method of successive approximations.
B)superstitious behavior.
C)shaping.
D)response chaining.
Q2) If the sound of a clap is paired with a puff of air as it is delivered to the eye, the clap is referred to as
A)the conditioned stimulus.
B)the unconditioned stimulus.
C)a pleasant event.
D)an aversive event.
Q3) In higher order conditioning, a well-learned CS serves as a(n) _____ stimulus in a new pairing situation.
A)neutral
B)unconditioned
C)discriminating
D)dual conditioned
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Q1) A reinforcer that becomes reinforcing because it became associated with food would be called a _____ reinforcer.
A)primary
B)classical
C)negative
D)secondary
Q2) Social reinforcers consist of
A)primary and secondary reinforcers.
B)knowledge and ability.
C)the learned desires for attention and approval.
D)positive environment stimuli and a lack of punishment.
Q3) One of the primary principles of punishment states that
A)punishment is much more effective than reinforcement.
B)punishment is really just another form of negative reinforcement.
C)punishment must never be given contingently.
D)a punisher can be either the onset of an unpleasant event or the removal of a positive state of affairs.
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Q1) Punishment
A)tells a person or an animal that a response was "wrong."
B)does not teach new behaviors.
C)becomes less effective if reinforcement is missing.
D)is described by all of these characteristics.
Q2) It is much more effective to
A)punish unwanted behaviors than it is to reinforce desirable behaviors.
B)reinforce desirable behaviors than it is to punish unwanted behaviors.
C)use punishment for unwanted behaviors than to use nonreinforcement by ignoring them.
D)use a combination of punishment and extinction than to use reinforcement.
Q3) In Thorndike's law of effect, events critical for conditioning occur before the response.
A)True
B)False
Q4) With respect to televised violence, it can be said that TV violence
A)causes viewers to be more aggressive.
B)is positively related to aggression.
C)has no effect on the majority of viewers.
D)vicariously lowers aggressive urges.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What we remember depends on
A)what we pay attention to.
B)what we regard as meaningful and important.
C)what we feel strongly about.
D)all of these.
Q2) Psychologists have identified three stages of memory in a model known as the
A)Atkinson-Schiffrin model.
B)Hobson-McCarley memory model.
C)Melzack-Wall stages.
D)Darley-Latané memory model.
Q3) Psychologists have concluded that long-term memories fall into the following two categories:
A)fact memory and mnemonic memory.
B)procedural memory and fact memory.
C)semantic memory and fact memory.
D)semantic memory and redintegration memory.
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Q1) Interference theories of forgetting suggest that retention will be best when study is followed by
A)sleep.
B)light reading or watching TV.
C)studying similar subject matter.
D)studying different subject matter.
Q2) Which of the following psychologists pioneered the scientific study of forgetting using nonsense syllables and plotted the curve of forgetting?
A)Herman Ebbinghaus
B)Elizabeth Loftus
C)Karl Lashley
D)George Sperling
Q3) People who have exceptional memories tend to use _____ rather than internal images or eidetic imagery.
A)implicit imagery
B)priming
C)mnemonics
D)cognitive feedback
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Q1) Regarding the basic principles of mnemonics, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Words are generally easier to remember than visual pictures or images.
B)Transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory is aided by making it meaningful.
C)Bizarre images make stored information more distinctive and easier to retrieve.
D)Bizarre images mainly help to improve immediate memory.
Q2) Short-term memories are stored most often phonetically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ devices are methods for improving memory by combining unrelated items into meaningful verbal information or meaningful images.
A)Rote rehearsal
B)Iconic
C)Mnemonic
D)Eidetic
Q4) ____________________ determines what information moves from sensory memory to short-term memory.
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Q1) An idea representing a category of related objects or events is called a(n) A)abstraction.
B)attribute.
C)thought.
D)concept.
Q2) You are directed to go to the orientation session in Ivy Hall, which is the large building to your right as you enter the south entrance to the MCC campus.These directions illustrate
A)prototypes.
B)relational concepts.
C)disjunctive concepts.
D)conjunctive concepts.
Q3) Studies have found that students who learn to speak two languages well have
A)better mental flexibility and problem-solving abilities.
B)better general language skills.
C)better control of their attention.
D)all of these.
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Q1) When asked the question, "Which parent should be awarded custody?" people _____.However, if they are asked, "Which parent should be denied custody?" they
A)focus on the base rate; ignore the base rate
B)ignore the base rate; focus on the base rate
C)look for positive qualities; look for negative qualities
D)look for negative qualities; look for positive qualities
Q2) One of the ways we could avoid fixations in problem-solving would be to
A)visualize the solution rather than physically moving items around.
B)physically interact with aspects of the problem rather than deal with them intellectually.
C)focus on the first solution that comes to mind.
D)take a more flexible approach in categorizing the world.
Q3) According to Ambady, what was the shortest amount of time that subjects had to observe a teacher in order for their intuitive ratings to match the ratings of students who were in the teacher's class for the whole semester?
A)6 seconds
B)90 seconds
C)5 minutes
D)10 minutes

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Q1) A person who is concerned about his or her health, but who continued to drink large amounts of alcohol, is making an error in judgment called ignoring the base rate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following subtests would NOT be found on the verbal section of the WAIS-III?
A)similarities
B)general comprehension
C)digit symbol
D)information
Q3) Which of the following is a below average (dull normal) score on the WAIS-III?
A)85
B)95
C)100
D)115
Q4) Elena would be classified as a minority child, who is presently learning a second language.She wll most likely experience additive bilingualism.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A(n) ____________________ test is designed to measure intelligence without the influence of a person's cultural background, verbal skills, or educational level. or
Q2) Describe the three properties of a language, and explain to what extent gestural languages possess these properties.
Q3) ____________________ images tend to generate the most original solutions to problems.
Q4) Your child, like other children at his or her school, is being tested several times a year with standardized tests.What are the advantages and disadvantages of this mass testing for your child?
Q5) The stage of creative thought during which problem-solving proceeds at a subconscious level is the ____________________ stage.
Q6) A(n) ____________________ curve is a bell-shaped curve characterized by a large number of scores in the middle area, tapering to very few extremely high or low scores.
Q7) To you "a vacation" means "sitting on a beach reading a book," which illustrates a(n) ____________________ meaning of "a vacation."
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Q1) The value of a goal above and beyond its ability to fill a need is known as its
A)homeostatic value.
B)stimulus value.
C)extrinsic value.
D)incentive value.
Q2) Regarding the mechanisms of hunger, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)If your stomach is growling, it is probably releasing ghrelin.
B)Ghrelin activates parts of the brain involved in learning.
C)One should study before you eat, not immediately after.
D)Ghrelin is an amino acid that activates a person's ventromedial hypothalamus.
Q3) Emotional distress that sometimes occurs as a result of being obese makes weight control difficult because it often leads to
A)higher metabolic rates.
B)lower metabolic rates.
C)additional overeating.
D)greater sensitivity to external cues.
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Q1) The role of the _____ explains why people who suffer from phobias and disabling anxiety often feel afraid without knowing why.
A)midbrain
B)left hemisphere
C)right hemisphere
D)amygdala
Q2) The _____ theory explains how skydiving, rock climbing, ski jumping, and other hazardous pursuits become reinforcing.
A)drive reduction
B)Yerkes-Dodson
C)opponent-process
D)Cannon-Bard
Q3) Spontaneity, unity, benevolence, self-sufficiency, and meaningfulness are examples of our
A)meta-needs.
B)basic needs.
C)deficiency motives.
D)stimulus motives.
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Q1) A specialist in kinesics could be expected to be most interested in A)body language.
B)circadian rhythms.
C)sensation seeking.
D)primary motives.
Q2) The perception of an emotion in any situation can depend on what a person thinks has caused his or her feelings of physical arousal.This illustrates which theory of emotion?
A)common sense theory
B)Cannon-Bard theory
C)James-Lange theory
D)attribution theory
Q3) The study of communication through body movement, posture, gestures, and facial expressions is known as A)kinesics.
B)forensics.
C)physiology.
D)comparative psychology.
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Q1) A chemical called ____________________ is released by the intestines and causes eating to cease.
Q2) If the polygraph examiner asks you, "Is your phone number....?" the examiner is asking a(n) ____________________ question.
Q3) The James-Lange theory of emotion holds that emotional feelings, arousal, and behavior are generated simultaneously by the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sex is considered a primary motive because it is necessary for individual survival. A)True
B)False
Q5) Needs for power, affiliation, approval, status, security, and achievement are referred to as learned motives.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the difference between individuals with a high need for achievement and those with a high need for power.
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Q1) Intersexual persons have
A)ambiguous sexual anatomy.
B)a very high sex drive.
C)no sex drive at all.
D)no external reproductive organs.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding sex and gender is FALSE?
A)Both sex and gender have a large impact on our relationships, health and other aspects of our everyday lives.
B)According to your text, gender has more determinants than sex.
C)Gender differences refer to biological characteristics, while sex differences refer to psychological and social factors.
D)The case of Michelle in the introduction illustrates the complexity of sexual identity.
Q3) Studies of other cultures indicate that
A)gender roles are consistent from one society to another.
B)language has the greatest impact on the development of gender roles.
C)gender roles do not occur naturally, but rather are constructed.
D)none of these are true.
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Q1) Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be treated and cured in most cases by antibiotics?
A)genital herpes
B)genital warts
C)chlamydia
D)hepatitis B
Q2) A man who _____ is especially likely to ignore signals that a woman wants sexual advances to stop.
A)is high in gender role stereotyping
B)believes in rape myths
C)has been drinking alcohol
D)is characterized by any of these
Q3) Which of the following are considered major human erogenous zones?
A)surface of the scalp and forehead
B)fingernails and toenails
C)ears and mouth
D)back of the knee and the bottom of the feet
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Q1) Many experts now fear that young girls are being ____________________ by influences, such as beauty pageants for very young girls, the public antics of female role models, such as Paris Hilton and Britney Spears, and the availability of consumer goods, such as padded bras for girls as young as six.
Q2) A male who previously could have an erection but can no longer do so is said to be suffering from
A)primary erectile dysfunction.
B)secondary erectile dysfunction.
C)general sexual dysfunction.
D)repressed ejaculation.
Q3) A difference has been found in the size of the hypothalamus in the brains of homosexuals and heterosexuals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Concerning genetic sex, females have XX chromosomes, while males have ____________________ chromosomes.
Q5) In females, ____________________ characteristics include breast development, broadening of the hips, and other changes in body shape.
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Q1) Classifying people as having either a Type A or Type B personality has been used to predict
A)competency as a parent.
B)chances of suffering a heart attack.
C)success in education.
D)chances of developing a serious mental illness.
Q2) In psychology, the term personality implies that individual patterns of behavior are both stable and
A)universal.
B)desirable.
C)unique.
D)inherited.
Q3) Which of the following theories focus on the inner workings of personality, especially internal conflicts and struggles?
A)humanistic theories
B)psychodynamic theories
C)behavioristic theories
D)trait theories
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Q1) _____ personality theory tends to view human nature positively, while _____ personality theory tends to view human nature negatively.
A)Humanistic; psychoanalytic
B)Behavioristic; trait
C)Psychoanalytic; humanistic
D)Trait; behavioristic
Q2) According to Adler, _____ involves trying to make up for certain limitations or weaknesses.
A)instinctuality
B)fixation
C)compensation
D)archetypal development
Q3) According to Dollard and Miller, cues are signals from the environment that guide _____ so that they are most likely to bring about reward.
A)drives
B)responses
C)situational determinants
D)traits
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Q1) With the _____, the conversation is informal and topics are taken up freely as they arise, while information is gathered by asking a planned series of questions with the
A)situational test; behavioral assessment
B)personality questionnaires; projective techniques
C)unstructured interview; structured interview
D)rating scale; direct observational assessment
Q2) Marisa feels that she is being too careless and carefree at college, so she imagines herself studying more, getting to class on time, and getting good grades.Marisa also listens to the stories of successful students and using them to revise her own story.Marisa is using the _____ approach to personality to help her to become a better student.
A)personal fable
B)narrative
C)projective
D)situation test
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Q1) Although Joan would be described as very extroverted, she will be more extroverted at a party than when she is attending church.This observation supports the concept of ____________________. or
Q2) ____________________ is the process by which a person is making full use of his or her potentials. or
Q3) Describe the consequences of a college student having an unhealthy perfectionism.
Q4) Jung called the "public self," which we present to others when we adopt particular roles, the ____________________.
Q5) Classifying people into two or three types is more informative than rating people on a list of traits.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The tendency to generalize a favorable or unfavorable first impression to an entire personality is known as the halo effect.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The old phrase "the straw that broke the camel's back" is an example of how frustration can be increased due to A)its strength.
B)its repetition.
C)its urgency.
D)the emotion it precipitates.
Q2) Helen has several major projects that will all be due in two weeks.In order to deal with this situation, she makes out a plan of when to work on each project and schedules in breaks, during which she plans to walk for exercise and to meditate.She also plans to play some of her favorite music CDs as she works on the projects in order to lift her "spirits." Helen is utilizing a combination of
A)problem-focused and emotion-focused coping.
B)directive and indirective coping.
C)primary and secondary coping.
D)defense mechanisms and vacillation.
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Q1) As a consequence of his horrendous nightmares, Steve channeled his evil desires into becoming a mystery writer.Which of the following defense mechanisms is he using?
A)regression
B)rationalization
C)reaction formation
D)sublimation
Q2) Martin Seligman studied the case of a young marine who was being held prisoner during the Vietnam War.When the marine was not released on the date promised, he immediately lapsed into a deep depression, refused to eat or drink, and died shortly after.According to Seligman, this case illustrated the concept of A)sublimation.
B)approach-avoidance conflict.
C)learned helplessness.
D)reaction formation.
Q3) Regarding the SRRS, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)The SRRS tend to be more appropriate for older, more established adults.
B)Improvement in life conditions can be as costly as a decline.
C)The SRRS is at best a rough index of stress.
D)All of these statements are true.
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Q1) A perceived lack of control is just as important as an actual lack of control in causing us to feel threatened.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ statements are reassuring and self-enhancing and are used to block out negative self-talk in stressful situations.
A)K.I.S.S.
B)Coping
C)Guided imagery
D)Delusional
Q3) According to research, the most lethal factor of Type A behavior appears to be overworking.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compared to optimists, pessimists
A)tend to deal with problems head-on
B)are less likely to be stopped by temporary setbacks.
C)are more likely to ignore problems.
D)tend to take better care of themselves.
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Q1) You are experiencing episodes of depersonalization, in which you feel like you are outside of your body, and are behaving as if you are a robot or are lost in a dream world.You are most likely suffering from a A)paraphilia.
B)borderline personality disorder.
C)conversion disorder.
D)dissociative disorder.
Q2) Almost any behavior can be judged to be normal or abnormal depending on the specific circumstances present.This qualification for judging whether or not a behavior is abnormal is referred to as
A)subjective judgment.
B)situational context.
C)environmental selectivity.
D)personal relativity.
Q3) Which of the following groups is the most likely to suffer from substance abuse?
A)Asian Americans
B)African Americans
C)Hispanic Americans
D)European-Americans
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Q1) By comparison with an anxiety disorder, an adjustment disorder
A)is more severe and disruptive.
B)is a temporary pattern associated with stress.
C)tends to persist even when a person's life circumstances improve.
D)involves a break with reality.
Q2) The incidence of seasonal affective disorder is highest
A)in northern latitudes.
B)in the spring and summer.
C)near the equator.
D)among adult males.
Q3) According to the psychoanalytical theory, depression is caused by A)learned helplessness.
B)self-criticism and self-defeating thoughts. C)imbalances of serotonin and noradrenaline.
D)repressed anger that is turned inward as self-hate.
Q4) Arachnephobia is a fear of A)germs.
B)blood.
C)heights. D)spiders.

47
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Q1) Regarding people with an antisocial personality disorder, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)It is difficult to treat people with this disorder, because they often pretend to be cured.
B)The brainwaves of people with this disorder suggest their brains may be under-aroused.
C)Symptoms of this disorder tend to increase, becoming much worse after the age of 40.
D)People with this disorder do not seem to be disturbed by grisly and unpleasant photographs.
Q2) Regarding patterns of suicide, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)Women are beginning to use more deadly methods and may soon equal men in their likelihood of death by suicide.
B)Native American have the highest rate of suicide in the United States with suicide rates being equally high among the aboriginal peoples of Australia and New Zealand.
C)White males 65 years and older are at a particularly high risk of committing suicide.
D)All of these statements are true.
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Q1) The story of Sybil, a woman who had 16 separate personalities, illustrates a split personality, or schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Barry throws himself into a whirlwind of activity marked by extreme distractibility, rapid shifts in thoughts, constant talking, and restless movement.His behavior, at times, could also be described as a deep depression.Barry is probably suffering from a conversion disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Imaginary sensations, such as seeing, hearing, or smelling things that do not exist in the real world are known as _____________________.
Q4) According to behaviorists, anxiety disorders result from self-defeating, paradoxical behaviors that begin with avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Obsessions are to reoccurring thoughts as ____________________ are to ritualistic actions.
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Q1) Regarding videoconferencing, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)It provides more information about body language and other visual cues than the other "distance therapies."
B)It is a helpful resource when clients live far away from therapists.
C)It still lacks the close personal contact of face-to-face interactions.
D)All of these statements are true.
Q2) Tim tries to argue with his therapist like he used to argue with his late father, who rejected and ridiculed him.Tim even tells the therapist, "You are just like him." According to psychoanalytical theory, Tim is exhibiting
A)reciprocal inhibition.
B)a therapeutic attachment.
C)transference.
D)resistance.
Q3) Psychotherapy is best viewed as
A)the most effective way to undo the past in order to correct severe problems.
B)a major overhaul of the psyche.
C)a way to make constructive changes.
D)applicable only to those with psychological problems.
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Q1) Psychodrama assumes that
A)people can learn to recognize the parent, adult, and child roles in their personality.
B)insights from acted-out sessions transfer to real-life situations.
C)participants learn to spot insincerity by adopting artificial roles.
D)participants delve deep into their own personalities by watching staged interactions.
Q2) Regarding the effectiveness of therapy, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)In a national survey, it was found that almost six out of ten people who have sought mental health care say their lives improved as a result of the treatment.
B)Hundreds of studies show a strong pattern of positive effects for psychotherapy, counseling, and other psychological treatments.
C)Studies have shown that some therapies are ore effective for specific disorders.
D)When experiments are used to determine the effectiveness of therapies, a waiting-list control group is often used.
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Q1) The use of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for the treatment of depression
A)produces only temporary improvement and must be combined with other treatments.
B)can cause memory losses in some patients.
C)should be used only after other treatments have failed.
D)involves all of these considerations.
Q2) An effective therapist
A)is an enthusiastic learner and values complexity and ambiguity.
B)is mentally healthy and mature and nurtures their own emotional well-being.
C)have strong social skills and expertly use these skills in therapy.
D)is characterized by all of these.
Q3) A behavior modification procedure that assists an individual in suppressing upsetting mental images and internal "talk" is called
A)desensitization.
B)covert sensitization.
C)thought-stopping.
D)operant suppression.
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Q1) What is a token economy, and how could be used in an institutional setting, such as a mental hospital?
Q2) If your therapist tends to focus on issues of death, freedom, isolation, and meaninglessness, he or she would probably be classified as a(n) ____________________ therapist.
Q3) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as ____________________ drugs.
Q4) You place a rubber band around your wrist.Every time you catch yourself engaging in negative self-talk, "pop" the rubber band as mild punishment.This technique is known as _____________________.
Q5) Eye movement desensitization involves having clients visualize upsetting images, while watching a pencil being moved side-to-side before their eyes. A)True B)False
Q6) ____________________ allows the client and therapist to see and talk with each other over long distances through a two-way audio-video link, although it still lacks the close personal contact of face-to-face interaction.
Q7) Your friend is going through a break-up with her boyfriend of several years.Describe how you can best counsel your friend.
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Q1) The position one occupies within the structure of a group defines one's A)competence.
B)personal control.
C)social role.
D)degree of affiliation.
Q2) The theory of _____ states that contradicting or clashing thoughts cause discomfort.
A)persuasion
B)cognitive dissonance
C)frustration-aggression
D)groupthink
Q3) Regarding the relationship of touch and status, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)People of high socioeconomic status are more likely to touch those of lower socioeconomic status.
B)Older persons are more likely to touch younger persons than the reverse.
C)When a person of higher status touches one of lower status, the contact is more likely to be formal or impersonal, such as a handshake.
D)Men are more likely to touch women than women are to touch men.
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Q1) According to your textbook, one of the main benefits of knowing the strategies for gaining compliance is that one
A)can unethically manipulate others during business deals.
B)can protect oneself from being manipulated by people using these tactics.
C)will be less susceptible to blind obedience.
D)will become a nonconformist.
Q2) Reward, coercive, legitimate, referent, and expert are types of
A)social power.
B)social exchange.
C)compliance.
D)persuasion.
Q3) As a basis for social power, the ability to punish a person for failure to comply is called _____ power.
A)authority
B)referent
C)expert
D)coercive
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Q1) In a cult,
A)the members are cut off from family, friends, and former reference groups.
B)the cult controls the flow and interpretation of information to its members.
C)the members think of themselves more as group members than individuals.
D)all of these situations occur.
Q2) In _____ training, people learn to how to disagree, question authority, and deal with conflicts through an honest expression of their feelings, while still respecting the rights of others.
A)achievement
B)assertiveness
C)relationship
D)behavioral
Q3) College athletes often protect their self-esteem by practicing less before important games or events, which illustrates the concept of ____________________. _______________ or _______________.
Q4) Describe a situation in which you were non-assertive.Contrast an aggressive and an assertive response to the same situation in which you were non-assertive, and then describe some general strategies for promoting assertiveness.
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Q1) Studies of prosocial behavior show that the more potential helpers present in an emergency, the
A)more likely people are to get involved.
B)lower the chances that people will help.
C)greater the personal responsibility felt by those present.
D)lower the risk of personal injury to potential helpers.
Q2) Feelings of connectedness and affection for another person is known as A)intimacy.
B)passion.
C)commitment.
D)romantic love.
Q3) The empathy-helping relationship is a concept that refers to A)counseling.
B)therapy.
C)the more we "feel for" a person, the more likely we will help them.
D)the less we identify with a specific group, the more likely we are to help.
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Q1) According to psychologists Conor Seyle and Matthew Newman, the "red states and blue states" have become a national shorthand for dividing Americans into opposing camps with the "reds" supposed to be _____ and the "blues" supposed to be _____.
A)liberal; conservative
B)upper-class; middle-class
C)urban; rural
D)religious; nonreligious
Q2) Regarding social learning theory and aggression, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)This theory uses learning principles, cognitive processes, modeling, and socialization to explain why aggression occurs.
B)According to social learning theory, instincts do not play a role in the development of aggression.
C)This theory predicts that victims of violence during childhood are likely to become violent themselves.
D)According to this theory, cultural factors are not likely to have an impact on aggressive behavior.
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Q1) A series of bystander intervention experiments were conducted by ____________________ and ____________________. ______________ or ______________.
Q2) In order for a person to intervene, he or she must
A)interpret the situation and know what to do.
B)define the situation as an emergency and feel the weight of responsibility to intervene.
C)feel physically safe and have additional help or back-up.
D)have an altruistic personality and be very similar to the victim.
Q3) Rebecca feels that her history professor is making the class more difficult than it needs to be, so she calls a classmate to get his opinion.Rebecca has engaged in
Q4) The national shorthand of "red and blue states" for dividing Americans into opposing camps is an oversimplification that ignores the fact that a person can be conservative on some issues and liberal on others.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss five ways that a person can become more tolerant of others and develop cultural awareness.
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Q1) You are working for a textile manufacturer.Once a week, on a voluntary basis, you have a meeting with other workers, and you discuss various ways that you might be able to improve efficiency.Sometimes, you also talk about business problems that the company is having and different ways the textile firm might handle them.You are participating in a
A)quality circle.
B)self-managed team.
C)task analysis group.
D)scientific management team.
Q2) Personnel psychologists use which of the following types of tests?
A)general mental ability tests (intelligence tests)
B)vocational interest tests.
C)general personality tests and honesty tests
D)all of these
Q3) Self-managed teams
A)are much more likely to feel that they are being treated fairly at work.
B)tend to make good use of the strengths and talents of individual employees.
C)promote new ideas, improve motivation, encourage cooperation and teamwork within organizations.
D)show all of these characteristics.
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Q1) _____ psychology involves the study of the effects buildings have on behavior and the use of behavioral principles to design buildings.
A)Architectural
B)Space
C)Proxemic
D)Design
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a topic of special interest to sports psychologists?
A)positive visualization
B)stress reduction
C)goal setting
D)groupthink
Q3) The main goal of sports psychology could best be described as
A)creating world class athletes.
B)understanding and improving sports performances.
C)help teams to gain an advantage over their rival teams.
D)prescribing appropriate drugs to enhance winning performances.
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Q1) When expert witnesses are presented, most jurors weigh the evidence given by these witnesses more highly than their expertise or qualifications.
A)True
B)False
Q2) College students who display posters on the walls of their dormitory rooms or apartments are demonstrating territorial marking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discovery learning tends to produce students who are more independent, curious, and positive in their attitudes toward school.
A)True
B)False
Q4) College GPA predicts success in many types of work.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the difference between the concepts of crowding and density, explaining when high density levels involve crowding and when they do not.
Q6) Breaking complex skills into their subparts is called ____________________.
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223 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58251
Sample Questions
Q1) If the mean of a test is 80 and the standard deviation is 10, a person with a z-score of -2.0 scored _____ on the test.
A)40
B)50
C)60
D)70
Q2) The psychology test scores for five students are 100, 82, 96, 75, and 90.For this distribution of scores, the range is A)6.
B)14.
C)25.
D)36.
Q3) A _____ indicates the degree of relationship between two measures.
A)coefficient of correlation
B)rational coefficient
C)standard deviation
D)coefficient of variation
Q4) The simplest way of visualizing a correlation is to construct a scatter diagram.
A)True
B)False

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40 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58250
Sample Questions
Q1) When measure X gets larger, measure Y gets smaller in a(n) _____ correlation.
Q2) The index of how much a typical score differs from the mean of a group of scores is known as the _____.
Q3) Describe a normal curve, and explain the relationship of the standard deviation to this curve.
Q4) If you square the correlation coefficient, you will get a number telling the _____ accounted for by the correlation.
Q5) What is a z-score? Explain how it is calculated in the following example: Abby had a score of 75 on a test with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 5.What is her z-score?
Q6) Given these scores 22, 44, 33, 55, 33, 22, 44, 22, 55, 22, the mode is _____.
Q7) A(n) _____ is the existence of a consistent, systematic relationship between two events, measures, or variables.
Q8) A(n) _____ is made by breaking down the entire range of possible scores into classes of equal size and then recording the number of scores falling into each class.
Q9) Explain what is meant by the statement, "Correlation does not demonstrate causation," and describe how causation can be established.
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