Therapeutic Modalities
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Therapeutic Modalities explores the principles, applications, and evidence-based practice of various physical agents and techniques used in the rehabilitation and management of injuries and medical conditions. The course covers modalities such as heat, cold, ultrasound, electrical stimulation, laser therapy, and manual approaches, focusing on their physiological effects, indications, contraindications, and safe integration into comprehensive treatment plans. Students gain foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to select and administer appropriate modalities to enhance healing, alleviate pain, and restore function across diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Modalities 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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Chapter 1: The Injury Response Process
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Q1) What type of tissue is the most abundant in the body?
A) Epithelial
B) Muscle
C) Adipose
D) Connective
Answer: D
Q2) According to the practical evidence,what are the primary uses for compression wraps? Select all that apply.
A) Increase venous return
B) Reduce acute hemorrhage
C) Prevent venous pooling
D) Reduce secondary cell death
Answer: B,C
Q3) What is the longest stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) Alarm
B) Resistance
C) Exhaustion
D) Excitement
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Physiology and Psychology of Pain
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Q1) Which statement best describes nociception?
A) Nociception must be interpreted as pain by higher brain centers.
B) Nociception is a neuropsychological process that must be interpreted as pain.
C) Nociception describes an unpleasant sensation.
D) Nociception is the neural process of encoding and processing noxious stimuli.
Answer: D
Q2) In pain control theory,which is considered a secondary pain control approach?
A) Target the perception of pain
B) Resolve physiological pain triggers
C) Decrease mechanical irritation
D) Decrease chemical irritation
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following are examples of mechanical stimuli that can trigger peripheral nociceptors? Select all that apply.
A) Thermal changes associated with the inflammatory response
B) Direct-force trauma
C) Release of prostaglandins from trauma
D) Pressure from swelling
Answer: B,D
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Chapter 3: Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies
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Q1) Which of the following are considered external factors that affect the development of a treatment plan? Select all that apply.
A) Expertise of the staff
B) Financial constraints
C) Type of available equipment
D) Patient's motivation
E) Support the patient receives from friends and family
Answer: A,D,E
Q2) Which statement accurately describes long-term goals?
A) Long-term goals are revised more often than short-term goals.
B) There are typically more long-term goals than short-term goals.
C) Long-term goals focus on restoring participation.
D) Long-term goals tend to address specific pathologies.
Answer: C
Q3) What is the purpose of "Condition" in the ABCD goal-writing structure?
A) To identify the person performing the task
B) To describe the task using action terms
C) To define the tools or techniques used in obtaining the goal
D) To identify the quality with which the task will be performed
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Administrative Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) All therapeutic equipment must be inspected and calibrated by a qualified technician at least _____________.
A) yearly
B) weekly
C) monthly
D) twice a year
Q2) What term best identifies defamation of character through printed or electronic media?
A) Libel
B) Liability
C) Slander
D) Negligence
Q3) As a general rule,treatment tables should be ___high and ___apart.
A) 30 inches; 30 inches
B) 30 inches; 4 feet
C) 2 feet; 4 feet
D) 2 feet; 30 inches
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Chapter 5: Thermal Modalities
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Q1) Which local response will occur as the body responds to heat loss from cryotherapy?
A) Vasodilation
B) Decreased metabolic rate
C) Increased inflammation
D) Increased pain
Q2) What is identified when skin has ghost-white areas and beet-red splotches?
A) Mottling
B) Erythema
C) Pallor
D) Cyanosis
Q3) Which scenario will result in the greatest decrease of subcutaneous tissue temperatures?
A) Ice bag applied with a compression wrap
B) Ice bag alone
C) Ice bag applied over an elastic wrap
D) Ice bag applied with a compression wrap over an elastic wrap
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Chapter 6: Clinical Application of Thermal Modalities
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Q1) According to the practical evidence,how should an ice pack be applied in order to obtain maximal intramuscular temperature decrease?
A) With an elastic wrap
B) With flexible plastic wrap
C) Without any wrap
D) With a nonflexible plastic wrap
Q2) Which is an accurate step in the general setup and application of a cold compression therapy unit?
A) Add warm water to the fill mark
B) Fasten distal strap first and snuggly
C) Fasten proximal strap second and snuggly
D) Elevate the cooler to the level of the body part being treated
Q3) What are two current methods used for cryostretch?
A) Ethyl chloride and ice massage
B) Ethyl chloride and ice immersion
C) Fluoromethane spray and ice immersion
D) Fluoromethane spray and ice massage
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8
Chapter 7: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) Ultrasound is able to pass through both solid and liquid mediums because it travels as a _____wave.
A) longitudinal
B) perpendicular
C) parallel
D) short
Q2) Which of the following represents a 1-MHz output frequency? Select all that apply.
A) Divergent beam
B) Maximum heating rate of 0.36°F per minute per W/cm<sup>2</sup>
C) Penetration depth of 0.8 to 3 cm
D) Maximum heating rate of 1.1°F per minute per W/cm<sup>2</sup>
E) Collimated beam
Q3) What temperature increase is required to decrease muscle spasm and pain?
A) 1°C
B) 2 to 3°C
C) 3 to 4°C
D) 5°C
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Chapter 8: Clinical Application of Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) Which of the following will not trigger the ultrasound unit to automatically shut down?
A) Application without a coupling medium
B) Insufficient contact between transducer and the skin
C) Unacceptable coupling medium is used
D) Too much coupling medium is used
Q2) Which of the following represents a good ultrasound setup if nonthermal effects are desired?
A) Duty cycle of 25 percent and an intensity of 0.5 W per centimeter
B) Duty cycle of 25 percent and an intensity of 1.5 W per centimeter
C) Duty cycle of 50 percent and an intensity of 0.5 W per centimeter
D) Duty cycle of 50 percent and an intensity of 1.5 W per centimeter
Q3) Which ultrasound coupling method will transmit the most energy and cause more heating?
A) Direct coupling
B) 1-cm-thick gel pad
C) 2-cm-thick gel pad
D) Direct coupling and gel pads (1 and 2 cm)each transmit the same energy
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Chapter 9: Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Which of the following are considered nonthermal effects associated with shortwave diathermy? Select all that apply.
A) Increased microvascular perfusion
B) Activation of fibroblast growth factors
C) Increased macrophage activity
D) Promotion of edema reduction
E) Reduction of muscle hypertrophy
Q2) What type of shortwave diathermy produces heat via the dipole effect?
A) Induction field generators
B) Capacitive field generators
C) Capacitive field generators and induction field generators
D) Neither the capacitive field generators nor the induction field generators
Q3) Shortwave diathermy is a(n)__frequency electrical current that produces deep-tissue heating.
A) high-
B) low-
C) alternating
D) pulsed
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Chapter 10: Clinical Application of Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) At moderate intensities,what is an appropriate treatment duration for shortwave diathermy?
A) 5 to 10 min
B) 10 to 20 min
C) 20 to 30 min
D) 60 min
Q2) A unit is considered in tune when you have to use less than what percentage of the maximum output in the treatment?
A) 10 percent
B) 30 percent
C) 70 percent
D) 50 percent
Q3) With continuous shortwave diathermy,there must be no metal within what distance from the treatment area?
A) 0.5 ft
B) 1 ft
C) 1.5 ft
D) 3 ft
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Chapter 11: Principles of Electrical Stimulation
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Q1) What parameter of interferential current identified as the distance from the peak on the positive side of the baseline to the peak on the negative side?
A) Peak-to-peak amplitude
B) Peak value
C) Cycle duration
D) Peak frequency
Q2) Due to the lower charge per phase,which of the following waveforms tends to be the most comfortable for patients?
A) Symmetrical biphasic
B) Asymmetrical biphasic
C) Unbalanced symmetrical biphasic
D) Unbalanced asymmetrical biphasic
Q3) What two properties are collectively known as impedance? Select all that apply.
A) Inductance
B) Capacitance
C) Resistance
D) Ohm's law
E) Wattage
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Chapter 12: Electrical Stimulation Techniques
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Q1) When targeting deeper tissues,how should you place the electrodes?
A) Farther apart
B) Closer together
C) Perpendicular to muscle fibers
D) Electrode placement does not affect the depth.
Q2) What are the correct pain control parameters of an electrical stimulation treatment meant to trigger the release of enkephalins?
A) High-pulse frequency with sensory-level stimulation
B) High-pulse frequency with motor-level stimulation
C) Low-pulse frequency with high-intensity stimulation
D) Low-pulse frequency with short phase-duration
Q3) When attempting to achieve motor-level stimulation,what are the primary pulse characteristics that determine the quality of the muscle contraction? Select all that apply.
A) Pulse rise
B) Phase duration
C) Intensity
D) Pulse frequency
E) Ramp time
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Clinical Application of Electrical Agents
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Q1) When preparing the patient for a pain-control technique with electrical stimulation,one should ask about caffeine intake.The effectiveness of electrical stimulation on pain control is diminished after how many milligrams of caffeine have been ingested?
A) 200
B) 150
C) 100
D) 50
Q2) Which electrotherapy agents are indicated for muscle disuse atrophy? Select all that apply.
A) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
B) High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)
C) Interferential stimulation (IFS)
D) Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)
E) Microcurrent electrical stimulation
Q3) "Russian" stimulation is an excellent method for what purpose?
A) Decreasing muscular atrophy
B) Modulating pain
C) Reducing edema
D) Helping superficial wound healing
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Chapter 14: Intermittent Compression
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Q1) What is the normal pressure range when using intermittent compression to treat the upper extremity?
A) 30 to 60 mm Hg
B) 10 to 30 mm Hg
C) 60 to 100 mm Hg
D) 100 to 120 mm Hg
Q2) When applying intermittent compression for long periods of time,which of the following should be checked regularly?
A) Capillary refill and unexpected pitting edema
B) Capillary refill and limb girth
C) Pitting edema and limb volume
D) Limb volume and limb girth
Q3) The primary contraindications to intermittent compression are associated with the significant increase in flow through the venous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Protein-rich matter is more responsive to intermittent compression than fluids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Continuous Passive Motion
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Q1) The pumping action created by continuous passive motion circulates synovial fluid and assists in the removal of what? Select all that apply.
A) Joint hemarthrosis
B) Periarticular edema
C) Blood from tissue surrounding the joint
D) Pitting edema
E) Lymphedema
Q2) After surgery,continuous passive motion is typically used for ___hours a day.
A) 8 to 10
B) 2 to 4
C) 4 to 6
D) 6 to 8
Q3) Throughout a range of motion,when is joint volume normally at its greatest?
A) Full extension
B) Full flexion
C) Midrange between flexion and extension
D) Volume does not change throughout a range of motion
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Chapter 16: Cervical and Lumbar Traction
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Q1) Which form of traction allows the patient to self-administer the traction?
A) Manual traction
B) Intermittent traction
C) Positional traction
D) Sustained traction
Q2) In healthy vertebrae,approximately what percentage of the spine's weight-bearing load is transmitted through the facet joint?
A) 5 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 30 percent
Q3) What do the fundamental effects of cervical and lumbar traction arise from?
A) Distraction of the vertebral segments
B) Rehydration of the disk
C) Elongation of the soft tissue structures
D) Opening of the facet joints
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Chapter 17: Therapeutic Massage
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Q1) In general,massage is an effective treatment for what conditions? Select all that apply.
A) Reduce muscle spasm
B) Promote relaxation
C) Improve blood flow
D) Increase venous drainage
E) Increase cellular metabolism
Q2) What is the most fundamental form of myofascial release?
A) J-stroke
B) Focused stretching
C) Skin rolling
D) Diagonal release
Q3) Due to the possibility of misuse,many states require what type of regulation for massage therapists?
A) Licensure
B) Certification
C) Registration
D) No regulation is required.
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Chapter 18: Electromyographic Biofeedback
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Q1) The most sensitive EMG surface monitors have electrodes made with what metal?
A) Silver
B) Zinc
C) Gold
D) Copper
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the placement of surface electrodes when using electromyographic biofeedback?
A) The electrodes should be placed about 3 cm apart.
B) The closer the electrodes,the stronger the signal.
C) The farther apart the electrodes,the weaker the signal.
D) Electrodes placed farther apart will have better reliability.
Q3) What step in the electromyographic biofeedback signal process involves taking the absolute value of the negative electrical activity and making it a mathematically positive number?
A) Amplification
B) Integration
C) Rectification
D) Identification
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Chapter 19: Low-Level Laser Therapy
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Q1) While the efficacy has not been substantiated,which of the following represent indications for the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.
A) Thrombophlebitis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Fibromyalgia
D) Fracture healing
E) Pain in an unfused epiphyseal plate
Q2) Longer laser wavelengths penetrate deeper into tissues than shorter wavelengths. A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is considered a primary effect of therapeutic laser treatment?
A) Vasodilation of microvessels
B) Decreased ATP production
C) Decreased collagen production
D) Decreased macrophage activity
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