Course Introduction
Therapeutic Nutrition Study Guide Questions
Therapeutic Nutrition focuses on the role of diet and nutrition in the prevention, management, and treatment of various diseases and health conditions. This course explores the physiological basis of nutritional interventions, dietary modifications for specific disorders such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disorders, and kidney disease, and the development of individualized nutrition care plans. Students will learn to assess nutritional status, understand nutrient-drug interactions, and design evidence-based dietary strategies to optimize patient recovery and well-being, integrating both medical and cultural considerations in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda
Kelly DeBruyne
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2462 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foods such as potato chips, candy, and colas are called empty-kcalorie foods because they _____.
A) are inexpensive
B) are lacking in calories
C) are low in nutrient density
D) should be eaten in moderation
E) are mostly vitamins and minerals
Answer: C
Q2) What is wellness? Discuss the Health Line and its relation to wellness.
Answer: Wellness is defined as: maximum well-being; the top range of health states; the goal of the person who strives toward realizing his or her full potential physically, mentally, emotionally, spiritually, and socially. The choices people make each day affect not only their physical health but also their wellness -all the characteristics that make a person strong, confident, and able to function well with family, friends, and others. People who consistently make poor lifestyle choices on a daily basis increase their risks of developing diseases. A person's health can fall anywhere along a continuum, from maximum wellness on the one end to total failure to function (death) on the other. This is what's known as the Health Line.
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin _____ blood glucose uptake by the muscles and adipose tissue.
A) depresses
B) impedes
C) facilitates
D) stops
E) uncontrollably speeds
Answer: C
Q2) Soluble fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol levels by _____
A) converting cholesterol into vitamin D
B) binding cholesterol and carrying it out of the body with the feces
C) blocking the absorption of bile
D) preventing the production of bile
E) blocking the production of insulin
Answer: B
Q3) Most fiber-rich foods are kcalorie-free.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of nut seems to exert the most favorable effect on blood lipid levels?
A) peanuts
B) pecans
C) walnuts
D) macadamia
E) Brazil nuts
Answer: C
Q2) Sally eats meat but wants to reduce her saturated fat and cholesterol intake. What should she do?
A) Eliminate dairy foods from her diet.
B) Eat less meat and include more fruits, vegetables, and grains in her diet.
C) Eat more eggs and less meat.
D) Eliminate beef and pork from her diet.
E) Eat more meat and less eggs.
Answer: B
Q3) Olestra is fully absorbed by the body during digestion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) acid-base balance
A)maintenance of the necessary amounts and types of fluid and minerals in each compartment of the body fluids
B)swelling caused by accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces
C)compounds that release hydrogen ions in a solution
D)compounds that accept hydrogen ions in a solution
E)the balance maintained between acid and base concentrations in the blood and body fluids
F)the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution
G)too much acid in the blood and body fluids
H)too much base in the blood and body fluids
I)compounds that can reversibly combine with hydrogen ions to maintain a solution's acidity or alkalinity constant
J)produced in response to invasion by antigens
Q2) When glucose is unavailable, the ____ cannot function properly.
A) lungs and circulatory system
B) kidneys and liver
C) brain and nervous system
D) bones and muscles
E) muscles and liver
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microscopic hairs that cover the surface of each cell lining the small intestine are called ____.
A) intestinal folds
B) villi
C) microvilli
D) lymphatics
E) microcilia
Q2) Which organ is the primary source of digestive enzymes?
A) pancreas
B) gallbladder
C) small intestine
D) liver
E) spleen
Q3) Enzymes ____.
A) facilitate chemical reactions
B) draw water into the small intestine
C) are present in all parts of the GI tract
D) encourage bacterial growth
E) discourage water removal by the duodenum
Q4) Is eating raw seafood, like fish and oysters, ever safe?
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss three indicators used to identify and evaluate the health risks from overweight and obesity.
Q2) Explain the difference between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism.
Q3) About _____% of U.S. adults are overweight or obese.
A) 33
B) 42
C) 57
D) 68
E) 85
Q4) Discuss the characteristics of the female athlete triad?
Q5) Which individual would be classified as being very active?
A) a carpenter
B) a teacher
C) a football player
D) a gardener
E) a telemarketer
Q6) Normally, the nervous system consumes less than 50% of the total glucose used each day.
A)True
B)False Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) The secret to safe and permanent weight loss is a sensible approach involving
A) physical activity and a healthy, low-kcalorie diet
B) hormone treatments and diet pills
C) a very-low-kcalorie diet combined with excessive exercise
D) herbal supplements and a low-kcalorie diet
E) herbal supplements and a high-kcalorie diet
Q2) The surgical approach to weight loss can often be justified in cases of _____.
A) BMI 25-30
B) uncontrolled diabetes
C) clinically severe obesity
D) peptic ulcer disease
E) Prader-Willi syndrome
Q3) Physical activity should be an _____ part of a weight-management program.
A) invitational
B) excessive
C) optional
D) integral
E) irrational
Q4) Why are fad diets appealing to a lot of people?
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Potatoes provide about half of the vitamin C consumed by Americans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vitamin K has long been known for _____.
A) being responsible for energy metabolism
B) promoting healthy epithelial tissue
C) being involved with blood clotting
D) enhancing calcium utilization
E) regulating blood sugar levels
Q3) The fat-soluble vitamins _____.
A) are less stable than the water-soluble vitamins
B) are absorbed like fats
C) are usually constituents of coenzymes
D) are not essential
E) are only found in animal products like meat and eggs
Q4) Identify three ways vitamin D helps to maintain blood concentrations of calcium and phosphorus.
Q5) Name the antioxidant vitamins and describe how they function in the body.
Q6) Identify groups of people who are at risk for vitamin E deficiency, in addition to those with diseases.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoporosis is more prevalent in women because _____.
A) women consume more calcium
B) women's bodies don't utilize calcium as readily
C) women have larger bodies
D) women have lower bone mass
E) bone loss begins later in women versus men
Q2) Absorption of iron increases as intake increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Zinc is highest in foods with high _____ content.
A) alcohol
B) protein
C) carbohydrate
D) fat
E) water
Q4) Discuss fluid and electrolyte balance and why they are important to normal body functioning.
Q5) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Q6) What is the mechanism by which fluoride exerts a caries-reducing effect?
Q7) Describe how the body regulates the absorption of calcium.
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs naturally after periods of physical activity?
A) proper nutrition
B) gallbladder disease
C) depression
D) sleep
E) anxiety
Q2) Glycogen depletion generally occurs after about _____ of vigorous exercise.
A) two hours
B) one hour
C) three hours
D) 30 minutes
E) four hours
Q3) Only about _____ percent of adults in the U.S. meet physical activity guidelines set by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
E) 40
Q4) Does lactate really cause muscle fatigue during intense exercise?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many trimesters is a pregnancy cycle divided into?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q2) To encourage breastfeeding, maternity facilities would be wise to adopt which of these policies?
A) Give artificial nipples or pacifiers to breastfeeding infants.
B) Help mothers initiate breastfeeding as early as one week after birth.
C) Train all health care staff in the skills necessary to implement the breastfeeding policy.
D) Force mothers to breastfeed their infants even when they are asleep.
E) Keep babies in the nursery until feeding time to allow new mothers to rest.
Q3) The warning signs of preeclampsia include _____.
A) low blood iron and ketonuria
B) glucosuria and hyperactivity
C) hypertension and proteinuria
D) diabetes and ketonuria
E) low blood iron and edema
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most standard infant formulas are fortified with _____.
A) DHA and arachidonic acid
B) DHA and linoleic acid
C) linolenic and linoleic acid
D) DHA and EPA
E) DHA and linolenic acid
Q2) Applied to produce in the fields, what may linger on foods and cause adverse reactions in children?
A) plastic from crates
B) pesticides
C) wax
D) crop water
E) iron from twist ties
Q3) Iron intake often does not meet the iron needs of adolescent females because they tend to _____.
A) eat less iron-rich foods and fewer kcalories
B) consume more foods that interfere with iron absorption
C) have a longer growth spurt
D) develop greater lean body mass
E) dislike iron-rich foods, because they taste bitter
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) As people grow older, the use of medicines becomes commonplace, thus increasing the potential for diet-medication interactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The best choice for older adults with small energy allowances is to _____.
A) take vitamin-mineral supplements
B) select nutrient-dense foods
C) consume less food
D) moderate alcohol consumption
E) cut back on water intake
Q3) The U.S. Bureau of the Census projects that by the year _____ more than a million Americans will be 100 years old or older.
A) 2018
B) 2020
C) 2025
D) 2030
E) 2040
Q4) Why are some elderly people at risk of developing vitamin D deficiency?
Q5) List ten ways that older adults can stretch their food dollars.
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is not a limitation of a 24-hour dietary recall?
A) the previous day's intake may not be typical
B) they are difficult to obtain
C) the person may not be able to accurately report portion sizes
D) they provide data for one day only
E) variations in diet
Q2) Patients often experience a poor appetite when hospitalized. All of these conditions are likely explanations for this except ____.
A) emotional distress
B) medications that alter taste
C) meals are often served when the patient is not hungry
D) the presence of family members
E) lack of normal social interactions
Q3) Describe how nutrients alter gene expression.
Q4) Which medical problem is not generally associated with malnutrition?
A) celiac disease
B) alcoholism
C) pressure sores
D) incontinence
E) fluid retention
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that a patient placed on the anticoagulant drug warfarin will need _____.
A) supplements of vitamin K
B) a high-kcalorie diet
C) education regarding diet-drug interactions
D) education regarding increasing iron intake
E) education regarding monitoring fluid input and output
Q2) How should Mr. Hare be counseled regarding his vitamin K intake?
Q3) Which herbal product taken by Mr. Salazar may be causing his heart arrhythmia?
A) yohimbe
B) kava kava only
C) St. John's wort
D) valerian only
E) both valerian and kava kava
Q4) Which alternative therapy involves the alleged curative power of "energy"?
A) qi gong
B) massage therapy
C) biofeedback training
D) faith healing
E) chiropractic medicine
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe characteristics of patients who are candidates for PPN.
Q2) Rapid changes in infusion rates of a parenteral solution can cause _____.
A) fluctuations in blood glucose levels
B) diarrhea
C) obstructions
D) infection
E) constipation
Q3) To minimize the risk of aspiration of formula in tube-fed patients, the head of the patient's bed should be elevated _____.
A) after administering the feeding
B) during administration of the feeding
C) during and for 30 minutes after administration of the feeding
D) during and for 1 hour after administration of the feeding
E) during and for 2 hours after administration of the feeding
Q4) Which type of enteral formula usually has the highest osmolality?
A) standard formulas
B) modular formulas
C) specialized formulas
D) elemental formulas
E) macronutrient formulas
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain to Kelly how emotional stress can contribute to peptic ulcer disease.
Q2) The protein recommendation for bariatric surgery patients is _____ g per kg of body weight per day.
A) 0.8 to 1.0
B) 1.0 to 1.5
C) 1.2 to 1.8
D) 1.5 to 2.0
E) 2.0 to 2.5
Q3) A full-liquid diet is sometimes used as a transitional diet between the clear liquid diet and diets that contain solid foods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dental caries are caused by _____.
A) bacteria that produce acids that attack tooth enamel
B) excessive fluoride intake that attacks tooth enamel
C) high-fiber foods that cause carbohydrate to stick to teeth
D) excessive consumption of sugar that eats into teeth
E) over production of alkaline secretions
Page 20
Q5) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q6) Discuss the complications of gastritis.
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Page 21
Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with a colostomy or ileostomy is usually concerned about foods that cause _____.
A) gas and odor
B) weight gain
C) fluid retention
D) anemia
E) diarrhea
Q2) Should Mr. Fruge develop diverticulitis in the future, how would the dietary recommendations change?
Q3) Which type of medication relieves constipation by stimulating peristaltic contractions?
A) fiber
B) Citrucel
C) laxatives
D) psyllium.
E) psyllium
Q4) The development of diverticulosis is influenced by the type of dietary protein one consumes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ senses low oxygen content and releases chemicals that stimulate RBC production?
A) lungs
B) kidney
C) bone marrow
D) heart
E) liver
Q2) Generally, up to _____% of the small intestine can be resected without serious nutrition consequences.
A) 25
B) 30
C) 45
D) 50
E) 60
Q3) Fat malabsorption is associated with all of these conditions except _____.
A) weight loss
B) essential fatty acid deficiency
C) loss of sodium and potassium
D) increased risk of kidney stones
E) deficiency of fat soluble vitamins
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cirrhosis may present with no symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Furosemide is a(n) _____ often used to treat the symptoms of cirrhosis.
A) appetite stimulant
B) diuretic
C) laxative
D) antiviral
E) immunosuppressant
Q3) To add energy but not protein to the diet, you would add _____.
A) butter
B) milkshakes
C) vegetables
D) hard-boiled eggs
E) chopped nuts
Q4) Describe appropriate nutrition intervention before and after a liver transplant.
Q5) People with protein-energy malnutrition may experience fatty liver.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the treatment options for cholelithiasis? Explain each. Page 24
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Page 25
Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalent form of diabetes _____.
A) usually results from an autoimmune disorder
B) develops most often in people over 40
C) is called type 1 diabetes
D) develops as a result of drastic weight loss
E) is characterized by decreased insulin production
Q2) The simplest and most flexible approach for Mr. Joiner to use for optimal management of his blood glucose level is _____.
A) carbohydrate counting
B) food lists
C) MyPyramid
D) a high-protein diet
E) the DASH diet
Q3) Protein needs for people with diabetes are estimated using the DRI for adults, which is _____ g/kg body weight.
A) 0.6
B) 0.8
C) 1.0
D) 1.2
E) 1.5
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrates and nicotinic acid _____.
A) lower blood triglycerides and raise HDL
B) lower HDL and increase LDL
C) lower blood triglycerides and HDL
D) raise both HDL and LDL
E) have no effect on blood lipid levels
Q2) A patient's lipid profile shows elevated total cholesterol and LDL. Which nutrition intervention is recommended?
A) Eat less fiber.
B) Consume less saturated fat.
C) Consume less polyunsaturated fat.
D) Eat more protein.
E) Consume more carbohydrates and proteins.
Q3) The primary dietary recommendation for heart failure is protein restriction. A)True B)False
Q4) Ischemia refers to a deficiency of blood and oxygen delivery to the tissues. A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and describe three different types of stroke.
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The consequences of acute kidney injury include _____.
A) decreased BUN levels
B) increased serum creatine levels
C) azotemia, but not uremia
D) increased parathyroid hormone secretion
E) elevated sodium levels, which can lead to heart failure.
Q2) dialysate
A)the solution used in dialysis to draw wastes and fluids from the blood
B)abrupt decline in kidney function over a period of hours or days
C)blood in the urine
D)elevated serum potassium levels
E)elevated serum phosphate levels
F)elevated urinary oxalate levels
G)increased urine production
H)low serum potassium levels
I)elevated serum calcium levels
J)elevated urinary calcium levels
Q3) Describe the medical nutrition therapy for calcium oxalate stones.
Q4) Describe the two major consequences of kidney stones.
Q5) Which medications are used to prevent or treat calcium oxalate stones?
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory
Stress
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Q1) Persistent inflammation and excessive mucus secretion is characteristic of _____. A) bronchitis
B) emphysema
C) asthma
D) fibrosis
E) influenza
Q2) An increase in _____ is needed to support the increase in energy metabolism in hypermetabolic patients.
A) vitamin C
B) zinc
C) B vitamins
D) vitamin E
E) vitamin D
Q3) Why is Caroline likely to experience negative nitrogen balance despite being provided with adequate protein?
Q4) What type of enteral formula is best for Caroline at this time?
Q5) Describe the body's hormonal responses to stress.
29
Q6) What are the potential diet-drug interactions Caroline might experience?
Q7) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health proxy is also known as a _____.
A) legal will
B) living will
C) power of attorney
D) disclosure document
E) living trust
Q2) The symptoms that Ms. Arther is experiencing are consistent with _____.
A) radiation enteritis
B) tissue rejection
C) steatorrhea
D) lipodystrophy
E) the cancer
Q3) Discuss three strategies that might help a patient cope with her reduced taste sensation.
Q4) Discuss the concept behind hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.
Q5) Describe the metabolic changes associated with cancer that contribute to weight loss and nutrient depletion.
Q6) How might fruits and vegetables reduce the risks of some cancers?
Q7) Discuss three strategies that might help a cancer patient cope with nausea.
Q8) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about food-borne illnesses?
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