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This course explores the political, social, economic, and cultural development of the United States from pre-Columbian times through the end of Reconstruction in 1877. Topics include Native American societies, European exploration and colonization, the American Revolution, the formation of the Constitution, westward expansion, the institution of slavery, and the causes and consequences of the Civil War. Special attention is given to the diverse experiences of peoples within early America and to the forces that shaped the nations identity during its formative years.
Recommended Textbook
Created Equal A History of the United States Volume 1 5th Edition by Jacqueline Jones
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Q1) Who was John Calvin and what did he believe?
Answer: The ideal answer should include:
1. John Calvin was a French Protestant who helped make the Swiss city of Geneva a church-centered state.
2. Calvin believed in a simple, austere form of Christianity.
3. He argued that faith, not good works, would lead Christians to be saved.
4. Calvin believed that only a small number of people were among God's elect.
5. Calvinist doctrine helped shape Protestant communities across northern Europe.
Q2) The Treaty of Tordesillas demonstrated that the papacy __________.
A) saw the whole world as the rightful inheritance of Christianity
B) respected New World native religions
C) had little interest in overseas exploration
D) recognized Spain's claim to Brazil
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following helped make Jamestown economically viable?
A) the discovery of iron ore
B) the cultivation of rice
C) the cultivation of tobacco
D) the discovery of gold
Answer: C
Q2) __________ was chosen as the first governor of the Massachusetts Bay colony.
A) William Bradshaw
B) Cotton Mathers
C) John Rolfe
D) John Winthrop
Answer: D
Q3) Peter Stuyvesant ruled the colony of __________ until 1664.
A) New Netherland
B) New France
C) Massachusetts
D) Maryland
Answer: A
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Q1) After eight years of bloodshed, King William's War ended __________.
A) with the Iroquois in a dominant position
B) with an English victory C) with a French victory D) in a stalemate
Answer: D
Q2) What grievances led Metacom to wage war against the English settlers and their Indian allies?
Answer: The ideal answer should include:
1. Metacom believed that the English had a hand in the death of his father, Massasoit.
2. Colonial traders made Indians drunk and then cheated them.
3. English livestock trampled Indian fields, and if Indians shot the cattle, colonial courts punished them.
4. Finally, the Indians of southern New England were outnumbered two to one by English colonists, placing enormous pressure on the remaining Indian communities.
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Q1) Arriving African slaves in late seventeenth-century South Carolina __________.
A) understood the climate better than their European owners did
B) had a life expectancy of less than two years
C) could expect to be free within five years
D) were put to work growing cotton
Q2) Which of the following was true of the Atlantic slave trade?
A) Several million Africans died on their journey to the Americas.
B) More than 40 million Africans were enslaved and taken to the Americas.
C) The Atlantic slave trade went into decline after 1740.
D) The Spanish dominated the Atlantic slave trade in eighteenth century.
Q3) Thomas Bray was determined to __________.
A) end slavery in his lifetime
B) convert slaves to Christianity
C) send slaves back to Africa
D) expand slavery in the New World
Q4) What convinced John Oglethorpe to oppose the slave trade?
A) his experiences in South Carolina
B) his conversion to Quakerism
C) his experiences as a slave trader
D) his encounter with Christian Priber
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Q1) By the 1770s, whites in the South averaged __________ wealth per person as whites in the North.
A) roughly one-quarter as much
B) roughly half as much
C) more than twice as much
D) four times as much
Q2) Which of the following was the key to the rise of the Comanche as a powerful regional force?
A) iron weapons
B) an alliance with the Spanish
C) the horse
D) an alliance with the Apache
Q3) The policies of Louis XIV help explain the arrival in New York of which of the following?
A) Methodists
B) Mennonites
C) Anabaptists
D) Huguenots
Q4) Discuss the causes of rapid population growth in the English colonies in the eighteenth century.
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Q1) The Proclamation Line of 1763 aroused the resentment of which of the following?
A) American colonists
B) French settlers
C) Native Americans
D) British taxpayers
Q2) Lord North persuaded Parliament to repeal all the Townshend Duties except the one on __________.
A) tea
B) paint
C) rum
D) coffee
Q3) The Tea Act of 1773 let the East India Company bypass the requirement that __________.
A) 90 percent of all tea shipments be sold to British customers
B) it sell tea to the highest bidder, regardless of nationality
C) merchants ship Asian tea through England on its way to colonial ports
D) its ships pass a rigorous inspection process
Q4) What measures did George Grenville take in an effort to impose order on Britain's American colonies?
Q5) Who were the Regulators and what did they want?
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Q1) In November 1777, Congress approved __________.
A) the Articles of Confederation
B) Washington's new strategy for defeating the British
C) a draft of the Constitution
D) a peace proposal to be offered to the British
Q2) Which of the following European nations joined the American side?
A) Spain
B) Portugal
C) Ireland
D) Sardinia
Q3) Why did the French consider sending thirteen ambassadors to America?
A) because the Articles of Confederation created such a loose alliance among the former colonies
B) because they wanted to make sure to speak with as many important Americans as possible
C) because they were worried that one or more might be killed by the British
D) because they wanted to impress the Americans with the wealth and power of the French government
Q4) How did the alliance between France and America alter the course of the war?
Q5) What common concerns shaped all of the new state constitutions?
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Q1) The mountain state of Franklin was __________.
A) founded by some of North Carolina's western landholders
B) intended as a refuge for runaway slaves
C) populated by discontented farmers
D) formed by Spanish and French adventurers
Q2) James Madison argued that minority opinions would fare best in which of the following?
A) a monarchy
B) a large nation
C) a small republic
D) a mighty empire
Q3) What was the Newburgh conspiracy and why is it important?
Q4) The end of the Revolutionary War brought _________.
A) financial and commercial stability
B) general prosperity
C) a boom in international commerce
D) widespread economic depression
Q5) Describe the key aspects of the postwar economic crisis.
Q6) How did James Madison select the amendments that would become the Bill of Rights?
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Q1) Who wrote Vindication of the Rights of Woman?
A) Mary Shelley
B) Olympe de Gouges
C) Abigail Adams
D) Mary Wollstonecraft
Q2) The Whiskey Rebellion was started by __________ who were unhappy with a new federal tax.
A) farmers
B) factory workers
C) Native Americans
D) craftsmen
Q3) The region stretching from New England to New York, New Jersey, and Pennsylvania had all the ingredients for __________.
A) population decline
B) plantation agriculture
C) massive slave revolts
D) the American Industrial Revolution
Q4) What led to the violent conflict between whites and Indians in the Great Lakes region in the 1780s and 1790s? What was the ultimate outcome of these clashes?
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Q1) New England became the center of __________ in the United States.
A) coal processing
B) tobacco cultivation
C) the emerging iron industry
D) mechanized textile production
Q2) Pro-war Creek Indians were known as __________.
A) Red Sticks
B) War Hawks
C) Ghost Dancers
D) Prophets
Q3) By the early nineteenth century, the Chesapeake tobacco economy had declined as a result of __________.
A) government regulations
B) high export tariffs
C) falling demand
D) worn out land
Q4) What were the objectives of the Lewis and Clark expedition? How successful was it in achieving those objectives?
Page 12
Q5) How did the institution of slavery change in the first decades of the nineteenth century?
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Q1) Which of the following played a key role in triggering the Panic of 1819?
A) New England shipbuilders
B) Andrew Jackson
C) Great Britain
D) the Second Bank of the United States
Q2) Which of the following was true of the Book of Mormon?
A) Joseph Smith claimed it was written by an ancient Native American historian.
B) It was accepted by most Protestants as an authentic revelation.
C) It was discovered by Brigham Young.
D) It instructed the Mormons to leave their homes and go to Utah.
Q3) In 1834, __________'s opponents formed the Whig party.
A) Andrew Jackson
B) Henry Clay
C) John C. Calhoun
D) Rufus King
Q4) In John C. Calhoun's view, what did slavery demonstrate?
A) that all whites were equal and superior to all blacks
B) man's inhumanity to his fellow men
C) the superiority of southern whites over northern whites
D) that a civil war was inevitable
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Q1) Between 1830 and 1850, __________ immigrants entered the United States.
A) 93,000
B) 152,000
C) 2.3 million
D) 5 million
Q2) Sylvester Graham argued that __________ was bad for one's health.
A) regular church attendance
B) sexual excess
C) wheat flour
D) politics
Q3) Between 1830 and 1850, the number of colleges __________.
A) increased by 50 percent
B) increased by 75 percent
C) more than doubled
D) more than quadrupled
Q4) By the 1830s, almost all states required __________.
A) midwives to attend medical school
B) immigrants to wait five years before voting
C) voter identification
D) that doctors be licensed

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Q1) In 1848, the Free-Soil party nominated __________ for president.
A) General Zachary Taylor
B) Martin Van Buren
C) John C. Fremont
D) Daniel D. Thompkins
Q2) What did the Supreme Court decide in the Dred Scott case? What were the implications of the ruling?
Q3) The "three-fifths clause" of the Constitution gave disproportionate representation to __________.
A) the slave states
B) New England
C) Ohio and Indiana
D) large states
Q4) What challenges did Plains Indians face in the 1850s?
Q5) Which of the following groups wanted no part in American politics in the 1850s?
A) Plains Indians
B) African Americans
C) white women
D) white men
Q6) What political divisions were revealed by the presidential election of 1860?
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Q1) The constitution of the Confederate States of America reflected a commitment to which of the following?
A) states' rights
B) a powerful executive branch
C) economic equality
D) public education
Q2) Why did Lincoln give General Winfield Scott the power to suspend the writ of habeas corpus?
A) He was concerned about disloyalty in the vicinity of Washington, D.C.
B) He wanted Scott to shoot deserters on sight.
C) He wanted to crush the Democratic party.
D) He wanted to censor the press.
Q3) In 1861, most Northerners saw the war as a fight to __________.
A) punish slaveholders
B) colonize the South
C) end slavery
D) preserve the Union
Q4) Describe the experience of African American soldiers in the Union army.
Q5) What obstacles did the Confederacy face as its leaders sought to mobilize for war?
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Q1) Describe the efforts of freedpeople to build their own communities in the years immediately following the Civil War.
Q2) The __________ was meant to prevent President Johnson from dismissing Secretary of War Edwin Stanton.
A) Tenure of Office Act
B) Command of the Army Act
C) Force Act
D) Reconstruction Act of 1867
Q3) In 1866 veteran reformers Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Susan B. Anthony, and Lucy Stone founded the __________
A) National Woman Suffrage Association
B) American Progress Association
C) Equal Rights Association
D) National Organization for Women
Q4) Which of the following was true of the Freedmen's Bureau?
A) It compiled a mixed record.
B) It provided tens of thousands of former slaves with land.
C) It was supported by President Johnson.
D) It focused its efforts on voting rights.
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Q1) The three major sports in the late nineteenth century were baseball, football, and __________.
A) lacrosse
B) hockey
C) boxing
D) track and field
Q2) According to the 1880 census, the three cities with the highest percentage of foreign-born residents were Chicago, San Francisco, and __________.
A) Pittsburgh
B) Los Angeles
C) New York
D) Boston
Q3) ____________ and Charles Dudley Warner coined the term "Gilded Age."
A) Mark Twain
B) Richard Sears
C) Andrew Carnegie
D) Horatio Alger
Q4) How did department stores reflect the new consumer culture of the late nineteenth century?
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Q1) Most black soldiers were assigned to duty in the West, where they became known as
A) Buffalo soldiers
B) Smoked Yankees
C) Abraham's army
D) Exodusters
Q2) The term "Jim Crow" refers to a set of laws that __________.
A) were intended to force blacks to leave the South
B) institutionalized segregation
C) governed tax and finance policies
D) encouraged the industrialization of the South
Q3) Which was the first state or territory to allow women to vote?
A) Virginia
B) California
C) Wyoming
D) Texas
Q4) What were the goals of the Knights of Labor in the 1880s?
Q5) Describe the Alliance movement of the 1880s.
Q6) Describe Jane Addams's career as a social reformer.
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Q1) __________ was the author of Principles of Psychology.
A) Eric Fromm
B) William James
C) Sigmund Freud
D) william James
Q2) Which of the following accurately characterizes American society in the 1890s?
A) The gap between the very rich and ordinary working Americans had grown very large.
B) America was as socially unified as it had ever been.
C) Racial animosities were in steep decline.
D) Population growth had slowed dramatically.
Q3) Frederick Jackson Turner noted that the __________ Census Report concluded that the frontier had disappeared.
A) 1890
B) 1880
C) 1870
D) 1900
Q4) What explains why no viable workers' party or socialist movement emerged in late nineteenth-century America?
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Q5) What were the key elements of Booker T. Washington's "Atlanta Compromise"?

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Q1) Progressives believed that __________.
A) American capitalist democracy was fundamentally sound
B) only socialism could save America
C) America was a perfect country
D) genuine progress was almost impossible to achieve
Q2) Boston marriages were __________.
A) lifelong unions between two women
B) marriages of convenience
C) encouraged by most moral reformers
D) most common among the lower classes
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes Theodore Roosevelt's foreign policy?
A) He was a strong supporter of American involvement around the world.
B) He was a strident isolationist.
C) He preferred "Dollar Diplomacy" to the use of military force.
D) He wanted to withdraw from Latin America so that the United States could focus on Asia.
Q4) What explains the influx of Jewish immigrants between 1880 and 1920?
Q5) How did Henry Ford revolutionize automobile production?
Page 21
Q6) Discuss the role of socialism in American politics and the labor movement in the late nineteenth and early twentieth century.
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Q1) Which of the following was responsible for inspiring and maintaining public support for Wilson's war policies?
A) the Federal News Distribution Service
B) the Selective Service Administration
C) the Committee on Public Information
D) the War Labor Board
Q2) Which of the following was true of Wilson's New Freedom slogan?
A) It did not apply to African Americans.
B) It did not apply to the working classes.
C) It did not apply to women.
D) It did not apply to Southerners.
Q3) Who benefited the most from the Underwood-Simmons Tariff of 1913?
A) consumers
B) manufacturers
C) bankers
D) ranchers
Q4) What was the connection between European global expansion and the growing tensions between European powers?
Q5) Why did the United States declare its neutrality at the beginning of World War I?
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Q1) Why was Harding's presidency and legacy tarnished?
A) A number of Harding administration officials used their offices for personal gain.
B) Harding sanctioned the exploitation of poor black sharecroppers.
C) Harding took bribes from foreign countries.
D) A number of Harding administration officials sold information to foreign agents.
Q2) Elected president in 1920, __________ established the conservative agenda that would last throughout the decade.
A) William Howard Taft
B) Calvin Coolidge
C) Herbert Hoover
D) Warren G. Harding
Q3) The Scopes trial centered on the __________.
A) role of the Klan in public life
B) publication of sexually explicit photographs
C) teaching of evolution in schools
D) enforcement of prohibition
Q4) How did automobiles shape the society and culture of the 1920s?
Q5) Describe the case of Buck v. Bell. What issues were at stake?
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Q1) To stop the run on banks, FDR announced __________.
A) the closure of five large banks
B) the establishment of a new Bank of the United States
C) the nationalization of the banking system
D) a bank holiday
Q2) What new labor strategy was initiated by rubber industry workers in Akron, Ohio, in 1936?
A) the lockout
B) the protest march
C) the sit-down strike
D) the picket line
Q3) How did Herbert Hoover respond to the Depression?
Q4) In a historic shift, __________ backed FDR in the election of 1936.
A) farmers and agricultural workers
B) women
C) hispanics
D) black voters in northern cities
Q5) What was the Civilian Conservation Corps and what did it achieve?
Q6) What were the root causes of the Great Depression?
Q7) What led to the Flint strike of 1936? What were the strike's consequences? Page 25
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Q1) FDR created the Fair Employment Practices Commission to __________.
A) ensure equal pay for blacks and women
B) control wages in vital war industries
C) help unions organize wartime labor
D) arbitrate labor disputes and prevent strikes during the war
Q2) By January 1944, Allied forces had __________.
A) lost control of the war in the Pacific
B) been forced to retreat and regroup
C) driven the Germans out of France
D) occupied southern Italy
Q3) The war set off a large migration to __________.
A) Canada
B) northern industrial cities
C) the rural South
D) the mountain states
Q4) The long-awaited Allied invasion of __________ began on June 6, 1944.
A) France
B) Italy
C) Germany
D) Spain

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Q1) The United States considered a rebuilt industrial __________ as crucial for a healthy, integrated western European economy.
A) Germany
B) Soviet Union
C) Italy
D) Spain
Q2) Why was control of Poland not negotiable for Joseph Stalin?
A) The Germans had invaded Russia by going through Poland.
B) Most Poles were ethnic Russians.
C) Poland used Soviet currency.
D) Poland had been annexed by Germany in 1933.
Q3) What was the real target of the second Red Scare?
A) Liberal Democrats
B) African Americans
C) Socialists
D) Fascists
Q4) Discuss the impact of the Red Scare on American politics and civil liberties.
Q5) What was NSC-68 and how did it help produce the American national security state?
Q6) How did the United States redefine national security after 1945?
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Q1) John F. Kennedy __________.
A) served in the army during World War II
B) was elected governor of Massachusetts at age thirty
C) was the first Roman Catholic president
D) was born into a middle-class Boston family
Q2) The Eisenhower Doctrine was developed with which of the following regions in mind?
A) Central America
B) Southeast Asia
C) the Middle East
D) Africa
Q3) __________'s Catcher in the Rye expressed dissatisfaction with the status quo.
A) J. D. Salinger
B) Thomas Wolfe
C) Truman Capote
D) Betty Friedan
Q4) Describe the most important developments in American foreign policy during the Eisenhower administration.
Q5) Describe the key components of Kennedy's domestic policy agenda.
Q6) How did white Southerners respond to the Brown decision?
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Q1) American public optimism about the war in Vietnam was crushed by which of the following?
A) the Tet Offensive
B) the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution
C) the Battle of Dien Bien Phu
D) the death of Ngo Dinh Diem
Q2) The Supreme Court established a woman's constitutional right to abortion in the landmark case of __________.
A) Frontiero v. Richardson
B) Roe v. Wade
C) Geduldig v. Aeillo
D) Kahn v. Shevin
Q3) Which of the following programs was put in place during the Johnson administration?
A) TVA
B) CCC
C) WPA
D) AFDC
Q4) What initial policy choices did President Johnson make with respect to Vietnam? Why?
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Q1) Stagflation combined inflation and __________.
A) rising wages
B) slow growth
C) high unemployment
D) economic volatility
Q2) What role did the U.S. play in the 1973 war that pitted Israel against Egypt and Syria?
A) The U.S. sent ground troops to aid the Israelis.
B) The U.S. was careful to remain neutral.
C) The U.S. provided Israel with critical supplies.
D) The U.S. supplied weapons to both sides.
Q3) What was one purpose of CREEP?
A) to spy on the Nixon administration
B) to undermine civil rights organizations
C) to play political dirty tricks
D) to destabilize foreign governments
Q4) Why did Nixon seek to improve U.S. relations with China?
Q5) Why did the American economy go into a prolonged decline in the 1970s?
Q6) How did Congress attempt to reassert its power over foreign policy in the 1970s?
Q7) Describe the emergence of the environmental movement in the 1970s.
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Q1) In 1983, Congress agreed to make __________'s birthday a national holiday.
A) Franklin Delano Roosevelt
B) George Washington
C) Malcolm X
D) Martin Luther King Jr.
Q2) What were the key components of President Reagan's domestic budgetary agenda?
Q3) Fifty percent of the new immigrants came from __________.
A) Eastern Europe
B) Latin America and the Caribbean
C) Asia
D) Canada and Western Europe
Q4) In 1980, the Republicans won __________ for the first time since 1952.
A) a majority of governorships
B) the presidency
C) the House
D) the Senate
Q5) Who were the new immigrants?
Q6) Describe the events that led to the Iranian hostage crisis. How was the crisis resolved?
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Q1) The 2000 presidential election was ultimately determined by whoever would secure the electoral votes of which state?
A) New York
B) Florida
C) Washington
D) Georgia
Q2) The demise of the Soviet Union __________.
A) was a boon for the economy of southern California
B) set off a global depression
C) did not bring about the end of the Cold War
D) ended the arms race
Q3) California's Proposition 227 __________.
A) denied government services to undocumented workers
B) placed a moratorium on new immigration into the state
C) ended bilingual education
D) was supported by most of the state's Latino population
Q4) What was the Contract with America? How did President Clinton respond to Republican efforts to implement the programs outlined in the Contract?
Q5) How did Americans in the bottom half of the income ladder fare in the 1990s?
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75338
Sample Questions
Q1) What did President George W. Bush and Vice President Dick Cheney have in common?
A) They were both former oil executives.
B) They both served in Vietnam.
C) They both spent their entire lives in public service.
D) They both had been star students in college.
Q2) In the Citizens United decision, the Supreme Court ruled that the government could not restrict political expenditures by __________.
A) foreign countries
B) private individuals
C) corporations or unions
D) elected officials
Q3) Prior to his election as governor of Texas in 1994, George W. Bush had __________.
A) gained considerable experience in public service
B) achieved relatively little
C) served as U.S. Senator for Connecticut
D) had made a fortune on Wall Street
Q4) What were the most important ecological changes in North America in the twentieth century? What were the primary causes of those changes?
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