Toxicology Question Bank
Course Introduction
Toxicology is the scientific study of the adverse effects of chemical, physical, and biological agents on living organisms and the environment. This course explores the mechanisms by which toxins cause harm, routes and patterns of exposure, dose-response relationships, and methods for assessing and managing risks associated with toxic substances. Students will examine topics such as environmental and occupational toxicology, forensic toxicology, risk assessment, and toxicokinetics, as well as the molecular and cellular basis of toxic action. Case studies and current issues in regulatory toxicology are also discussed to provide a comprehensive understanding of the fields applications in public health, industry, and research.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology 3rd Edition by George M. Brenner
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45 Chapters
150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/936 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18405
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is administered a drug in the form of a tablet formulated with an osmotic substance that slowly attracts water.Which characteristic is associated with this preparation?
A) used to treat constipation
B) enables almost 100% bioavailability
C) poses more risks than intramuscular administration
D) causes a localized effect on the colon
E) provides sustained drug absorption over many hours
Answer: E
Q2) Which endeavor is most important for determining the dose-response relationship of a drug?
A) isolation of a pure drug compound
B) measurement of the plasma concentration of a drug over time
C) clinical trials to determine drug efficacy
D) study of the structure-activity relationship of a drug
E) development of a sustained-release formulation of a drug
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18406
Sample Questions
Q1) A drug with a first-order elimination rate constant of 0.23 L/hour is administered by continuous intravenous infusion.About how long will it take to achieve a steady-state plasma drug concentration?
A) 5 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 15 hours
D) 30 hours
E) 50 hours
Answer: C
Q2) Which description best characterizes drug metabolism involving conjugation of a drug with glucuronate?
A) reduces the rate of biliary drug excretion
B) increases the rate of renal drug excretion
C) typically increases the pharmacologic activity of the drug
D) primarily occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) often induced or inhibited by other drugs
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient exhibits a rapid loss of responsiveness to a drug during the first several hours of drug administration.Which event is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) up-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
B) down-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
C) internalization of cell membrane receptors
D) formation of receptor antibodies
E) phosphorylation of G protein-coupled receptors
Answer: E
Q2) In what way is the log-concentration effect (dose response)curve of an agonist drug modified in the presence of a competitive receptor antagonist?
A) shifted to the right without a change in slope or maximum effect
B) shifted to the left without a change in slope or maximum effect
C) shifted to the right with a decreased slope and maximum effect
D) shifted to the left with a decreased slope and maximum effect
E) not shifted right or left but shows a decreased maximum effect
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Drug Development and Safety
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a generic version of a drug is approved for marketing on the basis of a study comparing the oral bioavailability of the generic and brand name product, which term is associated with the review of this product by the Food and Drug Administration?
A) Harris-Kefauver amendment
B) accelerated drug approval
C) orphan drug amendment
D) abbreviated new drug application
E) investigational new drug
Q2) After receiving a sulfonamide compound for a urinary tract infection, a woman develops a life-threatening immune vasculitis known as the Stevens-Johnson syndrome.Which mechanism is usually responsible for this condition?
A) IgE-mediated release of histamine from mast cells and basophils
B) formation of sensitized lymphocytes
C) complement-mediated cell lysis
D) delayed hypersensitivity reactions
E) deposition of immune complexes in blood vessel walls
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Autonomic and Neuromuscular Pharmacology
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter causes vasodilation when released by the enteric nervous system?
A) norepinephrine
B) nitric oxide
C) endothelin
D) neuropeptide Y
E) substance P
Q2) A child experiences abdominal spasms after a black widow spider bite.Which activity is affected by the toxin contained in its venom?
A) choline reuptake
B) choline acetylation
C) exocytosis
D) cholinesterase
E) receptor activation
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Chapter 6: Acetylcholine Receptor Agonists
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18410
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with open-angle glaucoma receives a drug that activates muscarinic receptors in the eye.Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) contraction of ciliary muscle
B) relaxation of ciliary muscle
C) contraction of iris sphincter muscle
D) relaxation of iris sphincter muscle
E) stimulation of lacrimal gland secretion
Q2) Which adverse effect may result from administration of bethanechol?
A) dry mouth
B) urinary retention
C) pupil dilation
D) tachycardia
E) diarrhea
Q3) Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of sildenafil?
A) inhibition of acetylcholine degradation
B) activation of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
C) inhibition of cyclic GMP degradation
D) stimulation of nitric oxide synthesis
E) stimulation of potassium efflux
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Chapter 7: Acetylcholine Receptor Antagonists
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which purpose is glycopyrrolate administered during surgery?
A) reversing the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents
B) increasing blood pressure
C) decreasing respiratory secretions
D) causing bronchodilation
E) potentiating general anesthetics
Q2) Succinylcholine is avoided in persons with skeletal muscle injuries because of the drug's tendency to cause which effect?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypocalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) metabolic acidosis
E) prolonged apnea
Q3) Cisatracurium is preferred in patients with renal or hepatic impairment because of which property?
A) a short duration of action
B) undergoes spontaneous chemical degradation
C) metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
D) rapidly inactivated by sugammadex
E) effects easily reversed by edrophonium
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Chapter 8: Adrenoceptor Agonists
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phenylephrine is contained in many nasal decongestant products.Which action contributes to its therapeutic effect?
A) activation of adenylyl cyclase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) activation of phospholipase C
D) activation of nitric oxide synthase
E) inhibition of adenosine deaminase
Q2) A patient with heart failure is given an intravenous dobutamine infusion to reduce impedance to left ventricular ejection.Which receptors mediate this effect of dobutamine?
A) dopamine D receptors
B) -adrenoceptors
C) -adrenoceptors
D) -adrenoceptors
E) -adrenoceptors
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10
Chapter 9: Adrenoceptor Antagonists
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man is placed on doxazosin for hypertension.Which adverse effect is most likely to result from taking this drug?
A) postural hypotension
B) rebound hypertension
C) hypokalemia
D) urinary retention
E) bradycardia
Q2) Which pharmacologic effect is produced by topical ocular administration of timolol?
A) miosis
B) mydriasis
C) contraction of the ciliary muscles
D) decreased aqueous humor secretion
E) conjunctival vasoconstriction
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11
Chapter 10: Antihypertensive Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antihypertensive drug is most likely to reduce vascular injury by inhibiting activation of growth factors that cause smooth muscle proliferation and hypertrophy?
A) clonidine
B) terazosin
C) atenolol
D) candesartan
E) nifedipine
Q2) A patient with a hypertensive emergency is given an intravenous infusion of a drug that dilates renal afferent and efferent arterioles and is rapidly metabolized with a half-life of 5 minutes.Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) activation of dopamine D receptors
B) activation of dopamine D receptors
C) blockade of -adrenoceptors
D) activation of -adrenoceptors
E) blockade of - and -adrenoceptors
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12
Chapter 11: Antianginal Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a drug that decreases anginal episodes without reducing heart rate or blood pressure.Which mechanism is responsible for the beneficial effects of this drug?
A) increased utilization of glucose by the heart
B) improved cardiac diastolic function
C) inhibition of fatty acid oxidation in the heart
D) increased sodium influx into myocytes
E) increased calcium influx into myocytes
Q2) Which signaling mechanism participates in the vasodilative effect of nitroglycerin?
A) activation of nitric oxide synthase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) inhibition of intracellular calcium release
D) activation of guanylate cyclase
E) activation of adenylate cyclase
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13
Chapter 12: Drugs for Heart Failure
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The beneficial effects of carvedilol in persons with heart failure are obtained with the use of which drug administration regimen?
A) intravenous infusion for 3 to 7 days
B) low doses that are gradually increased over time
C) loading doses followed by maintenance doses
D) high doses that are gradually tapered over time
E) titration to obtain the desired increase in cardiac output
Q2) Several weeks after beginning treatment for severe heart failure, a man develops hyperkalemia requiring hospitalization.Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) eplerenone
B) digoxin
C) furosemide
D) dobutamine
E) milrinone
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14
Chapter 13: Diuretics
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3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man with renal stones is found to have hypercalciuria.The drug most likely used to treat this condition blocks which step in nephron function?
A) conversion of bicarbonate to carbon dioxide
B) sodium chloride reabsorption from the distal tubule
C) expression of sodium channel protein in the collecting duct
D) sodium chloride reabsorption from the loop of Henle
E) sodium-potassium exchange in the collecting duct
Q2) Which diuretic acts to increase the renal excretion of weakly acidic drugs?
A) spironolactone
B) amiloride
C) acetazolamide
D) furosemide
E) mannitol
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Chapter 14: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18418
Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the risk of serious toxicity, a yearly chest radiogram is required in persons taking which drug?
A) ibutilide
B) sotalol
C) quinidine
D) procainamide
E) amiodarone
Q2) The electrocardiogram must be closely monitored during dosage titration with dofetilide because of its ability to produce which abnormality?
A) QRS widening
B) QT prolongation
C) asystole
D) PR shortening
E) afterdepolarizations
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Chapter 15: Drugs for Hyperlipidemia
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18419
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to their beneficial effect on serum LDL-cholesterol levels, atorvastatin and related drugs may reduce coronary heart disease by which mechanism?
A) reducing cholesterol absorption
B) improving vascular endothelial function
C) stimulating lipoprotein lipase
D) increasing lipolysis
E) decreasing appetite
Q2) A man taking simvastatin develops severe muscle pain, muscle inflammation, And dark urine after beginning concurrent therapy with another drug.Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse drug interaction?
A) ezetimibe
B) cholestyramine
C) itraconazole
D) rifampin
E) penicillin
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17
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anticoagulant consists of a synthetic antithrombin III-binding pentasaccharide?
A) fondaparinux
B) bivalirudin
C) warfarin
D) heparin
E) enoxaparin
Q2) Which coagulation factor is inactivated following administration of lepirudin?
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) fibrinogen
C) prothrombin
D) active factor X
E) thrombin
Q3) A patient receives a cyclic peptide derived from rattlesnake venom.Which step leading to platelet aggregation is inhibited by this agent?
A) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa expression
B) ADP binding
C) fibrinogen binding
D) cyclic AMP formation
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine synthesis
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Chapter 17: Hematopoietic Drugs
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using larger doses of recombinant erythropoietin (e.g., epoetin)to achieve hemoglobin levels >12 g/dL is associated with an increased risk of which type of disease?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) renal disease
C) hepatic disease
D) hematologic disease
E) pulmonary disease
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is used to describe the effect of a drug that reduces the activity of an inhibitory neuronal system?
A) co-antagonist
B) disinhibition
C) up-regulation
D) delirium
E) metabotropic
Q2) Drugs that affect neurons in the reticular formation have a major influence on which function?
A) sleep and wakefulness
B) emotional processing
C) body movement
D) memory
E) abstract reasoning
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Sedative-Hypnotic and Anxiolytic Drugs
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which property is related to the ability of zolpidem to selectively bind GABAA receptors that are composed of -subunits?
A) lack of active metabolites
B) low degree of daytime sedation
C) low potential for drug dependence
D) greater effect on REM sleep
E) greater effect on slow wave sleep
Q2) Which attribute is correctly associated with ramelteon?
A) produces considerable daytime sedation
B) may cause rebound insomnia when discontinued
C) has a high abuse potential
D) binds melatonin receptors
E) is a Schedule IV controlled substance
Q3) For which reason is lorazepam is one of the safer benzodiazepines for elderly patients?
A) It is excreted unchanged in the urine.
B) It does not cause anterograde amnesia.
C) It is not associated with drug dependence.
D) It is metabolized by glucuronide formation.
E) It has special utility in treating panic disorder.
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Chapter 20: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) After sustaining head trauma, a woman experiences recurrent tonic-clonic seizures without regaining consciousness.Which pair of drugs is most often used to control this type of seizure?
A) valproate and carbamazepine
B) zonisamide and gabapentin
C) topiramate and vigabatrin
D) diazepam and phenytoin
E) pregabalin and tiagabine
Q2) A child whose seizures have been controlled with valproate experiences breakthrough seizures and lamotrigine is being added to the regimen.Which adverse effect is more common in children receiving both drugs?
A) aplastic anemia
B) hepatitis
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) megaloblastic anemia
E) gingival hyperplasia
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22
Chapter 21: Local and General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which attribute best describes sevoflurane?
A) causes little cardiovascular and respiratory depression
B) more irritating to the respiratory tract than other drugs
C) slower rate of induction than other inhalational agents
D) more potent than other halogenated inhalational anesthetics
E) increases systemic vascular resistance more than other drugs
Q2) The use of prilocaine is limited to topical and infiltration anesthesia because the drug's metabolite may cause which adverse effect?
A) cardiac arrhythmias
B) hepatitis
C) renal impairment
D) myopathy
E) methemoglobinemia
Q3) Which advantage is associated with etomidate compared to other parenteral anesthetics?
A) produces muscle relaxation
B) causes a high degree of analgesia
C) less likely to cause hypotension
D) has a longer duration of action
E) causes dissociative anesthesia
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Chapter 22: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man with schizophrenia experiences fewer extrapyramidal symptoms after his drug therapy was switched to aripiprazole.Which attribute of aripiprazole most likely contributes to this improvement?
A) partial agonist at dopamine receptors
B) partial agonist at serotonin receptors
C) full agonist at dopamine receptors
D) full agonist at serotonin receptors
E) antagonist at both serotonin and dopamine receptors
Q2) A woman is placed on an antidepressant that increases neuronal release of norepinephrine.Which mechanism is responsible for this effect?
A) activation of -adrenoceptors
B) blockade of -adrenoceptors
C) activation of serotonin 5-HT receptors
D) blockade of serotonin 5-HT receptors
E) blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
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24
Chapter 23: Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which adverse effect may result from administration of buprenorphine to a man who is illicitly taking oxycodone?
A) hypertensive crisis
B) cardiac arrest
C) opioid withdrawal reaction
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) apnea due to depression of respiratory centers
Q2) The analgesic effect of tramadol is partly attributed to which action?
A) inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B) activation of descending inhibitory pathways
C) activation of -adrenoceptors in the spinal cord
D) depletion of substance P from afferent neurons
E) partial agonist activity at kappa opioid receptors
Q3) Chronic administration of meperidine should be avoided for which reason?
A) greater risk of drug dependence than with other opioids
B) auto-induction of drug metabolism enzymes
C) development of pharmacodynamic drug tolerance
D) increased suicidal ideations
E) accumulation of a toxic metabolite
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Neurodegenerative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agent is useful in persons with multiple sclerosis because it serves as a decoy for myelin-damaging T cells?
A) mitoxantrone
B) natalizumab
C) interferon beta-1b
D) glatiramer
E) prednisone
Q2) Severe hypomobility ("freezing")reactions in advanced Parkinson's disease may respond rapidly after injection of which drug?
A) apomorphine
B) dopamine
C) ropinirole
D) benztropine
E) tizanidine
Q3) Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of entacapone?
A) inhibition of monoamine oxidase-type B
B) stimulation of levodopa decarboxylation
C) decreased formation of 3-O-methyldopa
D) increased uptake of dopamine into the brain
E) increased release of dopamine from neurons
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Chapter 25: Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neuronal effects of -tetrahydrocannabinol are believed to result from activation of receptors that are coupled with which cellular effect?
A) sodium channel activation
B) calcium channel activation
C) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
D) inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
E) synthesis of inositol triphosphate
Q2) The reinforcement of drug use is partly determined by the peak rate of release of which neurotransmitter in the nucleus accumbens?
A) serotonin
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) glutamate
E) acetylcholine
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Chapter 26: Autacoid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman complains of sedation after taking a second-generation antihistamine in the morning.Which drug is most likely responsible for this side effect?
A) fexofenadine
B) desloratadine
C) loratadine
D) cetirizine
E) astemizole
Q2) Which orally administered agent improves exercise capacity in persons with pulmonary artery hypertension?
A) epoprostenol
B) bosentan
C) treprostinil
D) sildenafil
E) dinoprostone
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28
Chapter 27: Drugs for Respiratory Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug would be most effective in cases of severe asthma involving the formation of leukotriene B ?
A) montelukast
B) zafirlukast
C) zileuton
D) cromolyn sodium
E) lodoxamide
Q2) By which mechanism does tiotropium improve respiratory function in patients with emphysema?
A) increasing levels of cyclic AMP in smooth muscle
B) inhibiting vagally mediated bronchoconstriction
C) improving diaphragmatic function and ventilation
D) stimulation of brainstem respiratory centers
E) improving mucociliary clearance
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Chapter 28: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which mechanism does lubiprostone relieve some cases of severe idiopathic constipation?
A) blockade of serotonin 5-HT receptors
B) activation of serotonin 5-HT receptors
C) inhibition of fluid reabsorption in the colon
D) stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
E) activation of chloride channels
Q2) A pregnant woman complains of being constipated most days despite eating a well-balanced diet and drinking plenty of water.Which agent would provide the most physiological approach to treating her problem?
A) bisacodyl
B) sodium phosphate
C) senna
D) psyllium
E) castor oil
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30
Chapter 29: Drugs for Headache Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-month drug-free interval every 6 months is required for patients taking methysergide in order to prevent which adverse effect?
A) heart valve fibrosis
B) intermittent claudication
C) pulmonary hypertension
D) cardiac ischemia
E) serotonin syndrome
Q2) A patient with frequent migraine headaches desires a drug treatment that has a rapid onset of action but does not require parenteral administration.Which drug best meets these criteria?
A) naratriptan
B) ergotamine
C) dihydroergotamine
D) rizatriptan
E) zolmitriptan
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Pain, Inflammation, and Arthritic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leflunomide prevents leukocyte proliferation by inhibiting which step in this process?
A) formation of active folate
B) pyrimidine biosynthesis
C) purine biosynthesis
D) ribonucleotide reductase
E) DNA polymerase
Q2) Administration of allopurinol produces which effect on serum and urinary levels of uric acid in a patient with gout?
A) increased serum and urinary levels
B) increased serum and decreased urinary levels
C) decreased serum levels and no change in urinary levels
D) decreased serum and urinary levels
E) decreased serum and increased urinary levels
Q3) Abatacept exerts its antirheumatic effects by binding to which molecular target?
A) interleukin-1 type I receptor
B) tumor necrosis factor-
C) cell surface proteins of T lymphocytes
D) immunoglobulin G rheumatoid factor
E) interleukin-2 transcription factors
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Chapter 31: Hypothalamic and Pituitary Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desmopressin is often preferred for treating diabetes insipidus for which reason?
A) convenient once daily oral administration
B) relieves nocturnal enuresis in most patients
C) causes more vasoconstriction than vasopressin
D) It is a potent inhibitor of adenylyl cyclase.
E) selectively activates vasopressin V receptors
Q2) Which agent is most likely to cause an up-regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptors during long-term administration of the drug?
A) abarelix
B) gonadorelin
C) leuprolide
D) chorionic gonadotropin
E) nafarelin
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33
Chapter 32: Thyroid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agent is preferred for controlling symptoms of hyperthyroidism prior to administration of radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) lithium carbonate
Q2) Which drug causes the most rapid decline in circulating thyroid hormones in persons with thyrotoxicosis?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)
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34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Steroids and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug action prevents precocious sexual development in boys being treated for congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A) suppression of corticotropin secretion
B) activation of adrenal steroid receptors
C) stimulation of adrenal 11- -hydroxylase
D) stimulation of adrenal 21-hydroxylase
E) inhibition androgen pathway enzymes
Q2) A patient is treated with a drug that increases expression of genes encoding sodium channels and the sodium-potassium ATPase.Which effect will result from this action?
A) increased free water clearance
B) increased sodium excretion
C) increased potassium excretion
D) increased calcium excretion
E) increased aldosterone secretion
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35
Chapter 34: Drugs Affecting Fertility and Reproduction
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18438
Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of a progestin causes which effect on pulses of gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion?
A) decreased amplitude of pulses
B) decreased frequency of pulses
C) increased frequency and amplitude of pulses
D) decreased frequency and amplitude of pulses
E) increased frequency and decreased amplitude of pulses
Q2) A postmenopausal woman is placed on a drug that inhibits aromatase. This treatment will decrease serum levels of which hormone?
A) androstenedione
B) estrone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) progesterone
E) dehydroepiandrosterone
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Chapter 35: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) After skipping a meal, a diabetic woman experiences a hypoglycemic reaction.Which drug is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) metformin
B) sitagliptin
C) pioglitazone
D) acarbose
E) glipizide
Q2) Before meals, a diabetic patient injects an insulin preparation with an onset of action of 10 to 20 minutes.Which preparation is being used?
A) insulin detemir
B) regular insulin
C) insulin glargine
D) insulin aspart
E) NPH insulin
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Chapter 36: Drugs Affecting Calcium and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strontium may have role in preventing osteoporosis because of its ability to produce which effect?
A) increased calcium absorption
B) decreased calcium excretion
C) increased formation of osteoblasts
D) increased parathyroid hormone secretion
E) decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
Q2) Patients who are taking both calcium and alendronate to prevent osteoporosis should be advised to take these drugs in which way?
A) separately on alternate days
B) separately at least 2 hours apart
C) separately with different meals
D) together at the same time each day
E) together at bedtime
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Chapter 37: Principles of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of antibiotics is most often used for prophylaxis of surgical infections?
A) penicillins
B) aminoglycosides
C) tetracyclines
D) cephalosporins
E) fluoroquinolones
Q2) Oseltamivir is used for prophylaxis of which infection during an outbreak of the disease?
A) influenza
B) tuberculosis
C) malaria
D) meningococcal meningitis
E) whooping cough
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Chapter 38: Inhibitors of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is dispensed a single dose of a drug for a urinary tract infection.Which step in bacterial cell wall synthesis is inhibited by this drug?
A) transpeptidase
B) addition of phosphoenolpyruvate
C) formation of N-acetylglucosamine
D) incorporation of D-alanine residues
E) formation of pentaglycine bridge
Q2) Which attribute is associated with a third-generation cephalosporin that is excreted primarily in the bile?
A) well absorbed from the gut
B) long plasma half-life
C) used to treat Pseudomonas infections
D) may cause platelet dysfunction and bleeding
E) prolongs the QT interval of the electrocardiogram
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Chapter 39: Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman develops an allergic reaction after being treated for a superficial ocular infection.Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) polymyxin
B) azithromycin
C) neomycin
D) bacitracin
E) chloramphenicol
Q2) Persons receiving intravenous clindamycin should be monitored for the occurrence of which adverse effect?
A) torsades de pointes
B) hearing impairment
C) liver toxicity
D) thrombocytopenia
E) pseudomembranous colitis
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Chapter 40: Quinolones, Antifolate Drugs, and Other
Antimicrobial Agents
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Q1) Ciprofloxacin should be taken 2 hours before or after taking nutritional supplements containing which ingredient?
A) folic acid
B) vitamin C
C) potassium
D) iron
E) vitamin D
Q2) Which antimicrobial agent prevents the formation of supercoils in circular bacterial DNA?
A) daptomycin
B) nitrofurantoin
C) polymyxin
D) trimethoprim
E) moxifloxacin
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Chapter 41: Antimycobacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The efficacy of clofazimine is partly due to its ability to alter the activity of which type of cells?
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) epithelial cells
E) fibroblasts
Q2) Rifabutin is usually combined with which other drugs in the treatment of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infections?
A) isoniazid and ethambutol
B) ethambutol and clarithromycin
C) clarithromycin and dapsone
D) clofazimine and pyrazinamide
E) thalidomide and clofazimine
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving drug therapy for invasive candidiasis experiences abnormally colored vision and photophobia.Which other adverse reaction is associated with this drug?
A) hepatitis
B) electrolyte abnormalities
C) peripheral neuropathy
D) renal toxicity
E) QT prolongation
Q2) A patient is placed on a drug that inhibits synthesis of -(1,3)-D-glucan.Which infection is most likely being treated?
A) cryptococcal meningitis
B) tinea capitis
C) sporotrichosis
D) Candida krusei infection
E) Histoplasma capsulatum infection
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Chapter 43: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man receives a drug that binds to chemokine co-receptor 5.Which step in viral replication is prevented by this drug?
A) binding of viral glycoprotein120 to host CD4 cells
B) transfer of viral nucleic acid into host cells
C) formation of a DNA copy of viral RNA
D) integration of viral DNA into host cell genome
E) expression of viral proteins
Q2) Which antiviral agent is active against viruses that cause several hemorrhagic fevers, such as Rift Valley fever virus?
A) ganciclovir
B) lamivudine
C) interferon alfa
D) foscarnet
E) ribavirin
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Chapter 44: Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is treated for a Schistosoma mansoni infection.Which mechanism is responsible for the drug's therapeutic effect?
A) increased chloride permeability
B) decreased chloride permeability
C) increased calcium permeability
D) decreased calcium permeability
E) decreased sodium permeability
Q2) Which drug may cause an acute disulfiram-like reaction if taken concurrently with alcohol?
A) metronidazole
B) primaquine
C) ivermectin
D) albendazole
E) pentamidine
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic and Immunomodulating Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman with ovarian cancer receives a drug that inhibits cancer cell mitosis.What is the dose-limiting adverse effect of this drug?
A) myelosuppression
B) neuropathy
C) cardiac toxicity
D) renal insufficiency
E) hepatic dysfunction
Q2) A man receives a monoclonal antibody for colorectal cancer.This agent binds to which target protein?
A) CD52 lymphocyte antigen
B) BCR-ABL oncoprotein
C) epidermal growth factor receptor
D) vascular endothelial growth factor
E) human epidermal growth factor-2 receptor
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