Therapeutic Modalities Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Therapeutic Modalities explores the theoretical foundations and practical applications of physical agents used in the treatment of injuries and various medical conditions. The course covers a range of modalities including heat, cold, ultrasound, electrical stimulation, and hydrotherapy, emphasizing their physiological effects, indications, contraindications, and safe clinical use. Students will gain hands-on experience in selecting and applying these therapies to enhance patient recovery and manage pain. Through case studies and evidence-based practice, the course aims to develop critical thinking and decision-making skills essential for healthcare professionals working in rehabilitation and physical therapy settings.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Modalities 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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19 Chapters
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380 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Injury Response Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents macrotrauma? Select all that apply.
A) Sprain
B) Stress fracture
C) Muscle soreness
D) Fracture
E) Strain
Answer: A,D,E
Q2) There are three potential outcomes of the injury process.What best describes the regeneration outcome?
A) The original tissue is replaced with scar tissue.
B) The structure's original structure and function is lost.
C) The structure retains some or all of its original structure and function.
D) Dead cells and cellular debris are removed by phagocytosis.
Answer: B
Q3) What type of tissue is the most abundant in the body?
A) Epithelial
B) Muscle
C) Adipose
D) Connective
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Physiology and Psychology of Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) In pain control theory,which is considered a secondary pain control approach?
A) Target the perception of pain
B) Resolve physiological pain triggers
C) Decrease mechanical irritation
D) Decrease chemical irritation
Answer: A
Q2) What pain-decreasing medication temporarily blocks nerve conduction,thus resulting in the loss of sensation?
A) Aspirin
B) Lidocaine
C) Endorphin
D) Propoxyphene
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following dimensions of pain perception localize the source and type of pain?
A) Effective-terminal
B) Sensory-discriminative
C) Cognitive-evaluative
D) Affective-motivational
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies
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Q1) In which component of the problem-solving approach would you identify the stage of the healing process?
A) Medical history
B) Recognition of the problem
C) Goal setting
D) Treatment planning
Answer: B
Q2) The problem-solving approach to developing an intervention strategy is a logic-based technique that uses what components? Select all that apply.
A) Clinical examination findings
B) Patient's long-term goals
C) Best available evidence
D) Cost of the interventions
E) Supplies of the facility
Answer: A,B,C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Administrative Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is accurate in its description of direct access?
A) Third-party reimburses will always reimburse in a state that is granted direct access.
B) Professions granted direct access typically do not require a physician's referral.
C) Cold packs,moist heat packs,and whirlpools typically require a prescription in states without direct access.
D) Phonophoresis and iontophoresis do not require a prescription if the profession is granted direct access.
Q2) Where is the ideal location for the ON-OFF switch to a whirlpool motor?
A) Within reach of the patient in the tub
B) Out of reach of the patient in the tub
C) Mounted on top of the tub's motor
D) It does not matter where the ON-OFF switch is located.
Q3) As a general rule,treatment tables should be ___high and ___apart.
A) 30 inches; 30 inches
B) 30 inches; 4 feet
C) 2 feet; 4 feet
D) 2 feet; 30 inches
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Chapter 5: Thermal Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heat produces vasodilation through a combination of what mechanisms? Select all that apply.
A) Arteriole smooth muscle relaxes
B) Capillary smooth muscle relaxes
C) Release of neurotransmitters and peptides
D) Spinal level reflex
E) Cerebral cortex level reflex
Q2) When comparing heat and cold,which of the following accurately describes the effect of heat treatments?
A) Decreased cell wastes
B) Decreased blood flow
C) Increased fluid viscosity
D) Increased capillary permeability
Q3) How deep are superficial heating agents able to penetrate?
A) Less than 2 cm
B) 2 cm to 4 cm
C) 4 cm to 6 cm
D) Greater than 6 cm
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7
Chapter 6: Clinical Application of Thermal Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) When examining and cleaning a whirlpool,what should be completed annually? Select all that apply.
A) Check the ground fault interrupter
B) Have whirlpool turbine inspected
C) Calibrate the tub's thermometer
D) Clean exterior surface of the tub
E) Disinfect the interior surface of the tub
Q2) At what skin temperature is maximum analgesia reached when applying a cold pack?
A) 58°F
B) 32°F
C) 65°F
D) 25°F
Q3) Which is an accurate step in the general setup and application of a cold compression therapy unit?
A) Add warm water to the fill mark
B) Fasten distal strap first and snuggly
C) Fasten proximal strap second and snuggly
D) Elevate the cooler to the level of the body part being treated
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) What temperature increase is required to decrease muscle spasm and pain?
A) 1°C
B) 2 to 3°C
C) 3 to 4°C
D) 5°C
Q2) Which interface results in 99.9 percent of ultrasound energy being reflected?
A) Soft tissue-air
B) Soft tissue-bone
C) Soft tissue-fat
D) Water-soft tissue
Q3) Ultrasound with continuous output produces energy 100 percent of the time.In what terms is the output measured?
A) Spatial average intensity
B) Spatial average temporal peak intensity
C) Spatial average temporal average intensity
D) Spatial average peak-to-peak intensity
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Chapter 8: Clinical Application of Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) Ultrasound can only increase tissue temperatures when the treatment area is approximately ___the size of the effective radiating area.
A) two times
B) equal to
C) three times
D) one half
Q2) Applying which technique before treatment will result in a more rapid increase in intramuscular temperature?
A) Moist heat pack
B) Shaving the skin
C) Preheated coupling medium
D) Cooled coupling medium
Q3) When applying underwater ultrasound,about how far should the ultrasound head be from the body part?
A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 1 in.
D) 2 in.
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10
Chapter 9: Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Which of the following are similar between shortwave diathermy and ultrasound?
A) Thermal and nonthermal effects
B) Volume of tissue treated
C) Bone's reflection of energy
D) Depth of treatment
Q2) When a capacitive field generator is used,what tissue will present the most electrical resistance and thus produce the most heat?
A) Adipose
B) Skin
C) Muscle
D) Fascia
Q3) Due to the complexity of setup and the potential for burns,what method is infrequently used?
A) Drum
B) Cable
C) Electrode
D) Pan
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Chapter 10: Clinical Application of Shortwave Diathermy
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Sample Questions
Q1) When higher than moderate treatment temperatures are used,how often can patients receive treatments?
A) No more than one every 2 hours
B) No more than 2 every hour
C) No more than one every hour
D) No more than two in 1 day
Q2) Which of the following contraindicate the use of shortwave diathermy? Select all that apply.
A) Cancer
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Sinusitis
D) Hematoma
E) Muscle spasm
Q3) Which of the following heating modalities is capable of penetrating all the tissues of the body?
A) Ultrasound
B) Shortwave diathermy
C) Warm whirlpool
D) Moist heat pack
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Chapter 11: Principles of Electrical Stimulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of current do interferential stimulators use?
A) Direct current
B) Alternating current
C) Pulsed current
D) Polyphasic current
Q2) What unit is used to express the relationship between voltage and amperage?
A) Wattage
B) Mhos
C) Inductance
D) Coulombs
Q3) What is the unit of potential difference and represents the amount of work required to move one coulomb of charge?
A) Volt
B) Milliampere
C) Ampere
D) Current
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13
Chapter 12: Electrical Stimulation Techniques
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Q1) What stimulation level has an intensity that produces a visible muscle contraction without causing pain?
A) Noxious-level stimulation
B) Sensory-level stimulation
C) Motor-level stimulation
D) Subsensory-level stimulation
Q2) Which of the following is considered a trigger point?
A) The skin surface area of a muscle that is hypersensitive to electrical current flow
B) A pathological and localized area of pain that is hypersensitive to electrical current flow
C) Site on the skin that has a decreased electrical resistance and increased conductivity
D) Areas of the skin that connect to deeper channels that allow systemic regulation of body function
Q3) What type of resistance does the skin present to electrical current flow?
A) Capacitive and parallel
B) Capacitive
C) Parallel
D) Neither capacitive nor parallel
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14
Chapter 13: Clinical Application of Electrical Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are indications for the use of microcurrent electrical stimulation? Select all that apply.
A) Sprain
B) Neuropathies
C) Superficial wound healing
D) Hyperhidrosis
E) Myofascial pain syndrome
Q2) When applying transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS),which protocol provides relief for hours and uses two to four pulses per second?
A) High TENS
B) Low TENS
C) Brief-intense TENS
D) Long-intense TENS
Q3) When applying iontophoresis with lidocaine,in concentrations up to 50 percent,what is the minimum time of application to anesthetize the skin?
A) 5 min
B) 10 min
C) 20 min
D) 30 min
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intermittent Compression
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Q1) When treating lymphedema,what is the typical treatment time of intermittent compression?
A) 5 minutes
B) 20 to 30 minutes
C) 60 minutes
D) Several hours
Q2) When using intermittent compression to treat lymphedema,what is the common duration of treatment?
A) 20 min
B) 10 min
C) 30 min
D) Several hours
Q3) When using external compression to treat lower leg edema,pressures of ___have been shown to increase venous flow by 175 percent.
A) 35 to 55 mm Hg
B) 10 to 30 mm Hg
C) 65 to 95 mm Hg
D) 90 to 100 mm Hg
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16
Chapter 15: Continuous Passive Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are indications to treat with continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.
A) After joint arthroplasty
B) Joint contracture
C) Thrombophlebitis
D) After meniscectomy
E) Spastic paralysis
Q2) Robert Salter originally proposed the use of continuous passive motion and hypothesized that its application would be beneficial in which ways? Select all that apply.
A) Enhancing the nutrition and metabolic activity of articular cartilage
B) Stimulating tissue remodeling and regrowth of articular cartilage
C) Accelerating the healing of articular cartilage,tendons,and ligaments
D) Accelerating the healing of muscle tissues
E) Stimulating an increase in muscular strength and metabolic activity
Q3) Continuous passive motion is more effective than static stretching when increasing range of motion due to soft tissue restriction.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Cervical and Lumbar Traction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are indications to the use of lumbar traction? Select all that apply.
A) Spinal cord compression
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Nerve root compression
D) Acute injury
E) Osteoarthritis
Q2) In healthy vertebrae,approximately what percentage of the spine's weight-bearing load is transmitted through the facet joint?
A) 5 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 30 percent
Q3) In what position should the lumbar spine be placed to open the facet joints?
A) Extension
B) Flexion
C) Neutral
D) Rotation
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18
Chapter 17: Therapeutic Massage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What describes the proper procedure when performing the active assistive technique of "sports massage"?
A) Distal to proximal and parallel to the muscle fibers
B) Distal to proximal and perpendicular to the muscle fibers
C) Proximal to distal and parallel to the muscle fibers
D) Proximal to distal and perpendicular to the muscle fibers
Q2) Which form of massage is described as a stroking of the skin?
A) Effleurage
B) Petrissage
C) Friction massage
D) Myofascial release
Q3) "Sports massage" is a broad term that is used to describe the combination of what massage techniques?
A) Effleurage and petrissage
B) Petrissage and friction massage
C) Effleurage and friction massage
D) Effleurage,petrissage,and friction massage
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19
Chapter 18: Electromyographic Biofeedback
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Q1) What term is commonly used to represent the small amount of energy that is absorbed by the body due to its bombardment by electromagnetic energy?
A) Noise
B) Interference
C) Static
D) Resistance
Q2) What biofeedback parameter identifies a target range for electromyographic activity?
A) Alarm
B) Output
C) Sensitivity range
D) Tuner
Q3) The most sensitive EMG surface monitors have electrodes made with what metal?
A) Silver
B) Zinc
C) Gold
D) Copper
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Low-Level Laser Therapy
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Q1) Effects of laser therapy that occur from the absorption of photons are termed "indirect effects."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is considered a primary effect of therapeutic laser treatment?
A) Vasodilation of microvessels
B) Decreased ATP production
C) Decreased collagen production
D) Decreased macrophage activity
Q3) Current evidence suggests that the biophysical benefits of laser are related to what?
A) Photomechanical or photothermal effects
B) Photochemical or photothermal effects
C) Photomechanical or photochemical effects
D) Photomechanical,photochemical,and photothermal effects
Q4) Laser is often used to assist in the healing of deep wounds,including surgical incisions and severe burns.
A)True
B)False
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