Therapeutic Interventions in Psychiatric Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the foundational principles and evidence-based practices involved in therapeutic interventions within psychiatric nursing. Students will develop a comprehensive understanding of various psychotherapeutic approaches, including individual, group, and family therapies, as well as crisis intervention and de-escalation techniques. Emphasis is placed on the nurses role in assessment, planning, and implementation of therapeutic strategies tailored to diverse patient populations with mental health needs. The course also addresses ethical considerations, therapeutic communication skills, and the integration of pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments, equipping students to promote recovery, resilience, and holistic well-being in mental health settings.
Recommended Textbook
Psychiatric Advanced Practice Nursing 1st Edition by Perese
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19 Chapters
203 Verified Questions
203 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Theoretical Framework of Practice
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nobel Prize winner Eric Kandel demonstrated that the brain
A) Is plastic before birth but becomes hard-wired at birth
B) Has plasticity and can change during the first 3 years of life
C) Has plasticity that allows it to make new connections in response to learning
D) Is unable to make new connections after age 26
Answer: C
Q2) Freud's drive theory proposes that individuals are motivated by
A) Basic drives for survival and reproduction.
B) Need to reduce anxiety.
C) Need to resolve interpersonal conflicts.
D) Basic drives for altruism.
Answer: A
Q3) In a cantilevered model of needs such as Hansell's model,
A) Basic needs must be met first
B) There is a hierarchy of needs
C) Each need supports all other needs
D) Self-actualization is the last need to be met
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Neurobiological Theory of Psychiatric Disorders:
Brain Functioning, Brain Development and Prenatal and
Perinatal Factors Disrupting Brain Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of this brain structure was formerly believed to be limited to maintaining balance and learning motor skills but is now believed to be involved in learning and emotions and may be involved in autism. It is the
A) Cerebellum
B) Insula
C) Corpus callosum
D) Pons
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following structures provides for communication between the two hemispheres of the brain?
A) Lateral ventricle
B) Basal ganglia
C) Corpus callosum
D) Hypothalamus
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Postnatal Influences on Development of Psychopathology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell synaptogenesis refers to A) Birth of new neuronal cells
B) Migration of neurons
C) Programmed cell death
D) Establishment of connections between neurons
Answer: D
Q2) Among children who have experienced chronic exposure to family violence, it has been found that
A) The children may lack capacity for emotional self-regulation.
B) Most of the children are able to integrate their experiences into a positive inner model of the world.
C) As adolescents, they have lower rates of aggressive behavior problems.
D) The rate of adult psychopathology is the same as that of the general population.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Communicating, Interviewing and Assessing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients' perceptual difficulties may have an adverse effect on the therapeutic alliance. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest negative effect?
A) The patient perceives the office seating arrangement as belittling.
B) The patient perceives the clinician as being part of her delusional system.
C) The patient perceives the sound in the hall as messages for the patient.
D) The patient perceives the clinician's glancing at his watch as nonvalidating.
Q2) Validation is a communication strategy used to
A) Let the patient know that his or her feelings are reasonable.
B) Evaluate change in symptoms or behaviors.
C) Prompt the patient to continue talking.
D) Elicit more information about a response.
Q3) Closed-ended questions
A) Are used to gather specific information
B) Allow the patient to talk without interruption
C) Are characterized by the use of reflection
D) Are used to obtain difficult or emotionally laden material
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Chapter 5: Case Formulation and Diagnosis, Differential
Diagnoses and Developing a Biopsychosocial Plan of Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of a biopsychosocial case formulation is to
A) Generate an understanding of the person as a whole
B) Identify comorbid medical illnesses
C) Assess the maturity of the patient's defense mechanisms
D) Determine patient's level of social support
Q2) A precipitating event might be
A) Financial losses or loss of housing
B) Chronic health problems
C) Childhood separations and anxiety disorders
D) Genetic influences and premature birth
Q3) A predisposing event would be all of the following except
A) Early prolonged separation from the mother
B) Having been born unwanted
C) Recent arrests or incarcerations
D) History of childhood neglect or abuse
Q4) The primary purpose of a biopsychosocial case formulation is to
A) Predict response to different treatment modalities
B) Organize key facts around a cause, the source of the problem
C) Provide information required for reimbursement
D) Determine the level of care required
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Chapter 6: Psychopharmacotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the following statements, which best describes the action of older typical antipsychotic medications such as Haldol?
A) They block dopamine receptors in all four dopamine pathways.
B) They decrease available amounts of serotonin and norepinephrine.
C) They decrease the metabolism of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
D) They selectively block reuptake of dopamine.
Q2) A patient who is receiving the typical antipsychotic medication haloperidol is stepping back and forth from foot to foot and says that he feels very restless. This could be a manifestation of
A) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B) Akathisia
C) Increasing psychosis
D) An anticholinergic response
Q3) Which of the following reactions is indicative of a dystonic reaction?
A) Oculogyric crisis and spasms of the back muscles
B) Tongue thrusting and lip-smacking movements
C) Pill-rolling hand movement and mask-like facial expression
D) Urinary retention and orthostatic hypotension
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8
Chapter 7: Psychotherapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brief psychotherapy refers to a category of psychotherapies that brings about changes in patients through
A) Therapist-initiated, focused, emotionally corrective interventions
B) Helping patients to develop an understanding of childhood conflicts
C) Participation of family members in treatment sessions
D) Helping patients to develop insight through self-exploration
Q2) In supportive therapy, the focus is on
A) Strengthening self-esteem and ego functioning
B) Promoting insight
C) Remediating cognitive functioning
D) Exposure and response prevention
Q3) Among factors believed to be involved in the development of psychopathology, which of the following factors is most amenable to psychotherapy?
A) Temperament
B) Genetic influenced brain development
C) Adverse circumstances of birth
D) Mastery of psychosocial tasks at different ages
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) It can be said of social rhythms therapy that
A) It is involved in establishing regular patterns of sleep.
B) It has been found to be effective for major depressive disorder but not for bipolar disorder.
C) It is involved in establishing regular patterns of sleeping, eating, exercising, and engaging in other daily activities.
D) It has not been found to be effective as adjunctive treatment in obesity.
Q2) Family psychoeducation is designed to do all of the following except
A) Provide information about the illness
B) Reduce criticism of the patient by the family
C) Promote problem-solving skills of the family
D) Advocate for vocational rehabilitation
Q3) Selection of level of case management for a patient is influenced by the A) Type of psychiatric disorder
B) Degree of impairment of functioning
C) Legal status of the patient
D) Presence of a comorbid substance-related disorder
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10
Chapter 9: Response to Stressors: Bridging Normal
Responses and Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) It can be said of exposure to traumatic events that
A) The majority of people develop some form of psychopathology.
B) The development of adjustment disorder is likely to follow exposure to life-threatening traumatic events.
C) The normal reaction includes grief, anxiety, and thoughts of suicide.
D) Cognitive appraisal and style of coping have greater influence on outcome than the physical aspects of the traumatic event.
Q2) Complicated grief differs from normal grief by the presence of A) Emotions of anger and regret
B) Persistent longing and yearning for the deceased
C) Physical symptoms of headaches and indigestion
D) Problems with concentration and planning
Q3) The process of allostasis includes
A) Mobilization of energy, activation of cognition, and behavioral changes
B) Reduction of production of cortisol
C) Decreased levels of norepinephrine
D) Development of a state of exhaustion
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Phobias, Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Social
Anxiety Disorder and Panic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) In considering maintenance treatment for a patient with GAD who is anxious, agitated, and irritable and has sleep problems, which medication(s) might you select?
A) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
B) A dopamine agonist
C) Paroxetine (Paxil) or sertraline (Zoloft)
D) Alprazolam (Xanax)
Q2) It can be said that in the fear system, the amygdala
A) Serves as a response center for danger and fear
B) Imprints the time and place of an event
C) Evaluates the event in relation to memories of previous experiences
D) Releases hormones that start a cascade of neurohormones and neurotransmitters that prepare the body to respond to a threat
Q3) Leonard avoids going out to eat with his family at restaurants. He is concerned that others may watch him and criticize his table manners. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Agoraphobia
B) Specific situational phobia
C) Social anxiety disorder
D) Generalized anxiety disorder
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Acute Stress Disorder and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mental status variation are you most likely to expect for a client diagnosed as having post-traumatic stress disorder?
A) Thought: delusions of grandeur
B) Perceptual: derealization and depersonalization
C) Memory: impaired recent memory
D) Mood: inappropriate, silly
Q2) Following exposure to a traumatic event, post-traumatic stress disorder occurs more often
A) Among men
B) Among individuals who have experienced prior traumas
C) Among individuals with high levels of education
D) Among those who are married or in a stable relationship
Q3) The current frontline treatment for acute stress disorder is
A) Mood stabilizer medications
B) Interpersonal psychotherapy
C) Antianxiety medications
D) Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy
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Page 13
Obsessive-Compulsive
Spectrum Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) It can be said of the obsession of hoarding that it is associated with
A) A fear of making a wrong decision in discarding things that might be needed in the future
B) Abnormalities of the fear/anxiety circuitry
C) A feeling that hoarding is ego-syntonic
D) Less severe symptoms and impairment of functioning than other obsessions
Q2) For one-third to one-half of patients with OCD, the onset of the symptoms is
A) After the age of 30 years
B) In the 30s and 40s
C) During childhood or adolescence
D) In middle age
Q3) Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is most effective in the treatment of OCD?
A) Imipramine
B) Amitriptyline
C) Desipramine
D) Clomipramine
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Depressive Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient says that for the last 5 years, she has begun to feel depressed around the time the golf season ends in November and begins to feel better when she is able to get outdoors to play again in April. When she is depressed, she craves carbohydrates, overeats, and gains weight. She has no energy and wants to sleep all the time and she is irritable and snaps at people. The psychiatric advanced practice nurse considers which of the following diagnoses?
A) Dysthymia
B) Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern
C) Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
D) Major depressive disorder with atypical features
Q2) A patient says that she has been becoming increasingly depressed following the birth of her first child 4 months ago. She had an episode of depression in her 20s but recovered. Now, she is becoming more despondent, crying, and sleeping a lot. She fears that she may hurt the baby if she does not get treatment. A possible diagnosis is
A) Major depressive disorder with melancholic features
B) Major depressive disorder with psychotic features
C) Dysthymia with superimposed major depression (double depression)
D) Major depressive disorder with postpartum onset
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Chapter 14: Bipolar Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Manic episodes of bipolar disorder are thought be related to A) Changes in diet
B) Disruption of sleep-wake cycles
C) Female gender
D) Advanced age, over 60 years
Q2) On clinical evaluation, patients with bipolar disorder have been found to have impairment of
A) Balance
B) Executive functioning
C) Production of speech
D) Spatial functioning
Q3) In the prodromal phase of bipolar disorder, patients' behaviors often include A) Putting their affairs in order
B) Sleeping more than usual
C) Increased talkativeness
D) A decrease of social activities
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Chapter 15: Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) It has been suggested that reduced volume of the temporal lobe is related to
A) Persistence of negative symptoms
B) Severity of auditory hallucinations
C) Deficits in working memory
D) Impairment of motor coordination
Q2) Brain imaging techniques have revealed which one of the following anatomic changes in some people with schizophrenia?
A) Increased blood flow in the prefrontal area
B) Increased ventricular size
C) Increased brain activity in the frontal area
D) Enlargement of the thalamus
Q3) Abnormalities of motor function characterized by a marked lack of motion or remaining in one posture are most characteristic of which subtype of schizophrenia?
A) Paranoid
B) Catatonic
C) Disorganized
D) Undifferentiated
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Chapter 16: Delirium and Dementia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is classified as a subcortical dementia?
A) Dementia of Alzheimer's type
B) Dementia due to Pick's disease
C) Dementia due to Parkinson's disease
D) Dementia due to vascular dementia
Q2) In the early stages of dementia, frontal-temporal dementia is more likely than Alzheimer's-type dementia to be characterized by
A) Deficits in executive functioning
B) Problems with memory
C) Personality changes
D) Losing things
Q3) In mild cognitive impairment there is likely to be
A) Social and vocational disability
B) Impairment of activities of daily living
C) Deficits of memory
D) Wandering and disorientation
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18
Chapter 17: Dual Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications used to decrease alcohol consumption interferes with the metabolism of alcohol?
A) Naltrexone (ReVia)
B) Disulfiram (Antabuse)
C) Acamprosate (Campral)
D) Extended-release naltrexone injection
Q2) The clinical effects and withdrawal symptoms of amphetamines are similar to those of
A) Heroine
B) Alcohol
C) Cocaine
D) Marijuana
Q3) Current treatment approaches for dual diagnosis or co-occurring disorders focuses on
A) Identifying primary disorders and treating them first
B) Treating psychiatric disorders and substance-related disorders separately
C) Treating all co-occurring disorders as primary disorders
D) Treating psychiatric disorders first
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19
Chapter 18: Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the biological markers for schizotypal personality disorder, all of the following have been reported except
A) Increased ventricles
B) Increased cerebrospinal fluid
C) Impaired smooth pursuit eye movements
D) Impaired of executive functioning
Q2) Avoidant personality disorder is distinguished from schizoid personality disorder by which of the following characteristics?
A) Desire to socialize with others but fear of rejection
B) Lack of desire to socialize with others
C) Disregard for social norms and the rights of others
D) Focus on rules, orderliness, and perfectionism
Q3) Impulsivity and suicidality are often associated with borderline personality disorder. Which of the following pharmacological interventions is frequently used to reduce impulsivity and suicidality?
A) Tricyclic antidepressants
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Prevention of Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among older adults, evidence suggests that the risk for developing dementia can be reduced by which of the following interventions?
A) Cognitive remediation
B) Identifying and treating hearing loss
C) Cognitive restructuring
D) Identifying and treating symptoms of depression
Q2) Some childhood disorders persist in the same form into adulthood, but some may increase the risk for other psychiatric disorders. Which of the following childhood disorders increases risk for other psychiatric disorders?
A) Anxiety disorder
B) Depression
C) Oppositional-defiant disorder
D) Specific phobias
Q3) A factor that has frequently been associated with children's increased risk of experiencing maltreatment is
A) Having two or more children in the family
B) Having a parent with mental illness and substance abuse
C) Having grandparents living with the family
D) Having a limited family budget for leisure activities
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