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Therapeutic Nutrition explores the role of diet and nutrition in the prevention, management, and treatment of various diseases and medical conditions. The course examines the physiological and biochemical basis of nutrition therapy, dietary modifications for specific health problems, and the integration of evidence-based nutritional strategies into patient care. Students will learn to assess nutritional needs, develop individualized meal plans, and understand the impact of different nutrients on health outcomes. Emphasis is placed on clinical case studies, the use of nutrition therapy in multidisciplinary healthcare teams, and current guidelines for nutrition interventions across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Nutritional Foundations and Clinical Applications 6th Edition by Michele Grodner
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20 Chapters
617 Verified Questions
617 Flashcards
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Q1) When clients have a strong family history of both heart disease and cancer,the nurse should encourage them to reduce their intake of A) dietary fiber.
B) protein.
C) monounsaturated fat.
D) saturated fat.
Answer: D
Q2) As a home health care nurse,you are visiting a 70-year-old client who has just returned home from the hospital after being treated for coronary artery disease.The medical nutrition therapy developed for him by the hospital dietitian is considered A) palliative care.
B) primary prevention.
C) secondary prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
Answer: D
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Q1) An eating behavior that is most likely to have a negative long-term effect on health is
A) a monthly meal out at an expensive restaurant.
B) eating French fries with lunch once a week.
C) avoiding a specific fruit or vegetable.
D) drinking one can of sugar-sweetened beverage every day.
Answer: D
Q2) Of the following,the most important overall dietary modification to help reduce the risk of chronic disease is
A) eating fewer foods that contain preservatives.
B) buying mostly locally grown foods.
C) eating more plant-based foods.
D) eating more animal-based foods.
Answer: C
Q3) The Nutrition Facts panel on a food label is useful for
A) determining the ingredients in a product.
B) determining the ease of preparing a product.
C) comparing the price value of two or more products.
D) comparing the nutritional value of two or more products.
Answer: D
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Q1) Examples of mechanical digestion include
A) activity of salivary amylase in the mouth.
B) churning and mixing of food in the stomach.
C) action of bile breaking fats into smaller droplets.
D) effects of secretin in stimulating the pancreas to release bicarbonate.
Answer: B
Q2) The action of salivary amylase in the mouth is an example of A) chemical digestion.
B) chewing.
C) mechanical digestion.
D) peristalsis and segmentation.
Answer: A
Q3) If peristalsis were to reverse direction,the result would be A) vomiting.
B) diarrhea.
C) constipation.
D) intestinal failure.
Answer: A
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Q1) A dietary fiber intake of 18 g daily is considered
A) the minimum recommended.
B) below the optimal range of intake.
C) within the optimal range of intake.
D) above the optimal range of intake.
Q2) A blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is considered to be A) inconclusive.
B) representative of hypoglycemia.
C) representative of normoglycemia.
D) representative of hyperglycemia.
Q3) The main concern with increasing intake of high-fructose corn syrup is that it
A) provides mostly fructose,which is poorly metabolized.
B) provides energy but no nutrients.
C) promotes storage of body fat.
D) cultivates an increased desire for sweet foods and beverages.
Q4) An example of a food with a low glycemic index is A) lentil soup.
B) a bagel.
C) a sports drink.
D) cornflakes cereal.

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Q1) A client who is a bodybuilder eats large quantities of tuna,chicken,and lean meats every day.Any extra energy from these foods that the client's body does not need will be stored as
A) adipose tissue.
B) essential body fat.
C) muscle tissue.
D) glycogen.
Q2) Of the following,the food that would provide the most energy per ounce is A) butter.
B) tuna.
C) pasta.
D) hard candy.
Q3) The best description of a fat with high amounts of trans fatty acids is that it is A) liquid at room temperature.
B) found naturally in tropical oils.
C) easily transformed from one state to another.
D) produced by hydrogenation of plant oils.
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Q1) Body proteins may become denatured in the presence of a A) drug overdose.
B) very high fever.
C) vitamin deficiency.
D) high stress level.
Q2) An example of the lifestyle habit of "chaining" is
A) gradually reducing intake of sugar-sweetened beverages.
B) eating a piece of fruit with breakfast every day.
C) keeping a record of all food and beverages eaten.
D) involving all family members in choosing healthy foods.
Q3) The property of protein that is most important to its buffering properties is
A) its ability to create osmotic pressure in intravascular,intracellular,and interstitial fluids.
B) the fact that amino acids include both an acid carboxyl group and an amine base group.
C) its ability to pump nutrients and other vital substances across cell membranes.
D) its communication (hormones)and catalytic (enzyme)functions that help regulate body functions.
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Q1) The most likely cause of vitamin toxicity is
A) high intake of fortified foods.
B) increased absorption as a result of medications.
C) long-term use of megadose supplements.
D) high intake of nutrient-dense foods.
Q2) Vegetables are likely to be highest in vitamin C if they are
A) boiled.
B) canned.
C) stir-fried.
D) oven roasted.
Q3) Rickets would be most likely to develop in a(n)
A) elderly frail adult who lives alone.
B) Asian college student who does not drink milk.
C) white toddler who has been weaned from breast milk.
D) 9-month-old breastfed African American baby.
Q4) Foods that are good sources of preformed vitamin A include A) sweet potatoes.
B) egg yolk.
C) tomatoes.
D) carrots.

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Q1) The most reliable source of iodine in the United States is A) seafood.
B) dairy products.
C) fortified table salt.
D) residues of cleaning products.
Q2) If a patient complained of muscle weakness,confusion,decreased appetite,and irregular heartbeat,it would be important to check blood levels of A) sodium.
B) calcium.
C) potassium.
D) magnesium.
Q3) The first signal that the body needs fluid is A) dark,concentrated urine.
B) the sensation of hunger.
C) the sensation of thirst.
D) headache.
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Q1) For a man,a total body fat level of 18% is considered A) too low.
B) healthy.
C) too high.
D) obese.
Q2) The behavior change that would do most to help preserve lean body mass is A) avoiding weight loss.
B) exercising regularly.
C) decreasing dietary fat intake.
D) ensuring adequate protein intake.
Q3) Athletes who exercise regularly are able to exercise for longer,partly because their body is able to use more energy from A) Fat.
B) Protein.
C) Amino acids.
D) Carbohydrates.
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Q1) A meal that a family should not share with their 10-month-old infant is
A) meatloaf and mashed potatoes.
B) refried beans and cheese.
C) peanut butter and honey sandwich.
D) baked fish and butternut squash.
Q2) If an older adult is confused,he or she may have a deficiency of A) iron.
B) zinc.
C) water.
D) protein.
Q3) The person most likely to be eligible for the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)is a
A) 55-year-old single man who earns minimum wage.
B) college student who works part time.
C) single mother with three children who works part time.
D) pregnant woman with gestational diabetes.
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Q1) The best way to estimate height for a patient with both legs amputated below the knee is to use
A) demi-span (distance from the sternal notch to the middle finger).
B) knee height (with the use of calipers to measure heel-to-thigh distance).
C) recumbent bed height measured while the patient is lying down.
D) the patient's stated pre-amputation height.
Q2) When a nurse is recording food intake for a calorie count,the best way to describe food intake is to
A) list the percentage of each food served that was actually eaten.
B) describe intake in qualitative terms,such as "fair," "adequate," and "good."
C) weigh each food before and after the patient eats and list the weight of food eaten.
D) visit the patient each day and obtain a 24-hour diet recall.
Q3) If a male patient weighs 140 pounds when he is admitted to a long-term care facility and weighs 147 pounds 2 months later,his percent weight change during his hospital stay is
A) 3.5%.
B) 5%.
C) 7%.
D) 14%.
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Q1) One advantage of a full liquid diet is that it
A) has low levels of saturated fat and high levels of fiber.
B) is suitable for patients with lactose intolerance.
C) is likely to be tolerated by patients with dysphagia.
D) can provide an adequate diet if very carefully planned.
Q2) A patient should be discouraged from using echinacea to help reduce the duration of colds if he or she is using
A) anticoagulant drugs to prevent formation of blood clots.
B) immunosuppressant drugs after organ transplantation.
C) oral contraceptives or hormone replacement therapy.
D) oral hypoglycemic agents for treatment of diabetes.
Q3) A patient who is an orthodox Jew would not eat
A) chicken in cream sauce.
B) a hamburger and fries.
C) a grilled cheese and tomato sandwich.
D) scrambled eggs and hash browns.
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Q1) For patients with inflammatory bowel disease,nutrition therapy is A) the primary mode of treatment.
B) rarely necessary.
C) an important adjunct to drugs and surgery.
D) highly specialized.
Q2) Nutrition therapy for peptic ulcers should be individualized,depending on A) type of drug treatment.
B) location of the ulcer.
C) patient tolerance.
D) the cause of the ulcer.
Q3) For patients with ostomies,a lower amount of output occurs
A) if the ostomy is closer to the rectum.
B) if the ostomy is closer to the rectum.,
C) with high fiber intake..
D) with high fat intake.
Q4) Fluid loss is most likely to be a problem for a patient with A) a colostomy.
B) a hiatal hernia.
C) an ileostomy.
D) Crohn's disease.
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Q1) An example of an individual who may be at high risk for gallstones is a(n)
A) underweight woman who runs 3 miles four times a week.
B) overweight man who smokes and has a sedentary job.
C) overweight man who has recently begun an exercise program.
D) mother with four children who has lost 25 pounds in the past 3 months.
Q2) For patients with hepatitis,an important way to minimize loss of muscle mass is to A) participate in daily aerobic exercise.
B) participate in daily strength exercise.
C) maintain an adequate protein intake.
D) maintain an adequate micronutrient intake.
Q3) A patient with end-stage liver disease may lose fat stores and muscle mass,but this may not be evident from measurements of body weight because of A) dehydration.
B) fat redistribution.
C) ascites and edema.
D) electrolyte imbalances.
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Q1) In a patient with type 2 diabetes,a glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA c)level of 7.9% would be considered
A) too low.
B) normal.
C) indicative of prediabetes.
D) indicative of poor blood glucose control.
Q2) If a woman is brought into the emergency room with nausea,weakness,and fruity-smelling breath,the test you would perform first is
A) blood glucose measurement.
B) blood alcohol measurement.
C) a pregnancy test.
D) blood pressure measurement.
Q3) If a patient with type 1 diabetes is unable to maintain good blood glucose control through insulin injections,the physician may recommend
A) an oral hypoglycemic agent.
B) using an insulin pump.
C) more frequent self-monitoring of blood glucose.
D) a daily exercise routine.
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Q1) Once patients have completely recovered from gastric bypass surgery for treatment of obesity,an appropriate meal would be
A) a large green salad with chopped turkey and vinaigrette dressing.
B) a medium vanilla shake.
C) half a small chicken breast and \( 1 / 2 \) cup of green beans.
D) a cup of bean soup with vegetable sticks.
Q2) If a student group goes on hunger strike and drinks water but does not eat any food for 4 days,they are likely to
A) feel colder than usual.
B) have increased mental acuity.
C) sleep for shorter periods of time.
D) develop fluid overload.
Q3) In a critically ill patient receiving parenteral nutrition,a blood glucose level of 145 mg/dL is considered
A) too low.
B) acceptable.
C) slightly elevated.
D) seriously elevated.
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Q1) Primary or essential hypertension is caused by A) unknown factors.
B) sedentary lifestyle.
C) excess sodium intake.
D) being overweight or obese.
Q2) If a patient with COPD normally eats a sandwich for lunch and wants to decrease his or her respiratory quotient (RQ),he or she could
A) add extra mayonnaise and remove some of the bread.
B) remove the cheese and add lettuce and tomato.
C) add extra lean meat and use mustard instead of mayonnaise.
D) use whole-grain bread and add spinach.
Q3) Of the following,the most helpful change to decrease blood LDL cholesterol levels would be to
A) eat oatmeal instead of a bagel for breakfast.
B) use fresh rather than canned vegetables.
C) use margarine instead of butter.
D) eat a salad instead of a sandwich for lunch.
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Q1) It would be most challenging to design a diet for chronic renal failure for
A) a patient with elevated levels of serum low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol.
B) a patient with hypertension.
C) someone who follows a vegan eating pattern.
D) someone who adheres to strict kosher food laws.
Q2) The National Renal Diet
A) provides carefully calculated menus for patients with chronic renal failure.
B) provides flexible meal planning tools for patients with chronic renal failure.
C) provides lists of foods that are acceptable for patients with chronic renal failure.
D) allows patients with chronic renal failure to select foods without the help of a registered dietitian.
Q3) If a patient with chronic renal failure begins peritoneal dialysis,his or her protein intake should
A) be calculated on the basis of the degree of malnutrition.
B) be determined by the patient's blood urea nitrogen level.
C) decrease because the patient is not losing protein in urine.
D) increase because protein is lost into the dialysate.
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Q1) An example of a meal that may be beneficial for cognitive function in patients with Alzheimer's disease is
A) baked salmon and spinach salad.
B) scrambled eggs and whole-grain toast.
C) cottage cheese and applesauce.
D) calves' liver and onions.
Q2) A supplement that may help patients with insomnia to normalize their sleep patterns is
A) magnesium.
B) melatonin.
C) dopamine.
D) caffeine.
Q3) A helpful strategy to prevent development of Guillain-Barré syndrome would be to A) avoid sexual contact with affected individuals.
B) drink only pasteurized milk.
C) use gloves to avoid contact with infected blood.
D) avoid eating home-canned food.
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Q1) If a patient with HIV/AIDs is experiencing diarrhea,a good way to increase energy and protein intakes would be to
A) add skim milk powder to shakes and soups.
B) add butter to hot cereals,vegetables,rice,and noodles.
C) eat three main meals daily,each with a serving of meat or fish.
D) use peanut butter on toast or as a dip for fruits and vegetables.
Q2) If a patient has dumping syndrome after surgery to remove a tumor,he or she has probably had a A) vagotomy.
B) gastrectomy.
C) pancreatectomy.
D) small bowel resection.
Q3) An important nutritional goal for patients with cancer or HIV/AIDS is to A) eat several meals a day.
B) avoid use of supplements.
C) improve quality of life.
D) maintain usual eating habits.
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