Training and Development Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles, methods, and best practices involved in the training and development of employees within organizations. Students will examine the entire training process, including needs assessment, design, implementation, and evaluation of training programs. Emphasis is placed on adult learning theories, instructional design, on-the-job and off-the-job training methods, and strategies for evaluating the effectiveness of training. Additionally, the course addresses issues such as management development, career planning, and the use of technology in learning and development initiatives, preparing students to create impactful learning experiences aligned with organizational goals.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 10th Edition by Lloyd Byars
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19 Chapters
1137 Verified Questions
1137 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Human Resource Management: A Strategic Function
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/54052
Sample Questions
Q1) Working at home by using an electronic linkup with a central office is known as
A)reengineering
B)outsourcing
C)empowerment
D)telecommuting
Answer: D
Q2) Human resource management is seen as being much narrower and more clerically oriented than personnel management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Spending more time with the line people,keeping a hand on the pulse of the organization,and learning to calculate costs and solutions in hard numbers,are all suggestions to help HR managers to:
A)become more familiar with their businesses.
B)learn more about present and future trends in HR.
C)take a moralistic approach when dealing with operating managers.
D)view their role in the organization primarily as transactional.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Equal Employment Opportunity: The Legal Environment
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60 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the terms disparate treatment and disparate impact.What is the difference between the two?
Answer: Disparate treatment refers to intentional discrimination and involves treating one class of employees differently from other employees.Disparate impact refers to unintentional discrimination and involves employment practices that appear to be neutral but adversely affect a protected class of people.Thus,the difference between the two is that disparate treatment refers to intentional discrimination whereas disparate impact refers to unintentional discrimination.
Q2) The Equal Pay Act prohibits pay discrimination based on seniority.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The _____ requires federal buildings to be accessible to handicapped persons.
A)Rehabilitation Act
B)Immigration Reform and Control Act
C)Civil Rights Act
D)Equal Pay Act
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Implementing Equal Employment Opportunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EEOC has the power to file a lawsuit against an employer for the violation of one of the laws the EEOC administers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Discuss the extent of protection against discrimination available to individuals with reference to their sexual orientation.
Answer: The EEOC and the courts have uniformly held that Title VII does not prohibit employment discrimination against effeminate males,homosexuals,or masculine-acting females.Courts have also held uniformly that adverse action against individuals who undergo or announce an intention to undergo sex-change surgery does not violate Title VII.Therefore,people who fall in those groups are protected only when a local or state statute is enacted to protect them.More court cases,however,must be decided before a clear picture can be gained concerning discrimination against people in these groups.The current controversy over gay marriages will more than likely have an impact on human resource policies and practices.
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Chapter 4: Job Analysis and Job Design
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Related tasks comprise the _____ of a job.
A)elements
B)micromotions
C)duties
D)positions
Q2) A grouping of similar jobs or job classes is known as a(n)____.
A)duty
B)element
C)occupation
D)task
Q3) The simplest unit of work which involves a very elementary movement is known as a(n)____.
A)task
B)micromotion
C)job
D)element
Q4) Most job analyses are performed on existing jobs that have previously been designed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Human Resource Planning
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human resource planning must be conducted independently from an organization's strategic plan to ensure its effectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Write a short note on skills inventory.What are the advantages of a skills inventory?
Q3) In which of the following methods of forecasting human resource needs are estimates made either by top-level managers and passed down,or by lower-level managers and passed up for further revision,or by some combination of upper- and lower-level managers?
A)Mathematical estimates
B)Delphi technique
C)Managerial estimate
D)Scenario analysis
Q4) Long-term performance objectives generally have a time schedule and are expressed quantitatively.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the basic steps in the human resource planning process.
Q6) Explain the scenario analysis method used for forecasting human resource needs.
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Chapter 6: Recruiting Employees
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With reference to recruitment,the acronym RJP stands for:
A)Relative Job Performance
B)Realistic Job Previews
C)Recurring Job Promotions
D)Realistic Job Performance
Q2) Job posting and bidding is an external method of recruitment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Recruitment from within can have a significant,positive effect on employee motivation and morale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are organizational inducements in recruitment?
Q5) Generally,it can be said that those employees who were recruited using RJP:
A)have more job satisfaction.
B)lack the technical skills required for the job.
C)tend to exhibit poor job performance.
D)show low job survival rates.
Q6) Discuss realistic job previews.
Q7) What are the various external sources of recruitment?
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Chapter 7: Selecting Employees
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a handbook that summarizes a wide variety of commercial tests and also provides an evaluation of the tests by several experts.
A)Test Evaluation Book
B)Mental Measurements Yearbook
C)Knowledge Measurements Evaluation
D)Employee Selection Procedure
Q2) An applicant flow record is required to be filled by all applicants as part of the selection process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Predictive validation is used frequently because it is cost-efficient and fast.
A)True
B)False
Q4) While hiring people to fill assembly-line jobs,which of the following tests is most likely to be administered?
A)Perception speed test
B)Verbal-aptitude test
C)Psychomotor test
D)Reasoning test
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Chapter 8: Orientation and Employee Training
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59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On-the-job training requires special facilities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The orientation from coworkers often provides the employees with inaccurate and misleading information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A learning curve most frequently manifests as a:
A)plateau curve.
B)linear positively sloped curve.
C)decreasing returns curve.
D)linear negatively sloped curve.
Q4) Which of the following would be considered an economic factor of orientation?
A)Reporting of hazards
B)Equipment costs
C)Counseling services
D)Option to buy damaged products and costs thereof
Q5) Wages paid apprentices usually begin at half those paid fully trained employees.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Management and Organizational Development
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe Web-based training.
Q2) In understudy assignments,the understudy learns the bad as well as the good practices of the present jobholder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The in-basket technique is a management development method which involves presenting real and/or hypothetical situations for the trainees to analyze.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following methods of management development,popularized by the Harvard Business School involves presenting real and/or hypothetical situations to the trainee for analysis?
A)In-basket technique
B)Adventure learning
C)Understudy assignment
D)Case study
Q5) Describe a management succession plan.
Q6) What is an understudy assignment? What are its advantages and disadvantages?
Q7) Describe assessment centers.
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Chapter 10: Career Development
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is responsible for career planning?
Q2) The idea of _____ is to think of employees moving at any angle,heading from side to side,supporting organizational goals while getting their career goals met at the same time.
A)career plateauing
B)a career lattice
C)career flow
D)a career ladder
Q3) Managers acting as good career counselors should:
A)respect confidentiality and privacy.
B)design career plans for subordinates.
C)help employees recognize their limitations based on past experience.
D)not divulge the organization's assessment of the employee.
Q4) A benefit provided by an employer to help an employee leave the organization and get a job someplace else is called:
A)downsizing.
B)outplacement.
C)reengineering.
D)glass ceiling.
Q5) List five career-related myths held by employees.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Performance Management Systems
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Environmental factors should be viewed as:
A)direct determinants of performance.
B)modifying effects of effort,ability,and direction.
C)the sole responsibility of employees,not their managers.
D)mere excuses to shortcomings in performance.
Q2) It is generally accepted that performance appraisals should be completed two or three times a year for most employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the performance appraisal process and the uses of performance appraisal data.
Q4) The _____ approach to performance appraisal is most frequently used for production employees and is basically a form of goal setting for these employees.
A)MBO
B)MBA
C)essay appraisal
D)work standards
Q5) Describe the essay performance appraisal.
Q6) What are some determinants of performance?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Organizational Reward System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Fair Labor Standards Act regulates minimum wages and overtime pay.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List some considerations in the selection of rewards.
Q3) The _____ theory of motivation holds that employees have a strong need to maintain a balance between what they perceive as their inputs to their jobs and what they receive from their jobs in the form of rewards.
A)intrinsic
B)extrinsic
C)comparable worth
D)equity
Q4) Job satisfaction has been shown to always result in a high level of job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Paying for performance means:
A)providing top wages to all employees.
B)basing compensation decisions on the quantity and quality of work performed.
C)sharing profits with employees so that they share the fortunes of the company.
D)paying all employees market wages.
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Chapter 13: Base Wage and Salary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most widely acknowledged shortcoming of wage and salary surveys is that it is difficult to find jobs that are directly comparable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the purpose of wage and salary surveys?
Q3) A major disadvantage of the point method of job evaluation is that:
A)it is relatively difficult to explain to employees.
B)it is relatively time-consuming and costly to develop.
C)job evaluators may abuse the system.
D)the method is highly subjective.
Q4) Skill-based pay is also referred to as:
A)competency-based pay systems.
B)knowledge-based pay systems.
C)compulsory pay.
D)pay for succession potential.
Q5) Wage and salary surveys are used for "pricing the job" after the relative worth has been determined using one of the methods of evaluating the relative worth of the job.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Incentive Pay Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a differential piece rate plan,the rate is raised:
A)after a given number of pieces have been produced.
B)for each piece that exceeds standard quality.
C)when specifications of pieces produces changes.
D)for the top producer,who is paid a premium rate.
Q2) Which of the following is the primary advantage of individual incentives as opposed to group or organizational incentives?
A)Greater total reward is assured
B)Works especially well for those involved in team projects
C)Clear relationship perceived between actions and rewards
D)No need for confidentiality
Q3) Performance share plans involve units whose value is determined:
A)by an evaluation of the responsible person's contribution.
B)over a multi-year period.
C)upon retirement or other separation of the recipient from the company.
D)at the moment that declaration of the recipient is made.
Q4) Piece rate plans have been in effect for over 150 years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the qualified and nonqualified forms of stock options.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Employee Benefits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vesting in a pension or retirement plan means that the employee upon departure from the company would:
A)have the accumulated contributions disbursed among remaining employees.
B)require legal action to secure the monetary contributions.
C)deposit all net earnings of the most recent quarterly period into the fund.
D)be eligible to receive money paid into the fund.
Q2) Which of the following employee benefits are (is)legally required?
A)Company-provided housing
B)State disability insurance
C)Interest-free loans
D)Stock bonus plan
Q3) Under cliff vesting:
A)no vesting is provided during the first five years of service.
B)the participant becomes 20 percent vested after three years of service.
C)after an initial period of service,the participant becomes vested in an additional 25 percent in each subsequent year.
D)the participant is 100 percent vested after seven years of service.
Q4) Early retirement incentives are an alternative to mandatory retirement.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Employee Safety and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Widespread use of drugs other than alcohol is a relatively new phenomenon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following guidelines is suggested for implementing a drug-testing program?
A)Assume employees are drug-free until proven otherwise.
B)Use any type of urinalysis,even the most mediocre method,as long as it gets done.
C)Make positive test scores a BFOQ where possible.
D)Use monitored laboratories that employ nonblind testing to ensure the integrity of the testing procedures.
Q3) List the guidelines for implementing a drug-testing program.
Q4) In most organizations,safety and accident prevention receive far more attention than employee health.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs).
Q6) The most common occupational disease is heart disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Employee Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suspension is the first step in corrective discipline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the more advanced step in the progression toward resolving a union grievance procedure?
A)Involvement of higher management and HR department
B)Involvement by supervisor's direct manager
C)Arbitration
D)Employee/steward discussion with supervisor
Q3) Generally,in unionized organizations the grievance process is initiated by the organization which has a complaint regarding some action perceived to be inconsistent with the terms of the union contract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The principle of just cause originally places the burden of proof on the employer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the steps in the disciplinary process?
Q6) Explain what is meant by just cause.
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Chapter 18: The Legal Environment and Structure of Labor
Unions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA)is composed of three members from the party with a majority in Congress.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The landmark decision by the Supreme Court of Massachusetts,Commonwealth v.Hunt,was significant because it:
A)rejected the doctrine that the actions of labor unions were illegal per se.
B)limited the use of injunctions.
C)outlawed yellow-dog contracts.
D)guaranteed right-to-work for employees regardless of whether they were union members.
Q3) The Taft-Hartley Act made yellow-dog contracts unenforceable and severely restricted the use of injunctions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Yellow-dog contracts were made illegal by the Sherman Anti-Trust Act.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the conspiracy doctrine.
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Chapter 19: Union Organizing Campaigns and Collective Bargaining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered an unfair labor practice?
A)Threatening or coercing of employees by union organizers.
B)Management speaking against the union on company time to employees.
C)Soliciting support for union from employees in work areas.
D)Distributing union literature during nonworking time.
Q2) Mediation is also called:
A)conciliation.
B)arbitration.
C)coordinated bargaining.
D)collective bargaining.
Q3) An arrangement between an employer and a union under which the employer agrees to withhold union dues,initiation fees,and assessments from the employees' paychecks and submit this money to the union is termed as:
A)a lockout.
B)a checkoff.
C)management rights.
D)an agency shop.
Q4) Discuss the various reasons for employees opposing unionization.
Q5) What are the various reasons for employees joining a union?
Q6) Explain any three contract provisions related to union security. Page 21
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