Transfusion Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Transfusion Science delves into the principles and practices involved in the safe and effective transfusion of blood and blood components. The course explores blood group systems, compatibility testing, donor selection, and the preparation and storage of blood products. Students will examine the immunological and physiological responses to transfusion, understand the laboratory techniques for detecting and preventing transfusion reactions, and analyze the clinical management of transfusion therapy. Ethical, legal, and safety considerations related to transfusion medicine are also discussed, preparing students for roles in laboratory and clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices 3rd Edition by Kathy D.
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Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors.
A)Cytokines
B)Complement
C)Immunoglobulins
D)Anaphylatoxin
Answer: A
Q2) A poor response to platelet transfusion that can be caused by antibodies to human leukocyte antigens is known as:
A)nonresponders.
B)refractoriness.
C)immune activation.
D)responders.
Answer: B
Q3) What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?
A)IgM
B)IgA
C)IgE
D)IgG
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody?
A)There are very few variations between lots.
B)There are no contaminating antibodies.
C)Direct agglutination is usually faster.
D)All variations of the antigen can be detected.
Answer: D
Q2) The gel technology method uses a concentration of red cells that is:
A)higher than tube techniques.
B)lower than tube techniques.
C)the same as the 3% to 5% requirement for tube testing.
D)variable according to the test performed.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells?
A)They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test.
B)They must be used to confirm a positive antiglobulin test.
C)They must be used to confirm a direct antiglobulin test that was negative with anti-C3d.
D)They should be used only with the indirect antiglobulin test.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an individual is said to be group A,it refers to the individual's:
A)alleles.
B)haplotype.
C)genotype.
D)phenotype.
Answer: D
Q2) Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker
A)Primer
B)Polymerase chain reaction
C)Hybridization
D)Probe
E)Amplicon DNA sequence
Answer: D
Q3) Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
A)True
B)False
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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Sample Questions
Q1) What ABO phenotype would agglutinate in the presence of anti-A,B produced by group O individuals?
A)A only
B)B only
C)A and B
D)O only
Q2) Which of the following situations is most likely to cause intravascular hemolysis when an incompatible transfusion is given?
A)Group B packed cells to a group O recipient
B)Group A packed red cells to a group AB recipient
C)Group AB plasma to a group A recipient
D)Group AB plasma to a group O recipient
Q3) Group A
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current theory regarding the genetics of the Rh system suggests that:
A)each Rh system antigen is coded by its own gene locus.
B)Rh system antigens are coded by two closely linked genes.
C)one gene locus with multiple alleles codes for the protein antigens.
D)the Rh system genes are a haplotype that codes for three sets of alleles.
Q2) The weak D test detects:
A)the Du antigen.
B)the missing D mosaic.
C)a weak D antibody.
D)a weak D antigen.
Q3) The inheritance of the Rh antigens are:
A)X-linked recessive.
B)X-linked dominant.
C)autosomal recessive.
D)codominant.
Q4) r'
A)Ce
B)CE
C)DCE
D)Dce
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following statements are true regarding Lewis system antibodies except antibodies:
A)may be observed at the immediate spin,37° C,and antihuman globulin phases.
B)can be neutralized by Lewis substance.
C)may cause hemolysis in vitro.
D)do not react following enzyme treatment of cells.
Q2) System associated with resistance to malaria
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Vel
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido/Rodgers
H)Kell
I)Duffy
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Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antibody was detected at immediate spin and 37°<sup> </sup>C that appeared to have anti-Le<sup>b</sup> specificity.To confirm the antibody identity and determine if there were other antibodies in the serum,a Lewis neutralization technique was performed.Results of the control are as follows: Reaction with Le(b)positive cells
Patient serum + Lewis substance 0
Patient serum + saline control 1+
What conclusion can be made from these results?
A)anti-Le<sup>b</sup> is confirmed
B)the antibody was diluted,therefore no conclusion can be made
C)the antibody was not neutralized,therefore anti-Le<sup>b</sup> has not been identified
D)an antibody other than anti-Leb is most likely in the serum
Q2) An example of a cold alloantibody includes:
A)anti-M.
B)anti-I.
C)anti-Lu<sup>b</sup>.
D)anti-k.
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Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many units of red blood cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70-kg nonbleeding adult man from 24% to 30%?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) A donor unit with a positive DAT would cause reactions at what phase of the crossmatch?
A)Immediate spin
B)Antiglobulin
C)None;it would be compatible
D)All phases
Q3) Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to:
A)prevent formation of all red cell antibodies.
B)prevent life-threatening transfusion reactions.
C)maximize in vivo survival rate of red cells.
D)check ABO compatibility.
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Chapter 9: Blood Bank Automation for Transfusion Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) LIS interfaces is an important component in automation because of its potential in:
A)recognizing errors in sample ID.
B)flagging discrepancies with previous test results.
C)providing a mechanism for the electronic crossmatch.
D)all of the above.
Q2) An advantage of the MTS Gel technology over test tubes when performing panels is:
A)shorter centrifugation time.
B)decreased reagent cost.
C)reduced patient sample requirements.
D)the incubation step is optional.
Q3) Assays using Gel technology are performed with which of the following instruments:
A)ECHO
B)PROVUE
C)NEO
D)TANGO
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Chapter 10: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hemolytic reaction to red blood cells can be caused by which of the following nonimmune mechanisms?
A)Incompatible intravenous solutions mixed with the unit
B)Improper storage of the unit
C)Bacterial contamination of the unit
D)All of the above
Q2) A patient was identified as having cardiac insufficiency that needed a red blood cell transfusion.How should the transfusion be administered?
A)The red blood cell unit should be transfused slowly over a 4-hour period.
B)The unit should be transfused as whole blood.
C)Diuretics should be administered with the unit.
D)Transfusion should be avoided.
Q3) Long-term red blood cell transfusion can result in which of the following conditions?
A)Citrate toxicity
B)Hemosiderosis
C)Graft-versus-host disease
D)Transfusion-related acute lung injury
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) A .3% fetomaternal bleed was determined by a Kleihauer Betke stain of postpartum blood.What is the estimated volume of the fetomaternal bleed expressed as whole blood?
A)10 mL
B)15 mL
C)20 mL
D)25 mL
Q2) In a suspected case of HDFN,what significant information can be obtained from the baby's blood smear?
A)The estimated platelet count
B)Increase in nucleated red cells
C)The presences of spherocytes
D)Increase in monocytes
Q3) To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin,the mother is __________ and the infant is __________.
A)D-positive,D-negative
B)D-negative,D-positive
C)D-negative,D-negative
D)D-positive,D-positive
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Chapter 12: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) 27-year-old woman returning from the Peace Corps in Nigeria who was vaccinated for typhoid 6 months ago
A)Acceptable donors
B)Temporarily deferred
C)Permanently deferred
D)Indefinite deferral
Q2) A 21-year-old college student wishes to participate in the "double red" program at the local blood center by donating red blood cells collected by apheresis.What is the minimum height and weight requirement that she must meet?
A)Height: 5'1",130 lb
B)Height: 5'3",125 lb
C)Height: 5'5",150 lb
D)no height requirement,110 lb
Q3) Following delivery,what is the deferral time for donating a unit of whole blood?
A)2 weeks
B)4 weeks
C)6 weeks
D)8 weeks
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Chapter 13: Testing of Donor Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the true statement regarding West Nile virus testing?
A)Testing for West Nile virus is required only in New York and California.
B)Testing for West Nile virus is necessary only in the warmer months of the year.
C)West Nile virus testing is performed using nucleic acid testing on all donor units.
D)West Nile virus testing is optional.
Q2) When is the Western Blot test used in donor testing?
A)To confirm antibody-positive hepatitis C virus tests
B)To confirm positive serological test for syphilis
C)To confirm positive HIV antibody test results
D)To screen for human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II in blood donors
Q3) After receiving Heptavax,the marker that demonstrates protection is hepatitis __________ antibody.
A)B surface
B)B core
C)C
D)B envelope
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Chapter 14: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) CPDA-1
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
Q2) Platelet concentrates that are prepared from whole blood have a minimum quality control limit of __________ platelets in __________ of the units tested.
A)3 * 10<sup>11</sup>,75%
B)1 * 10<sup>10</sup>,75%
C)5.5*10<sup>10</sup>,all
D)5.5 * 10<sup>10</sup>,75%
Q3) Plastic overwraps are recommended for thawing FFP and CRYO to prevent:
A)contamination of the water bath.
B)rapid thawing,which affects labile factors.
C)entry ports from being contaminated with water.
D)the label from peeling off when thawing.
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Chapter 15: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk factors for bleeding during cardiac surgery include all of the following except:
A)length of time on the pump.
B)level of preoperative medications.
C)presence of a red cell antibody.
D)hypothermia.
Q2) Deficiency of factors II,V,X,and XI
A)Cryoprecipitated AHF
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Red blood cells
D)Platelets
E)Leuko-reduced blood components
F)Washed red blood cells
G)Albumin/plasma protein fraction
H)Factor concentrates
I)Plasma,cryoprecipitate reduced
J)Irradiated blood products
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Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood
Industry and Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing gloves between donors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Quality control
A)The CAP survey is an example
B)Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
C)Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
D)Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
E)Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient
F)Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
G)Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
H)Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill
I)Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
J)Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment
K)System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
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