Therapeutic Interventions in Rehabilitation Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Therapeutic Interventions in Rehabilitation explores the theoretical foundations and practical application of various therapeutic modalities used in the rehabilitation of individuals with physical, neurological, or musculoskeletal impairments. The course examines evidence-based strategies, including manual therapy, exercise prescription, electrotherapy, and emerging technologies, to optimize functional outcomes and quality of life for patients. Through case studies and hands-on practice, students will learn to assess patient needs, develop individualized treatment plans, and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions across diverse clinical settings. Ethical considerations, patient education, and interdisciplinary collaboration are emphasized to prepare students for professional practice in rehabilitation settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007
Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding drug development and approval,an "orphan drug" is a drug that is A) used exclusively in children
B) prescribed for conditions other than those approved by the FDA
C) given special funding for development because it is used in a small patient population with a relatively rare disease
D) available directly to consumers without a prescription E) only available in countries outside the United States
Answer: C
Q2) The generic form of a drug is considered to be as safe and effective as the original,brand-name product if the generic form _________ as the brand-name drug.
A) has the same type and amount of the active ingredient(s)
B) uses the same administration route
C) has the same pharmacokinetic profile (drug absorption, plasma levels, and so forth) D) produces the same therapeutic effects
E) all the above are true
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and
Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) When crossing cell membranes,drugs will diffuse more readily through the lipid layer if they are
A) non-lipid soluble
B) in a neutral, nonionized form
C) in a charged, ionized form
D) large proteins
Answer: B
Q2) This first pass effect is of particular concern when drugs are administered
A) topically
B) by intravenous injection
C) by subcutaneous injection
D) by inhalation
E) orally
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) The process of breaking the original drug compound into separate parts is known as A) oxidation
B) reduction
C) conjugation
D) hydrolysis
E) biodestruction
Answer: D
Q2) Most drugs are metabolized by _____ to the drug molecule,and the enzymes that catalyze these reactions are typically located at the ____ of specific cells.
A) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; mitochondria
B) adding a hydrogen or removing an oxygen; mitochondria
C) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; rough (granular) endoplasmic reticulum
D) adding a hydrogen or removing an oxygen; rough (granular) endoplasmic reticulum
E) adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; smooth (agranular) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) Overstimulation of postsynaptic receptors may lead to a decrease in responsiveness of the receptors.A fairly brief and transient decrease in receptor responsiveness is known as _____,whereas a more prolonged process in which the actual number of available receptors is diminished is known as _________.
A) down-regulation; desensitization
B) desensitization; up-regulation
C) up-regulation; desensitization
D) down-regulation; autophosphorylation
E) desensitization; down-regulation
Q2) A noncompetitive antagonist
A) has a more or less equal opportunity to occupy the receptor as the agonist
B) forms rather weak bonds with the receptor
C) produces inhibition that can be overcome by administering high concentrations of the agonist
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the
A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) When used to treat anxiety disorders,buspirone (BuSpar)acts by increasing the effects of _________ in certain areas of the brain,whereas more traditional antianxiety drugs such as Valium increase the inhibitory effects of _______ in the CNS.
A) GABA; serotonin
B) serotonin; GABA
C) GABA; acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine; serotonin
E) serotonin; dopamine
Q2) Drugs used to relax the patient and promote sleep are classified as
A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antidepressants
C) antipsychotics
D) neuroleptics
E) antidyskinetics
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) Lithium has a tendency to accumulate in the body and reaches toxic levels (lithium toxicity)because
A) lithium elimination takes place almost exclusively through excretion in the urine
B) lithium is metabolized by hepatic enzymes
C) lithium is not absorbed easily from the GI tract
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) According to the neurogenesis basis for depression,antidepressant drugs may increase the CNS production of ____,thereby leading to increased synaptic connections in the _____.
A) dopamine; basal ganglia
B) dopamine; hippocampus
C) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; basal ganglia
D) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; hippocampus
E) acetylcholine; cerebellum
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Antipsychotic drugs can result in the production of abnormal movement patterns known as
A) intra-articular symptoms
B) extrapyramidal symptoms
C) spinocerebellar symptoms
D) dorsal column symptoms
E) malignant hyperthermia
Q2) All of the following motor side effects are associated with antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT
A) spasticity
B) tardive dyskinesia
C) pseudoparkinsonism
D) akathisia
E) dystonias
Q3) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) It appears that antiseizure medications can be successfully discontinued in a large percentage of people with seizure disorders,especially if these patients
A) have been free of seizures for at least 2 years while on medications
B) have a normal neurologic examination prior to withdrawal
C) were relatively young when the seizures started
D) all the above are true
E) antiseizure drugs can never be discontinued under any circumstances
Q2) Barbiturates are considered to be very safe and effective in the treatment of seizures,but their use is often limited because of their strong tendency to produce
A) sedation
B) myopathy
C) cardiac dysrhythmias
D) hair loss
E) glaucoma
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11
Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to levodopa administration,"end-of-dose akinesia" describes the phenomenon where
A) a patient experiences hallucinations and other psychotropic effects of levodopa
B) drug effects follow an on-off pattern throughout the day
C) levodopa seems to become less effective when it is administered for prolonged periods (3 to 4 years)
D) the effectiveness of levodopa seems to wear off prior to the next dose
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)inhibitors such as entacapone (Comtan)and tolcapone (Tasmar)may enhance the effects of levodopa because these drugs
A) decrease the breakdown of dopamine in the brain
B) increase dopamine absorption from the GI tract
C) prevent conversion of levodopa to an inactive metabolite in the bloodstream
D) increase the breakdown of dopamine in the brain
E) prolong the activity of acetylcholine in the brain
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Page 12
Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) When injected intravenously,general anesthetics offer the advantage of _______,but have a primary disadvantage of _____.
A) rapid onset of anesthesia; a relative lack of control over the level of anesthesia
B) rapid onset of anesthesia; excessive first pass metabolism
C) relatively good control over the level of anesthesia; rapid onset of anesthesia
D) relatively good control over the level of anesthesia; excessive first pass metabolism
E) relatively good control over the level of anesthesia; slow onset of anesthesia
Q2) Adipose tissue is a primary site for the absorption and temporary accumulation of general anesthetics because
A) adipose tissues are highly perfused by the bloodstream
B) general anesthetics are very water soluble
C) general anesthetics are very lipid soluble
D) adipose tissue is the primary site where general anesthetics are metabolized
E) none of the above are true; general anesthetics are not absorbed by adipose tissue
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Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Absorption of local anesthetics into the system circulation is dangerous because these drugs can
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction
B) cause bradycardia
C) inhibit respiratory control centers in the CNS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) In order to provide symptomatic relief of minor surface irritation and injury (minor burns,abrasions,and so forth),local anesthetics are typically applied
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) topically
D) by inhalation
Q3) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) If botulinum toxin reaches the systemic circulation,it can cause toxic effects as indicated by
A) generalized muscle weakness
B) difficulty speaking
C) difficulty swallowing
D) respiratory distress
E) all the above
Q2) Botulinum toxin is used to treat spasticity by injecting this drug
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) subcutaneously
D) directly into the spastic muscle
E) none of the above are true; botulinum toxin is not used to treat spasticity
Q3) The drug that inhibits spasticity by selectively inhibiting calcium release from skeletal muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum is
A) diazepam
B) baclofen
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) botulinum toxin
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Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) The source of the naturally occurring opioid (narcotic)analgesics is
A) the foxglove plant
B) the opium poppy
C) St Johns wort
D) leaves from the gingko tree
E) opioid analgesics cannot be derived from natural sources
Q2) Methadone is often used to treat opioid addiction because methadone
A) is a strong opioid antagonist
B) has much more severe withdrawal symptoms than other opioids
C) has opioid-like effects even though methadone is not an opioid
D) methadone does not cross the blood-brain barrier
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Opioid analgesics are also known commonly as _______ because they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.
A) narcotics
B) narcoleptics
C) neuroleptics
D) naturopathics
E) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) In theory,a COX-2 selective drug such as celecoxib will be less likely to cause gastric irritation because
A) COX-2 drugs are less acidic than traditional NSAIDs
B) COX-2 drugs do not inhibit the production of beneficial prostaglandins in the stomach
C) patients taking COX-2 drugs are older than patients taking traditional NSAIDs
D) COX-2 drugs are coated so that the drug does not dissolve until it reaches the small intestine.
E) all the above are true
Q2) Several COX-2 selective inhibitors such as rofecoxib (Vioxx)and valdecoxib (Bextra)have been taken off the market because these drugs can cause serious side effects such as
A) liver failure
B) brain tumors
C) heart attack and stroke
D) kidney failure
E) skeletal muscle inflammation and myopathy
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) Because they may supply key ingredients needed for the production of articular cartilage and synovial fluid,dietary supplements such as _________ are used by some patients with osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin and acetaminophen
B) prednisone and methylprednisone
C) chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
D) ibuprofen and ketoprofen
E) glucosamine and chondroitin
Q2) In certain patients with osteoarthritis,viscosupplementation is preformed to restore the lubricating properties of synovial fluid by
A) administering oral anti-inflammatory steroids
B) administering oral NSAIDs
C) injecting anti-inflammatory steroids directly into the affected joint
D) injecting hyaluronan directly into the affected joint
E) injecting NSAIDs directly into the affected joint
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Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19965
Sample Questions
Q1) When opioids (e.g.,morphine,meperidine)are administered via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA),a low dose of ____ can be administered along with the opioid to reduce the amount of opioid needed to produce an adequate analgesic effect.
A) an NSAID such as toradol
B) a general anesthetic such as ketamine
C) an antipsychotic such as droperidol
D) an opioid receptor antagonist (blocker) such as naloxone
E) all the above
Q2) When compared to traditional opioid analgesia,patient controlled analgesia may provide adequate pain control,but there is also
A) an increased risk of side effects such as sedation, pruritus, and gastrointestinal problems
B) an increased risk of tolerance and physical dependence
C) decreased patient satisfaction with the PCA technique
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that affects nicotinic cholinergic receptors will affect activity in both divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)because
A) nicotinic cholinergic receptors are found on all organs and tissues innervated by the ANS
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors are located at the junction between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways
C) both divisions of the ANS affect peripheral tissues by releasing epinephrine onto those tissues
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19967
Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
Q2) Because Alzheimer disease is associated with loss of cortical neurons that release acetylcholine,_____ may be helpful in improving cognition and memory during the early stages of this disease.
A) direct cholinergic stimulants
B) indirect cholinergic stimulants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants
D) indirect adrenergic stimulants
E) there are no drugs that are useful during any stage of Alzheimer disease
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21
Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchospasm associated with respiratory ailments such as asthma,bronchitis,and emphysema is often treated with
A) beta-1 adrenergic agonists
B) beta-1 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
C) beta-2 adrenergic agonists
D) beta-2 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
E) alpha-1 adrenergic agonists
Q2) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) Nitric oxide can be used to reduce vascular resistance and decrease arterial pressure in specific hypertensive syndromes because nitric oxide
A) inhibits (blocks) beta-1 receptors on the heart
B) inhibits (blocks) beta-2 receptors on the heart
C) inhibits (blocks) alpha-1 receptors on arteriole smooth muscle
D) directly inhibits the contraction of vascular smooth muscle
E) none of the above are true; nitric oxide is not useful in reducing arterial pressure
Q2) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors can help _____ blood pressure by _____ the formation of angiotensin II.
A) increase; increasing
B) increasing; decreasing
C) decreasing; increasing
D) decrease; decreasing E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19970
Sample Questions
Q1) Angina pectoris can be permanently resolved (cured)in most patients after short term (2 week use)of
A) organic nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) organic nitrates such as isosorbide nitrate
C) beta blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) antianginal drugs do not sure this disease but only treat symptoms of myocardial ischemia
Q2) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta blockers are effective in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they _____ the excitatory effects of ______ on the heart
A) increase; acetylcholine
B) decrease; acetylcholine
C) increase; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
D) decrease; catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
E) increase; beta interferons
Q2) Which of the following drug categories is NOT used to treat cardiac arrhythmias?
A) sodium channel blockers
B) chloride channel blockers
C) beta blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) drugs that prolong cardiac repolarization
Q3) An antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the effective refractory period of the cardiac action potential
A) will speed up repolarization of cardiac muscle cells
B) will generally increase heart rate
C) will decrease the time interval between cardiac action potentials
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digitalis may exert some of its beneficial effects by decreasing heart rate via a(n)_______ in _______ stimulation of the heart.
A) increase; parasympathetic
B) decrease; sympathetic
C) increase; sympathetic
D) decrease; parasympathetic
E) A and B are true
Q2) Digitalis and the other cardiac glycosides increase the mechanical pumping ability of the heart by bringing about an increase in _________ concentration.
A) extracellular potassium
B) intracellular potassium
C) extracellular calcium
D) intracellular calcium
E) extracellular sodium
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19973
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the process of having a heart attack due to the sudden formation of an arterial thrombus in his coronary artery.To break up the clot and save the patient's life,the best drug to use is
A) a low-molecular weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin)
B) a fibrinolytic drug (e.g. streptokinase or tPA)
C) a fibrinolysis inhibitor (e.g., aminocaproic acid)
D) warfarin (Coumadin)
E) vitamin K
Q2) All of the following drugs will inhibit platelet-induced clots EXCEPT
A) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor blockers such as clopidogrel (Plavix) and ticlopidine (Ticlid)
B) glycoprotein (GP) IIb-IIIa receptor blockers such as abciximab (ReoPro) and eptifibatide (Integrilin)
C) anti-gout drugs such as sulfinpyrazone (Anturane)
D) acetaminophen products such as Tylenol
E) aspirin
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19974
Sample Questions
Q1) High doses and prolonged or excessive use of nasal decongestants is potentially harmful because these drugs
A) can increase heart rate
B) can increase blood pressure
C) can mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Drugs that antagonize (block)the H1 subtype of histamine receptors
A) are effective in treating gastric ulcers
B) are effective in treating sedation
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
Q3) Most common nasal decongestants act by _____ receptors in the nasal mucosa.
A) stimulating alpha-1
B) inhibiting alpha-1
C) stimulating beta-1
D) inhibiting beta-1
E) stimulating histamine
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most antacid medications contain a chemical base that neutalizes excess _____ ions in the stomach,thereby _____ intragastric pH.
A) hydrogen; increasing B) hydrogen; decreasing C) sodium; increasing D) sodium; decreasing E) calcium; increasing
Q2) To improve the health and well-being of people with cystic fibrosis (CF),____ can be given to ____.
A) digestant preparations that contain pancreatic enzymes and bile salts; improve digestion and absorption of nutrients
B) products that contain deoxyribonuclease enzymes; decrease the viscosity of mucous in the respiratory tract
C) glucocorticoids; decrease inflammation in the airway
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; decrease inflammation in the airway E) all the above
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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6 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A toxin that selectively destroys the alpha cells of the pancreas would impair the production of
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) digestive proteases
E) digestive lipases
Q2) All of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary EXCEPT
A) growth hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) prolactin
Q3) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mineralocorticoid antagonists such as spironolactone and eplerenone are used primarily
A) as diuretics in treating hypertension and heart failure.
B) as anti-inflammatory agents in treating rheumatoid arthritis
C) as immunosuppressants in treating rheumatoid arthritis
D) as replacement therapy for people with adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison disease)
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Drugs with mineralocorticoid-like activity (aldosterone agonists)are typically administered
A) to treat hypertension
B) to treat inflammation
C) as replacement therapy in people with low renin-angiotensin system activity
D) as replacement therapy whenever the natural production of mineralocorticoids is impaired
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) In certain older men,small doses of testosterone (testosterone replacement)may produce beneficial effects on body composition,strength,bone mineralization,mood,and libido,but may also cause an increased risk of A) anemia
B) osteoporosis
C) prostate hypertrophy and cancer
D) skin breakdown
E) hereditary angioedema
Q2) Physiologic doses of testosterone can be used therapeutically to treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT A) delayed puberty in boys
B) hereditary angioedema
C) anemia
D) prostate cancer
E) conditions in which there is substantial muscle catabolism and protein loss
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19979
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following symptoms are associated with hyperthyroidism EXCEPT
A) weight loss
B) bradycardia
C) insomnia
D) heat intolerance
E) muscle wasting
Q2) Small amounts of _____ must be ingested in the diet so that the thyroid gland can synthesize thyroid hormones.
A) riboflavin
B) selenium
C) iodine
D) manganese
E) magnesium
Q3) Treatment of hypothyroidism typically consists of
A) beta blockers
B) radioactive iodine
C) large doses of iodide
D) antithyroid agents such as propylthiouracil (Propyl-Thyracil) and methimazole (Tapazole)
E) none of the above are true
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glugagon-like peptide type 1 (GLP-1)receptor agonists such as exenatide (Byetta)and liraglutide (Victoza)sensitize pancreatic ____ cells so that a relatively greater amount of _____ is released when these cells sense a rise in blood glucose.
A) alpha; insulin
B) beta; insulin
C) alpha; glucagon
D) beta; glucagon
E) delta; somatostatin
Q2) The primary problem in type 2 diabetes is _____.
A) decreased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
B) increased release of glucagon from pancreatic alpha cells
C) decreased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
D) increased sensitivity of peripheral tissues to circulating insulin
E) decreased production of antidiuretic hormone
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Q1) Rehabilitation interventions that use ultraviolet irradiation (UV light)should be used cautiously in people taking antibacterial drugs because antibacterial drugs may cause
A) pulmonary edema
B) photosensitivity
C) renal failure
D) tendinopathy
E) rhabdomyolisis
Q2) Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by
A) developing enzymes that destroy the drug
B) modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
C) modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
D) developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In people infected with HIV,highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)typically consists of
A) one reverse transcriptase inhibitor at maximal dosage
B) one protease inhibitor at maximal dosage
C) two drugs, e.g. a RTI plus a protease inhibitor
D) two drugs, e.g. a nonnucleoside RTI plus a nucleoside RTI
E) three drugs, e.g. two nucleoside RTIs and one nonnucleoside RTI
Q2) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Q2) Antifungal drugs are relatively safe when administered _____,but the risk of liver toxicity and other severe side effects increases substantially when these drugs are given
A) topically; orally
B) orally; topically
C) subcutaneously; topically
D) intravenously; subcutaneously
E) systemically; locally
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels,thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients.Drugs that use this strategy are known as
A) topoisomerase inhibitors
B) angiogenesis inhibitors
C) aromatase inhibitors
D) antimetabolites
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g.,cytokines)are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they
A) form strong alkyl bonds within the DNA of the cancerous cell
B) act as false nucleic acid precursors during DNA biosynthesis
C) encourage the body's immune system to fight cancerous cells
D) encourage the mitotic apparatus to function more effectively
E) stimulate the supply of blood and nutrients to the developing tumor
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block the interleukin-2 receptor (e.g.,basiliximab [Simulect],daclizumab [Zenapax])and prevent interleukin-2 from activating T lymphocytes can be especially helpful in
A) reducing the progression of HIV infection to AIDS
B) reducing the incidence of acute organ transplant rejection
C) treating antibacterial drug resistance
D) treating antiviral drug resistance
E) reversing resistance to cancer chemotherapeutic drugs
Q2) Sirolimus,a relatively new immunosuppressant,is especially helpful following kidney transplants because
A) it causes sodium retention
B) it increases renin release from the kidneys
C) it does not reduce glomerular filtration and other aspects of kidney function
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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